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ICND -1 LAN Switching Fundamentals

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two of these statements regarding 801.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose two)

a)

801.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default

b)

801.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports

c)

801.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at bot hends

d)

801.1Q native VLAN frames are always untagged and cannot be tagged

e)

801.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity

2.

What is the maximum size of an Ethernet frame that uses 801.1Q tagging?

a)

68 bytes

b)

128 bytes

c)

1522 bytes

d)

1514 bytes

3.

Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

a)

Cut through

b)

Process switching

c)

Cisco Express Forwarding

d)

Fast switching

4.

When HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission, after the ping?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

What is used to allow multiple VLANs between switches without using a L3 device?

a)

STP

b)

DHCP

c)

Trunk

6.

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

a)

A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame

b)

A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch

c)

Broadcast frames are never sent to switches

d)

Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table

e)

Broadcasts only use network layer addressing

7.

Which two attributes change all along the pathway from source to destination in network communication? (Choose two)

a)

IP destination address

b)

MAC source address

c)

IP source address

d)

MAC destination address

8.

On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

RTP

d)

CDP

9.

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)

a)

To differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet

b)

To allow communication between different devices on the same network

c)

To allow communication with devices on a different network

d)

To allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

e)

To uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

10.

After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled

a)

Show run

b)

Show interface Loopback 0

c)

show ip interface loopback 0

d)

show ip interface brief

11.

Which of the following statements describe the network as illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose two)

a)

There are seven collision domains in the network

b)

There are four collision domains in the network

c)

There are two broadcast domains in the network

d)

There are six broadcast domains in the network

e)

There are five collision domains in the network

12.

Which two statements about LLDP are true? (Choose two)

a)

It is a Cisco-proprietary technology

b)

It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification

c)

It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices

d)

It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3

e)

It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer

13.

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch? (Choose two)

a)

show interfaces vlan

b)

show interfaces interface trunk

c)

Show interfaces interface switchport

d)

show interfaces interface

e)

show ip interface brief

14.

Which statement describes the effect of this configuration in the exhibit?

a)

VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed

b)

The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode

c)

The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed

d)

VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database

15.

Which protocol allows VLANs to be dynamically configured between multiple switches?

a)

STP

b)

802.1Q

c)

VTP

d)

IGMP

16.

Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between the switches? (Choose three)

a)

Set both sides of the link to full-duplex

b)

Set one side to autonegotiation and the other side to full-duplex

c)

Set both sides to autonegotiation

d)

Set both sides to half-duplex

e)

Set one side to autonegotiation and the other side to half-duplex

17.

How does a Layer 2 switch differ from a hub?

a)

A switch always induces latency into the frame transfer time

b)

A switch tracks MAC addresses of directly-connected devices

c)

A switch decreases the number of collision domains

d)

A switch operates at a lower, more efficient layer of the OSI model

18.

The server on this network is configured with an MTU of 9216, and two interfaces on router R1 are configured for MTUs of 2000 and 3000. What is the largest packet size that can pass between the workstation and the server?

a)

2000 bytes

b)

1500 bytes

c)

9216 bytes

d)

3000 bytes

19.

Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (choose two)

a)

Source IP address

b)

MAC address

c)

Port numbers

d)

Protocols

e)

Destination IP address

20.

The MAC address table on a switch shows the MAC address 1111:1111:1111 mapped to port FA0/1. Now when this switch receives a packet with destination MAC address as 1111:1111:1111 on port FA0/1. How does the switch handle the frame?

a)

It forwards the frame to all ports

b)

It drops the frame

c)

It forwards the frame to all ports except the port on which the frame was received

d)

It forwards the frame to port Fa0/1 only

21.

Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an individual address?

a)

Destination address

b)

Frame Check Sequence

c)

Source address

d)

Start of Frame

22.

A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?

a)

48, 1

b)

4, 1

c)

1, 48

d)

48, 4

e)

4, 48

23.

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

a)

The MAC address of the Server network interface

b)

The MAC address of Host A

c)

The MAC address of router interface e0

d)

The MAC address of router interface e1

24.

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but non of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

a)

The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN

b)

The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs

c)

Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches

d)

VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches

e)

The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk

25.

Which table displays the MAC addresses that are learned on a switch?

a)

Ternary content addressable memory

b)

Content addressable memory

c)

Forwarding information base

d)

Address Resolution Protocol

26.

How does a Cisco IP phone handle untagged traffic that it receives from an attached PC?

a)

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

b)

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

c)

It drops the traffic

d)

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

27.

If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show CDP neighbors command issued from R2?

a)

R2 and R3

b)

R1 and R3

c)

R1, S1, S2, and R3

d)

R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3

e)

R3 and S2

28.

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?

a)

1518

b)

1600

c)

9216

d)

1500

29.

Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are configured with a duplex mismatch?

a)

The spanning tree process shutting down

b)

Collisions on the interface

c)

An interface with down/down state

d)

An interface with up/down state

30.

What would be two results if the hub were replaced with a switch that is configured with on Ethernet VLAN? (Select two)

a)

The number of broadcast domains would decrease

b)

The number of collision domains would increase

c)

The number of collision domains would remain the same

d)

The number of broadcast domains would increase

e)

The number of broadcast domains would remain the same

31.

What is the function of the command "switchport trunk native vlan999" on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

a)

It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic

b)

It creates a VLAN 999 interface

c)

It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk

d)

It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic

32.

When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?

a)

Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address

b)

Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table

c)

Check whether the IP address is in the routing table

d)

Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table

33.

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two)

a)

Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions

b)

Autonegotiation is disabled

c)

1-Gbps interfaces are full duples by default

d)

The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent

e)

The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched

34.

Which two of these are characteristics of the 801.1Q protocol? (Select two)

a)

It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks

b)

It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame

c)

It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes

d)

It modifies the 802.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed

e)

It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames

35.

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

a)

Show ip interface brief

b)

Show vlan id 20

c)

show ip interface vlan 20

d)

show interface vlan 20

36.

Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication?

a)

Packet switching

b)

IEEE 802.1x

c)

CSMA/CD

d)

RARP

e)

CSMA/CA

37.

Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?

a)

The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons

b)

Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN

c)

Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default

d)

Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default

38.

If a switch received a frame while forwarding others, how would the frame be handeled?

a)

Will be forwarded at the same time with the current frame

b)

The switch will put the frame in queue

c)

The new frame will forward first

d)

It will interrupt the frames

39.

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two)

a)

The IP address of Host C

b)

The IP address of SW1

c)

The MAC address of the router E0 interface

d)

The IP address of the router E0 interface

e)

The MAC address of Host C

40.

Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?

a)

show vlan

b)

show interface switchport

c)

show interfaces

d)

show ip interface brief

41.

Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two)

a)

Access-list configuration

b)

Device type

c)

Routing configuration

d)

Spanning-tree topology

e)

Device management address

42.

Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

a)

Deferred

b)

CRC errors

c)

Giants

d)

Runts

e)

Late collisions

43.

Which command is configured on a switch to enable neighbor discovery in a multi-vendor environment?

a)

lldp run

b)

lldp transmit

c)

lldp receive

d)

cdp run

44.

Switch SW1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00B0.D056.EFA4. What will SW1 do with this data?

a)

SW1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address

b)

SW1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated

c)

SW1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated

d)

SW1 will forward the data to its default gateway

45.

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)

a)

They can simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network

b)

They allow access to network services based on department, not physical location

c)

They establish broadcast domains in switched networks

d)

They provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks

e)

They utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.

46.

How is the MAC address table of a switch populated?

a)

When the switch receives an Ethernet frame in which the source and destination MAC address are new, it installs the destination MAC address and the ingress switch port in the MAC address table

b)

When the switch receives an Ethernet frame with a new destination MAC address, it installs the destination MAC address and the ingress switch port in the MAC address table.

c)

When the switch receives an Ethernet frame with a new destination MAC address, it installs the destination MAC address and the egress switch port in the MAC address table.

d)

When the switch receives an Ethernet frame with a new source MAC address, it installs the source MAC address and the ingress switch port in the MAC address table

47.

Which two protocols can detect Native VLAN mismatch errors? (Choose two)

a)

PAgP

b)

CDP

c)

VTP

d)

DTP

e)

STP

48.

What is true about Ethernet? (Choose two)

a)

CSMA/CD stops transmitting when congestion occurs

b)

802.2 Protocol

c)

10BaseT half duplex

d)

802.3 Protocol

e)

CSMA/CA stops transmitting when congestion occurs

49.

Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?

a)

The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded

b)

The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses

c)

The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch

d)

If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.

50.

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called

a)

OUI

b)

NIC

c)

BIA

d)

VAI

51.

Which protocol can identify connected devices within a mixed-vendor infrastructure?

a)

Virtual terminal protocol

b)

Network time protocol

c)

Link Layer discovery protocol

d)

Cisco discovery protocol

52.

Which two options will help solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two)

a)

A router

b)

A hub

c)

A Layer 3 switch

d)

An access point

e)

A bridge

53.

At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

a)

Physical

b)

Data link

c)

Transport

d)

Application

e)

Network

54.

The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent

a)

The network is likely to be congested, with the result tha packets are being intermittently dropped

b)

The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address

c)

The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet

d)

There is a short delay while NAT translated teh server IP address

e)

A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.

55.

Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?

a)

Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch

b)

IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate

c)

The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate

d)

The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain

56.

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

a)

Six

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Twelve

57.

Which address type does a switch use to make selective forwarding decisions?

a)

Destination IP address

b)

Source MAC address

c)

Source IP address

d)

Destination MAC address

e)

Source and destination IP address

58.

Which option is a valid hostname for a switch?

a)

SwitchCisc0

b)

Switch-Cisco!

c)

5witch-Cisco

d)

5witchCisc0

59.

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified and removed on a Cisco switch?

a)

1 through 1001

b)

1 through 1002

c)

2 through 1001

d)

2 through 1005

60.

Which network configuration can you use to segregate broadcast traffic for two different departments in your organization?

a)

Configure two VTP domains and configure the switches in transparent mode

b)

Enable spanning-tree load balancing

c)

Implement switch port security on designated ports

d)

Configure a separate VLAN for each department

61.

What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through the router RT-A?

a)

Default gateway on SW-A

b)

IP routing on SW-A

c)

Crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

d)

VLAN 1 on RT-A

62.

The network administrator normally establishes a telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. His attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

a)

The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned

b)

Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1

c)

The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned

d)

Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet

e)

The switch interface connected to the router is down

63.

On which type of port can switches interconect for multi-VLAN communication?

a)

Access port

b)

Switch port

c)

Interface port

d)

Trunk port

64.

Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?

a)

LLDPv3

b)

TLV

c)

LLDP-MED

d)

LLDP-VOIP

65.

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly conjnected Cisco devices?

a)

cdp enable

b)

run cdp

c)

cdp run

d)

enable cdp

66.

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three)

a)

They increase the size of broadcast while decreasing the number of colliision domains

b)

They simplify switch administration

c)

They can enhance network security

d)

They allow logical grouping of users by function

e)

They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.

67.

Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a local router after it has been disabled?

a)

Router(config)#cdp enable

b)

Router(config-if)#cdp enable

c)

Router(config)#cdp run

d)

Router(config-if)#cdp run

68.

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Select three)

a)

In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting

b)

Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode

c)

A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node

d)

There are no collisions in full-duplex mode

e)

The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operation in full-duplex mode.

69.

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

a)

IP address utilization will be more efficient

b)

An additional boradcast domain will be created

c)

More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously

d)

More collision domains will be created

70.

What is the effect of the given configuration?

a)

It configures the native VLAN

b)

It configures the default VLAN

c)

It configures an active management interface

d)

It configures an inactive switch virtual interface

71.

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

8

d)

4

72.

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?

a)

Reseat all cables

b)

ensure that switch has power

c)

Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables

d)

Reboot all of the devices

e)

Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.

73.

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

a)

This is a 10 Mb/s switch port

b)

This is an "Ethernet port operating at full duplex

c)

This is a 100 Mb/s switch port

d)

This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex

e)

This is a port on a network interface card in a PC

74.

Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?

a)

IEEE 802.1Q

b)

IEEE 802.1P

c)

IEEE 802.1W

d)

IEEE 802.1D

75.

Given this output for SW3, what should the network administrator's next action be?

a)

Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SW3 fa0/1 port.

b)

Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SW1 fa0/2 port

c)

Check the duplex mode for SW3 fa0/1 port

d)

Check the duplex mode for SW1 fa0/2 port

76.

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)

a)

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure

b)

A higher level of network security can be reached by separating data traffic from other network traffic

c)

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure

d)

Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.

e)

VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain

77.

Which two statements about the data field in an Ethernet frame are true? (Choose two)

a)

The frame is marked as a jumbo frame if the data field is more than 512 bytes in length

b)

It includes 6 bytes of the source address and 6 bytes of the destination address

c)

The frame is marked as a runt if data field is less than 64 bytes in length

d)

It contains a 32-bit CRC

e)

It can be padded so that the frame meets the minimum length requirement

78.

choose the answer with the correct placement from top to bottomCS<A/CA

a)

1-Persistent, P-Persistent, O-persistent , CSMA/CD , CSMA/CA

b)

1-Persistent, P-Persistent, O-persistent , CSMA/CA , CSMA/CD

c)

O-Persistent, 1-Persistent, P-persistent , CSMA/CD , CSMA/CA

d)

O-Persistent, 1-Persistent, P-persistent , CSMA/CA , CSMA/CD

79.

Which statement about LLDP is true?

a)

It is a Cisco proprietary protocol

b)

It is configured in global configuration mode

c)

The LLDP update frequency is a fixed value

d)

It runs over the transport layer

80.

On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?

a)

Switch

b)

A Layer 2 switch

c)

A Layer 3 switch

d)

A Hub

e)

A Router

81.

Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?

a)

lldp reinit 5

b)

lldp holdtime 5

c)

lldp reinit 5000

d)

lldp timer 5000

82.

Which feature allows a device to use a switch port that is configured for half-duplex to access the network?

a)

Port security

b)

CSMA/CD

c)

IGMP

d)

Split horizon

83.

Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?

a)

Fragment-free switching

b)

Store-and-forward switching

c)

Cut-through switching

d)

ASIC switching

84.

What will router RT1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three)

a)

Router RT1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320

b)

Router RT1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965

c)

Router RT1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1

d)

Router RT1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2

e)

Router RT1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1

85.

Which of the following is a characteristic of full-duplex communication?

a)

It is point-to-point only

b)

Hub communication is done via full duplex

c)

It is a CSMA/CD network

d)

It is a CSMA/CA network

86.

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Select two)

a)

When they receive a special token

b)

When the medium is idle

c)

When they detect no other devices are sending

d)

When the server grants access

e)

When there is a carrier

87.

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

a)

The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat

b)

The command is rejected

c)

The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually

d)

The port turns amber

88.

If host Z needs to send data through router R1 to a storage server, which destination MAC address does host Z use to transmit packets?

a)

The MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to host Z

b)

The host Z MAC address

c)

The MAC address of the interface on R1 that connects to the storage server

d)

The MAC address of the storage server interface

89.

Switch1 receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will Switch1 handle this frame?

a)

It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only

b)

It will flood the frame out all ports

c)

It will forward the frame out port FA0/3 only

d)

It will drop the frame

e)

It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3

90.

The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two)

a)

The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC address Table

b)

The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch

c)

The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address

d)

The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table

e)

The frame will be forwarded out of all active switch ports except for port fa0/0

91.

Which type of MAC address is aged out automatically by the switch?

a)

manual

b)

static

c)

dynamic

d)

automatic

92.

Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?

a)

Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2

b)

Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

c)

Drop the frame

d)

Send an ARP request for Host C

e)

Return the frame to Host B

93.

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

3

d)

2

94.

Which statement about native VLAN traffic over 802.1Q trunk is true?

a)

It is tagged with a value of 1

b)

It is discarded by STP

c)

It is untagged.

d)

It is placed in a high-priority queue

95.

Which adverse situation can occur if an Ethernet cable is too long?

a)

Interface resets

b)

Late collisions

c)

Giants

d)

Runts

96.

If an access port is configured in VLAN 10 and it gets a packet from VLAN 2 with 802.1q tag, what does it do with the packet

a)

Adds it to the VLAN database

b)

Configures the port to handle traffic from VLAN 2

c)

Forwards it to VLAN 2

d)

Drops the packet

97.

Which two addresses can be used to communicate with more than one device at a time? (Choose two)

a)

01-00-53-AB-11-C1

b)

172.17.210.255/24

c)

10.1.1.255/22

d)

10.1.2.255/23

e)

01-00-5E-7B-11-C1

98.

Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two)

a)

In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting

b)

After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data

c)

After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data

d)

The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method

e)

After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data

99.

Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)

a)

Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network

b)

In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port

c)

If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address

d)

Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information

e)

Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains

100.

Which two VLANs are reserved for system use only? (Choose two)

a)

2

b)

4096

c)

1

d)

0

e)

4095

101.

If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

4

d)

5

102.

Which three options are fields in a basic Ethernet data frame? (Choose three)

a)

Type/length

b)

Version

c)

Frame check sequence

d)

Header checksup

e)

Preamble

103.

Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an individual address?

a)

DA

b)

FCS

c)

SA

d)

SOF

104.

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. Which protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?

a)

RARP

b)

HTTP

c)

DHCP

d)

ARP

e)

DNS

105.

What command can you enter to assign an interface to the default VLAN?

a)

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1

b)

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 1

c)

Switch(config-if)#vlan 1

d)

Switch(config)#int vlan 1

106.

The internetwork displayed in the exhibit is experiencing network connectivity problems. Which is the most likely cause of this problem?

a)

The address of host B is a broadcast address

b)

The cable connecting SW2 and SW3 should be a crossover

c)

The IP address of Server 1 is in the wrong subnet

d)

The cabling connecting host A to SW3 is too long

107.

Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?

a)

A voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode

b)

CDP in global configuration mode

c)

PortFast on the interface

d)

The interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID

108.

Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?

a)

VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed

b)

The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode

c)

The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed

d)

VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database

109.

If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?

a)

Broadcast storms

b)

Network segmentation

c)

Half-duplex operation

d)

Multicasting

110.

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco catalyst switches is true?

a)

When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table

b)

Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports

c)

Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan

d)

Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan

111.

View the topology and MAC address table shown in the exhibit. Host A sends a data frame to Host D. What will the switch do when it receives the frame from Host A?

a)

The switch will flood the frame out of all ports except for port Fa0/3

b)

The switch will discard the frame and send an error message back to host A

c)

The switch will add the destination address of the frame to the MAC address table and forward the frame to Host D

d)

The switch will add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame to Host D

112.

Which two TLVs does LLDP support? (Choose two)

a)

system description

b)

Management address

c)

Port duple

d)

Spanning tree

e)

Native VLAN

113.

Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can CDP communicate? (Choose two)

a)

The VTP domain

b)

The spanning-tree priority

c)

The spanning tree protocol

d)

The native VLAN

e)

The trunking protocol

114.

On which OSI layer does a VLAN operate?

a)

Layer 2

b)

Layer 3

c)

Layer 1

d)

Layer 4

115.

All devices attached to the network are shown. How many collision domains are present in this network?

a)

9

b)

3

c)

6

d)

15

116.

Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?

a)

Switch(config-if)#

b)

Switch(config)#

c)

Switch#

d)

Switch>

117.

Which two statements about multicast addresses are true? (choose two)

a)

01-00-5E-7B-11-C1 is a multicast MAC address

b)

01-00-53-AB-11-C1 is a multicast MAC address

c)

02-00-5E-7F-11-C1 is a multicast MAC address

d)

They allow one-to-many communication

e)

They allow one-to-one communication

118.

Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?

a)

Router#show interface gig 0/1

b)

Router#show ip protocols

c)

Router#show line

d)

Router#show startup-config

119.

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two)

a)

By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted

b)

They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match

c)

They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes

d)

They occur when CRC errors and interference occue on the cable

e)

They may indicate a duplex mismatch.

120.

Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?

a)

Switching

b)

Encapsulation

c)

Hairpinning

d)

Routing

121.

Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two)

a)

When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs.

b)

Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3

c)

Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2

d)

Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex

e)

When an Ethernet uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs.

122.

Which fields are contained in a layer 2 Ethernet frame? (Choose three)

a)

Frame Check Sequence

b)

Type/length

c)

TTL

d)

Preamble

e)

Version