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Unit 1&2 H&HD Exam Revision

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT covered by Medicare?

a)

X-rays

b)

Chiropractor

c)

GP visit

d)

Eye test

2.

Which of the following is covered by Medicare?

a)

Eye tests, X-rays and glasses

b)

Ambulance, GP visit and surgery

c)

Dental, GP visit and home nursing

d)

GP visit, pathology test and surgery

3.

Which of the following is not a way of funding Medicare?

a)

Medicare tax

b)

Medicare Levy Surcharge

c)

General taxation

d)

Medicare Levy

4.

Which of the following best explains the Medicare Levy Surcharge?

a)

An additional tax on the income of people without private health insurance earning a high income.

b)

An additional tax placed on the taxable income of most taxpayers. Those with low incomes are exempt.

c)

An additional tax on the income of people without private health insurance regardless of income.

d)

An additional tax on the income of people who have a high income.

5.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of Medicare?

a)

No choice of doctor for out-of-hospital services

b)

No choice of doctor for in-hospital services

c)

The Medicare Safety Net

d)

Does not cover x-rays

6.

Which of the following is NOT true for the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme?

a)

It is operated by the Federal Government

b)

It aims to provide essential medications to people at an affordable price

c)

All medications are subsidised to some extent

d)

The PBS safety net is in place to assist those who have large medication expenses

7.

Which of the following is an advantage of private health insurance?

a)

There is never any 'gap' to pay

b)

There are no qualifying periods

c)

Shorter waiting times

d)

It is very cheap to purchase

8.

How many private health insurance incentives have been introduced?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

9.

Which of the following is the best description of the lifetime health cover incentive?

a)

Policy holders receive a refund on their premiums. This is income tested.

b)

People who take up private health insurance after the age of 31 pay an extra 2% on their premiums for every year they are over the age of 30.

c)

People who take up private health insurance after the age of 30 pay an extra 2.5% on their premiums for every year they are over the age of 30.

d)

Policy holders receive a 30% refund on their premiums.

10.

Which of the following is NOT a community service to support health and wellbeing?

a)

Church

b)

Maternal and child health service

c)

Doctor

d)

Police

11.

Which of the following is a list of basic healthcare rights?

a)

Safety, Communication and Commitment

b)

Participation, Access and Privacy

c)

Comment, Creative and Respect

d)

Respect, Response and Safety

12.

What is bulk billing?

a)

The GP only charges the schedule fee and the government covers the full cost

b)

The bills are only paid at the end of the month

c)

The GP charges over schedule fee and the government covers most of the cost

d)

The bills are paid in bulk and you get a discount

13.

Which of the following NOT a patient responsibility?

a)

Follow instructions and medical orders

b)

Ask questions about the risks of procedures

c)

Keep their health information to themselves

d)

Treat staff with respect

14.

True or False. Volunteer organisations such as Meals as Wheels support the health and wellbeing of both the volunteers and the clients.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

True or False. The PBS subsidises over 10,000 essential medications.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

A factor affecting access to health services is:

a)

Socioeconomic status

b)

Gender

c)

Geographic location

d)

All of the above

17.

Low levels of health literacy may result in:

a)

Increased rates of vaccination

b)

Lower usage of preventative health services

c)

Safer use of medication

d)

Accessing relevant health information online

18.

Who can make a complaint about a health professional?

a)

Patient

b)

Friend

c)

Another health professional

d)

All of the above

19.

True or False. People who live in major cities have less access to health services than those in rural areas

a)

True

b)

False

20.

True or False. Religious beliefs can be a barrier in accessing health services

a)

True

b)

False

21.

SES stands for:

a)

Social Status

b)

Socioeconomic Status

c)

Sociocultural Status

d)

Social Education Status

22.

Which gender is less likely to access health services?

a)

Males

b)

Females

23.

People with low SES can increase their access to health services through:

a)

Trying to increase their income

b)

Driving to the nearest clinic

c)

Free websites and mobile apps

d)

All of the above

24.

Which of the following is a challenge with online health information?

a)

Accuracy

b)

Reliability

c)

Cost

d)

None of the above

25.

What can occur as a result of self diagnosis?

a)

Lower levels of stress

b)

Serious conditions can be missed

c)

Self satisfaction

d)

All of the above

26.

In Victoria, health service complaints can be made to:

a)

The CEO of the hospital board

b)

Health complaints commissioner

c)

Direct to the service provider

d)

All of the above

27.

Which of the following would you expect as an outcome of a complaint?

a)

An apology

b)

A refund

c)

An explanation

d)

Any of the above

28.

True or False. Digital media includes websites, apps, games and social media

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Indigenous Australians have less access to health services due to:

a)

Geographical location

b)

Low SES

c)

Motivation

d)

All of the above

30.

The youth stage of the lifespan begins at what age?

a)

11

b)

12

c)

13

d)

14

31.

Which of the following is not an example of physical development?

a)

Growth

b)

Learning to walk

c)

Decline in body systems

d)

Physical fitness

32.

Which of the following is not an example of emotional development?

a)

Experiencing a range of emotions

b)

Learning to adequately deal with emotions

c)

A child who is crying

d)

The development of self-concept

33.

Which of the following is not an example of intellectual development?

a)

Learning to skip

b)

Memorising the multiplication tables

c)

Being able to concentrate on one task for an extended period of time

d)

The development of abstract thought

34.

Which of the following is not an example of a lifespan stage?

Prenatal Early childhood Late adulthood Death

a)

Youth

b)

Early Childhood

c)

Late Adulthood

d)

Conception

35.

Which of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?

Skipping Running Cutting with scissors Kicking

a)

Skipping

b)

Running

c)

Cutting with scissors

d)

Kicking a ball

36.

Beliefs or opinions based on how things seem are referred to as:

a)

Misconceptions

b)

Perceptions

c)

Attitudes

d)

Values

37.

Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic?

a)

Pubic hair

b)

Voice deepening

c)

Growth of the penis

d)

Muscle development

38.

The lifespan begins at:

a)

Fertilisation

b)

Birth

c)

Infancy

d)

Ovulation

39.

Which of the following is not an example of social development?

a)

Communication skills

b)

Behaviours

c)

Self esteem

d)

Social roles

40.

At what age does Middle Adulthood end?

a)

40

b)

60

c)

65

d)

64

41.

At what age does Early Childhood begin?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

6

d)

12

42.

Which type of development refers to the increasing complexity of processes in the brain, such as thought, knowledge and memory?

a)

Mental

b)

Social

c)

Intellectual

d)

Emotional

43.

Building resilience is an example of which type of development?

a)

Social

b)

Mental

c)

Emotional

d)

Intellectual

44.

Which of the following is not a secondary sex characteristic?

a)

First ovulation

b)

Broader shoulders

c)

Facial hair

d)

Breasts develop

45.

Breasts developing is an example of which type of sex characteristic?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

46.

Which of the following includes positive perceptions of youth?

a)

ambitious and happy

b)

hard working and selfish

c)

wise and experienced

d)

source of knowledge and pessimistic

47.

Which of the following includes negative perceptions of adults?

a)

Lazy and selfish

b)

Wise and experienced

c)

Judgemental and lacking understanding

d)

Bad drivers and hard working

48.

Which type of motor skills require the use of large muscle groups?

a)

Fine

b)

Primary

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

49.

Language is an aspect of which type of development?

a)

Physical

b)

Social

c)

Intellectual

d)

Emotional

50.

Physical health and wellbeing relates to:

a)

Getting fit

b)

The efficient functioning of the mind

c)

The efficient functioning of the body and it's systems

d)

The body

51.

The state of a person's mind or brain and relates to the ability to think and process information is which dimension?

a)

Emotional health and wellbeing

b)

Mental health and wellbeing

c)

Spiritual health and wellbeing

d)

Brain health

52.

What is a suitable definition of social health and wellbeing?

a)

Interacting with people

b)

Socialising with friends

c)

Being able to form meaningful and satisfying relationships

d)

The state of a person's mind or brain and the ability to think and reason

53.

The ability to recognise, understand and manage and express emotions, and display resilience is which dimension?

a)

Social health and wellbeing

b)

Spiritual health and wellbeing

c)

Mental health and wellbeing

d)

Emotional health and wellbeing

54.

Which of the following is a suitable definition for spiritual health and wellbeing?

a)

Relates to religion and a higher power

b)

Relates to the ability to form meaningful relationships

c)

Relates to ideas, beliefs, values and ethics that arise in the mind and conscience of human beings.

d)

Relates to hope

55.

Which of the following is not an example of physical health and wellbeing?

a)

Adequate energy levels

b)

Free from disease and injury

c)

Strong immune system

d)

Resilience

56.

Which of the following is not an example of emotional health and wellbeing?

a)

Resilience

b)

Understanding emotions

c)

Respond and manage emotions

d)

Self esteem

57.

The number of new cases of a particular disease or condition in a given time period is known as:

a)

Prevalence

b)

Incidence

c)

Morbidty

d)

Inclination

58.

Mortality refers to:

a)

Disease

b)

Injury or illness

c)

Death

d)

Life expectancy

59.

Morbidity refers to:

a)

Ill health or disease

b)

Death

c)

Burden of disease

d)

DALY

60.

DALY stands for:

a)

Disability And Life Years

b)

Disability Adjusted Life Years

c)

Disease Adjusted Life Years

d)

Disease And Life Years

61.

The fatal component of the DALY is:

a)

YLD

b)

YLL

c)

Mortality

d)

Morbidity

62.

Self-assessed health status is:

a)

Based on an individual's own perception of their health and wellbeing. Responses range from excellent, very good, good, fair and poor

b)

Based on the parent's perception of their child's health and wellbeing. Responses range from excellent, very good, good, fair and poor

c)

How you see yourself

d)

Similar to self-esteem and confidence. It can impact on mental health and wellbeing

63.

Core activity limitation is:

a)

When an individual has difficulty with the two main core activities: self-care and mobility

b)

When an individual has difficulty with the three main core activities: dressing, mobility and communication in own language

c)

When an individual has difficulty with the three main core activities: self-care, mobility and communication in own language

d)

When an individual has difficulty with the three main core activities: self-care, moving and communication

64.

When a question asks for the impact on health status, which of the following needs to be mentioned in the answer?

a)

the words health status

b)

the words health and wellbeing

c)

any of the dimensions, such as physical health and wellbeing

d)

any of the health status indicators, such as morbidity

65.

What is a limitation or weakness of this definition of health and wellbeing? Health is the state of complete physical, social, mental, emotional and spiritual wellbeing, not merely the absence of disease

a)

It is missing one of the dimensions

b)

The word complete, as it is very difficult to attain complete health and wellbeing in all five dimensions

c)

The inclusion of 'not merely the absence of disease'

d)

Nothing, it is perfect!

66.

The main function of protein is:

a)

A fuel for energy

b)

The growth, maintenance and repair of body cells

c)

Cell division

d)

Cell differentiation.

67.

Which of the following are considered the bad fats?

a)

Saturated fats

b)

Polyunsaturated fats

c)

Trans fats

d)

Both Trans and Saturated fats

68.

Which of the following nutrients, when deficient, is a common cause of anaemia?

a)

Fibre

b)

Iron

c)

Sodium

d)

Carbohydrates

69.

In Australia, energy is measured in:

a)

Calories

b)

Kilojoules

c)

Glycaemic index

d)

Basal metabolic rate

70.

Which of the following is not a type of parenting?

a)

Persuasive

b)

Authoritarian

c)

Uninvolved

d)

Authoritative

71.

Which of the following are not good communication skills?

a)

Asking questions

b)

Speaking quietly

c)

Using appropriate body language

d)

Showing interest

72.

Examples of emotional abuse include:

a)

Hitting

b)

Financial abuse

c)

Unwanted sex

d)

Kicking

73.

Fertilisation most often occurs in the:

a)

Uterus

b)

Cervix

c)

Ovary

d)

Fallopian Tube

74.

The stage of prenatal development that occurs from conception until week 2 is known as the:

a)

Foetal stage

b)

Germinal stage

c)

Embryonic stage

d)

Zygote stage

75.

The embryonic stage is characterised by:

a)

Cell division

b)

Cell differentiation

c)

Implantation

d)

Fertilisation

76.

This nutrient helps to build bone density:

a)

Fibre

b)

Calcium

c)

Iron

d)

Sodium

77.

Using famous people to sell products is called:

a)

Product placement

b)

Smart marketing

c)

Celebrity endorsements

d)

Immersive marketing

78.

True or False. The intergenerational nature of health and wellbeing means that the health of one generation can impact on the health of future generations

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The types of development are:

a)

Physical, Social, Emotional and Intellectual

b)

Physical, Social and Mental

c)

Physical, Mental, Social and Intellectual

d)

Physical, Emotional, Mental and Social

80.

What is a teratogen?

a)

A malformed embryo

b)

A future embryo

c)

A factor that causes malformation of an embryo

d)

A badie

81.

The duration of the Unit 1&2 Health and Human Development Exam is:

a)

94 minutes

b)

80 minutes

c)

90 minutes

d)

120 minutes

82.

True or False. The Unit 1 & 2 Health and Human Development Exam will contain multiple choice questions

a)

False

b)

True