Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharmacological Therapies

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

T/F: Sublingual medications avoid the first-pass effect.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

T/F: Examples of Schedule I medications include morphine and secobarbital.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

T/F: An elderly client is more sensitive to the active substance in a transdermal patch than a younger adult.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution is a hypotonic fluid.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

T/F: Clients increase their risk of adverse effects if they use herbal supplements along with prescription medications.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

T/F: The nurse can crush the oral medication disopyramide CR and mix it with applesauce.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

T/F: Hypovolemia is a risk for the client receiving whole blood products.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Acceptable site for IM injection: (Select all that apply)

a)

Deltoid muscle

b)

Vastus lateralis muscle

c)

Ventrogluteal muscle

d)

Dorsogluteal muscle

9.

T/F: Naloxone is used to counteract the respiratory depression associated with barbiturate overdose.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

T/F: Extended-release oral potassium chloride (KCl) should be taken with meals and a full 8-ounce (236 mL) glass of water.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

T/F: The nurse should check the international normalization ratio (INR) lab results prior to hanging intravenous heparin.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

T/F: The client should take levothyroxine immediately after breakfast.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

T/F: The nurse should instruct the client to take no more than 2 extra-strength acetaminophen 500 mg tablets 4 times a day.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

T/F: Clients receiving organ transplants are often started on cyclosporine after surgery.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The client taking chlorpromazine should avoid saunas and temperature extremes.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

To help reduce stomach upset, a client can take an antacid at the same time as almost any other oral medication.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The client should use a dry-powder inhaler as rescue therapy during acute asthma attacks.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Regular insulin intravenous infusions are mixed in 5% dextrose in water.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Calcium channel blockers can cause severe constipation in older adults.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

For clients at risk for cardiovascular disease, the usual oral daily dose of aspirin is 2 tablets (650 mg total).

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Ondansetron is given to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by cancer chemotherapy.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Spironolactone and furosemide are both potassium-sparing diuretic.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The order is for ibuprofen oral drops 10 mg/kg of body weight. The client weighs 62 lbs. Motrin oral drops are supplied in bottles containing 40 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer? (Report to the nearest whole number.)

a)

4

b)

16

c)

7

d)

0.4

24.

A nurse is reinforcing how to use the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to a client newly diagnosed with asthma. The client asks, “How will I know the canister is empty?” What is the best response by the nurse?

a)

“Estimate how many doses are usually in the canister.”

b)

“Shake the canister to detect any fluid movement.”

c)

“Drop the canister in water to observe floating.”

d)

“Count the number of doses as the inhaler is used.”

25.

A postoperative client has a prescription for acetaminophen with codeine. A nurse should recognize that a primary effect of this combination is what action?

a)

Minimized side effects

b)

Enhanced pain relief

c)

Prevents tolerance

d)

Faster onset of action

26.

A client has a new prescription for a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant. Which information would prompt the nurse to contact the health care provider after reviewing the client's admission history and physical?

a)

Diagnosis of vascular disease

b)

Recent prescribed use of an MAO inhibitor

c)

Frequent use of antacids

d)

History of obesity

27.

A nurse administers cimetidine to a 75 year-old client diagnosed with a gastric ulcer. Which function may be affected by this medication and should be closely monitored by the nurse?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Mental status

c)

Hearing

d)

Liver function

28.

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis is to begin taking rifampin and isoniazid. Which statement by a nurse is most appropriate to include when reinforcing information about these medications?

a)

"You may experience an increase in appetite."

b)

"You can take the medication with food."

c)

"You may notice an orange-red color to your urine."

d)

"You may have occasional problems sleeping."

29.

A client is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and takes levothyroxine 50 mcg/day by mouth. What information should the nurse understand about this medication?

a)

May decrease the client's energy level

b)

Must be stored in a dark container

c)

Should be taken in the morning

d)

Will decrease the client's heart rate

30.

The client is prescribed digoxin as a treatment for heart failure. What side effect can occur if the client develops hypokalemia when taking digoxin?

a)

Dyshrythmias

b)

Oliguria

c)

Altered level of consciousness (LOC)

d)

Tingling sensation

31.

A terminally ill client is receiving high doses of an opioid analgesic to manage pain. As death approaches and the client becomes unresponsive to verbal stimuli, what approach to pain management should the nurse now anticipate?

a)

The analgesic will be discontinued

b)

A nonopioid analgesic will be prescribed

c)

The dosage of the analgesic will be decreased by half

d)

The same analgesic dosage will be continued

32.

A client at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis is being discharged home on enoxaparin. Which information would be appropriate for the nurse to reinforce before the client leaves the hospital?

a)

"You must have your lab tests checked daily."

b)

"Notify the health care provider if you notice any unusual bruising on your skin."

c)

"You will have a special type of temporary IV inserted before discharge."

d)

"Massage the injection site after the medication is given."

33.

A nurse is talking to a client diagnosed with chronic renal failure about medications. The client questions the purpose of aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel) in the medication regimen. What is the best explanation for the nurse to give the client for the use of this medication?

a)

Control gastric acid secretions

b)

Reduce serum calcium

c)

Decrease serum phosphate

d)

Increase urine output

34.

A clinic nurse assists with a toddler who is diagnosed with a first episode of otitis media. Which reinforcement of information should the nurse include in instructions to the child's parents?

a)

Emphasize the importance of a return visit after completing antibiotic therapy

b)

Provide the parents with a handout describing the purpose of myringotomy tubes

c)

Demonstrate how the toddler should learn to swallow tablets

d)

Describe the tympanocentesis used to detect persistent infections

35.

An antibiotic is ordered to be given intramuscularly (IM) to a toddler. The total volume of the injection equals 2 mL. What is the correct nursing intervention?

a)

Administer the medication in two separate injections

b)

Call the health care provider and request a smaller dosage

c)

Give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site

d)

Check with pharmacy to substitute a liquid form of the medication

36.

The provider ordered 500 mg erythromycin oral suspension every six hours for a client diagnosed with pneumonia. The client has a gastrostomy tube. The pharmacy sends up the medication in a liquid suspension of 250 mg/5 mL.

a)

5

b)

0.5

c)

10

d)

20

37.

A client has been given a prescription for alendronate. Which of the following statements indicate the client understands how to safely take this medication? (Select all that apply.)

a)

"I will swallow it with 8 ounces of water."

b)

"I will always eat breakfast before taking it."

c)

"I will notify the health care provider if I have any difficulty swallowing."

d)

"I will stand or sit quietly for 30 minutes after taking it."

e)

"I will take the pill immediately preceding weight-bearing exercise."

38.

The nurse is discussing medication with a client. Which information should be reinforced by the nurse about captopril (Capoten)?

a)

Take the medication with meals

b)

Avoid green leafy vegetables

c)

Restrict fluids to 1000 mL/day

d)

Avoid the use of salt substitutes

39.

The nurse observes a family member administering a rectal suppository. With the client lying on the left side, the family member pushes the suppository in the rectum, up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes, the family member helps the client turn to the right side. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?

a)

“Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough.”

b)

“That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?”

c)

"Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side.”

d)

“Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?”

40.

The client is discharged from the hospital with a new prescription for furosemide. One week later, during a follow-up visit with the health care provider, the client reports experiencing the following findings. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider?

a)

Muscle cramps

b)

Constipation

c)

Occasional lightheadedness

d)

Increased urine production

41.

The home care nurse is admitting a new client with a diagnosis of COPD, atrial fibrillation and gout. After reviewing the client's medication list, the nurse would arrange for periodic monitoring of blood drug levels for which of the following medications? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Glipizide (Glucotrol)

b)

Digoxin (Lanoxin)

c)

Allopurinol (Aloprim, Zyloprim)

d)

Beclomethasone inhaled (Qvar)

e)

Theophylline (Elixophyllin, Theo-24, Uniphyl)

42.

The nurse is discussing with a client some of the necessary precautions when taking warfarin. The nurse should remind the client to avoid which over-the-counter (OTC) medication?

a)

Laxatives containing magnesium salts

b)

Histamine blockers

c)

Cough medicines with guaifenesin

d)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications

43.

What is the drug classification for: benazepril

a)

Antiulcer Agent

b)

Calcium Channel Blocers

c)

Angiotesnin-converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor

d)

Thiazide Diuretics

44.

What is the drug classification for:

a)

Antiulcer Agent

b)

Lipid-lowering Agents

c)

Sedatives/Hypnotics

d)

Antianxiety Agents

45.

What is the drug classification for: Lorazepam

a)

Thrombolytics

b)

Antianxiety Agents

c)

Lipid-lowering Agents

d)

Potassium-sparing Diuretics

46.

What is the drug classification for: Furosemide

a)

Loop Diruetics

b)

Potassium-sparing Diuretics

c)

Thiazide Diuretics

d)

Angiotesnin-converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor

47.

What is the drug classification for: Ephinephrine

a)

Vasopressors

b)

Angiotesnin-converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor

c)

Calcium Channel Blockers

d)

Thrombolytics

48.

What is the drug classification for: temazepam

a)

Calcium Channel Blockers

b)

Lipid-lowering Agents

c)

Thiazide Diuretics

d)

Sedatives/Hypnotics

49.

What is the drug classification for: Pantoprazole

a)

Immunosuppressants

b)

Lipid-lowering Agents

c)

Thrombolytics

d)

Antiulcer Agent

50.

What is the drug classification for: Verapamil

a)

Angiotesnin-converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor

b)

Calcium Channel Blockers

c)

Thiazide Diuretics

d)

Potassium-sparing Diuretics