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Imaging Exam 3

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most common cause of a middle mediastinal mass?

a)

Lymphadenopathy

b)

Hiatial Hernia

c)

Thyroid mass

d)

Cyst

2.

A patient with cystic fibrosis comes to the ER with SOB and wheezing. A chest X-ray shows tram-tracks (ring-like markings) with dilated bronchi. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Bronchiectasis

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Hypertension

3.

A patient who is a retired sandblaster presents with chronic SOB and the chest X-ray shows eggshell calcifications. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

TB

b)

Sarcoidosis

c)

Bronchiectasis

d)

Silicosis

4.

A person comes into the ER with a severe chest pain that feels like their chest is ripping and it come on out of no where quickly. An aortic dissection is diagnosed, what is NOT seen on the CXR?

a)

Dilated aorta

b)

Dilated Bronchi

c)

Cardiomegaly

d)

Widen mediastinum

5.

A CT showing a markedly enlarged aorta with a surrounding thrombus and small pleural effusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Thoracic aortic aneurysm

b)

Aortic Dissection

c)

Tension Pneumothorax

d)

Silicosis

6.

What is MPI?

a)

Multiple posterior imaging

b)

Nuclear Myocardial Perfusion imaging

c)

Mass poly-immmunocompromise

7.

What relies on the use of radioisotopes like thallium-201 or technetium-99M?

a)

MPI

b)

CAD

c)

CXR

d)

Enema

8.

What diagnosis's use HRCT?

a)

Pneumoconiosis and Sarcoidosis

b)

Pneumonia and Pleural effusion

c)

Posterior mediastinal mass and Bronchiectasis

d)

Sarcoidosis and pneumonia

9.

The primary indication for a CCTA is to diagnose what?

a)

CAD in patients with low to intermediate pretest probability

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

TB

10.

CCTA assesses?

a)

Plaque burden

b)

Evaluation of coronary artery stenosis

c)

overall assessment of cardiac structure and function

d)

All of the above

11.

What is the most likely Diagnosis?

a)

Silicosis

b)

Sarcoidosis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

None of the above

12.

Another name for upper endoscopy?

a)

Enteroscopy

b)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Sigmoidoscopy

13.

What allows visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum (to it's 3rd and maybe 4th portion)?

a)

CTA

b)

MRI

c)

EGD

d)

ERCP

14.

Sigmoidoscopy shows?

a)

rectum, sigmoid colon and descending colon

b)

Large bowel and terminal ileum

c)

Rectum

d)

Jejunum

15.

Which is used primarily as a diagnostic tool?

a)

None are correct

b)

Contrast

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Sigmoidoscopy

16.

Requires sedation, used in colorectal cancer screening, acute and chronic diarrhea and rectal bleeding. Considered diagnostic, screening and therapeutic.

a)

Sigmoidoscopy

b)

MRI

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

EGD

17.

Which modality is best to evaluate soft tissues?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Nuclear medicine

18.

A patient comes in with difficulty swallowing and feels like food is being stuck in the neck or chest area. What is the imaging modality of choice?

a)

ERG

b)

ED

c)

ERCP

d)

Barium Swallow

19.

What is the best diagnosis?

a)

Localized Ileus

b)

Zenker Diverticulum

c)

Achalasia

d)

Pneumonia

20.

In a fluoroscopy barium exam, a dilated esophagus with smooth tapering (similar to a bird beak appearance) was noticed, what is the best diagnosis?

a)

GERD

b)

Diverticulum

c)

Gas

d)

Achalasia

21.

What radiograph includes kidneys, ureters and bladder?

a)

Supine AP (KUB or standard projection)

b)

Lateral decubitus

c)

PA erect

d)

CTA

22.

True or False: Air/gas should be seen within the lumen of the bowl.

a)

False

b)

True

23.

True or False: Supine radiographs are more sensitive than other abdominal radiographs to the presence of free intraperitoneal air.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

If on a ABX, it shows riglers sign and falciform ligament sign, what is the best diagnosis?

a)

Large Bowl obstruction

b)

Small bowl obstruction

c)

Gas

d)

Pneumoperitoneum

25.

What is this showing?

a)

A normal ABX

b)

Riglers sign

c)

Abnormal gas in abdomen

d)

A hungry man

26.

Normal gas pattern in small bowl?

a)

No intestinal gas

b)

Have small pockets of air

c)

Small intestinal looks measuring <2.5 to 3 cm in diameter

d)

All of the above

27.

Large bowl characteristics?

a)

Almost always has some gas and fecal material

b)

Diameter varies from 3 to 8 CM

c)

Peripheral

d)

2 options are correct

e)

All options are correct

28.

ABX does NOT show which bones?

a)

Lower ribs

b)

Coccyx

c)

Clavicle

d)

Pelvis

e)

Lumbar spine

29.

Which of the following is NOT correct?

a)

Stomach -air and fluids are normal

b)

Large Bowel - Almost always has gas in rectum and sigmoid

c)

Large Bowel - has fluid/air in the colon distal to the hepatic flexure

d)

Small Bowel - has minimal amounts of gas

e)

Small Bowel - air/fluid levels is normal on upright and decubitus imaging.

30.

The routine acute abdomen series includes:

a)

Erect Posterior-Anterior Chest

b)

Supine

c)

Erect or Decubitus

d)

Only 2 answers are correct

e)

All answers are correct?

31.

What is a functional ileum?

a)

one or more loops of the bowel will lose their peristaltic ability

b)

an ileum that is functional

c)

enlarged intestines

d)

None are correct

32.

Which is not correct?

a)

RUQ dilation causes= acute cholecystitis, hepatitis or pyelonephritis

b)

LUQ dilation causes= pancreatitis, pyelonephritis or splenic injury

c)

Both lower quadrants dilation causes= diverticulitis, appendicitis, salpingitis, cystitis or crohns

d)

No gas in rectum or sigmoid

e)

All are correct

33.

A post operative patient in which a follow-up ABX was done. What is shown?

a)

Localized Ileus

b)

SBO

c)

Generalized Ileus

d)

LBO

34.

Adhesion's, hernia's, gallstone's usually cause?

a)

SBO

b)

LBO

c)

Functional ileus

d)

Generalized ileus

35.

An ABX with stepladder or hairpin loops or a string of pearls sign is a characteristic of what diagnosis?

a)

LBO

b)

Acute abdomen injury

c)

Gas

d)

SOB

36.

A elderly patient comes into the ER with abdominal pains. An x-ray was done and it showed dilation of cecum and no gas in the rectum or sigmoid. What can be the best cause?

a)

LBO

b)

SBO

c)

cholecystitis

d)

gallstones

37.

What are the causes of LBO?

a)

Tumor

b)

Volvulus

c)

Hernia

d)

Diverticulitis

e)

All of the answers are correct

38.

A 33 year old pregnant women comes into the hospital with RUQ pain. The ultrasound was inconclusive, what would be the next step?

a)

Just wait and see if it's gas

b)

MRI

c)

CTA

d)

X-ray

39.

An unstable patient comes into the emergency room with blunt abdominal trauma. You suspect intraperitoneal hemorrhage. What is your modality of choice?

a)

Focused assessment with sonography for trauma

b)

MRI

c)

CT

d)

Abdominal x-ray

40.

A patient is brought into the emergency rom for blunt abdominal trauma. Upon initial evaluation the patient seems unstable. What is your modality of choice?

a)

FAST

b)

MRI

c)

CT

d)

Abdominal X-ray

41.

From the image what do you see?

a)

Calcifications

b)

Valvulae Conniventes

c)

Small bowl Obstruction

d)

All of the above

e)

Only 2 answers are correct

42.

Which are considered endoscopic diagnostic studies?

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

b)

MRI

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

All are correct

e)

Only 2 are correct

43.

Which is not considered non-endoscopic imaging?

a)

ERCP

b)

Radiography

c)

MRI

d)

CT

e)

Nuclear medicine

44.

A 17 year old male comes in with complaints of severe pain in the testicles. What image modality would you first do?

a)

X-Ray

b)

Prostate exam

c)

Ultrasonography with doppler

d)

CTA

45.

A patient with suspected renal stones comes into the hospital. What will be your modality of choice?

a)

MRI

b)

CTA

c)

CT with contrast

d)

CT without contrast

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