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BIO 1313-05, EXAM 1-4

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, all these organisms represent a(n)

a)

Species

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

population

2.

Which is the correct order of hierarchical levels of living systems?

a)

cell,organelle,organs,ecosystems,population

b)

cell,molecule,population,ecosystem,biosphere

c)

cell,organisms,population,community,ecosystem

d)

species,community,population,ecosystem,biosphere

3.

The kingdom Fungi includes species

a)

that obtain food by decomposing dead organisms and absorbing the nutrients.

b)

such as mushrooms and plants

c)

that obtain food by ingesting other organisms

d)

that use photosynthesis to obtain food

4.

Which statement about genetics is True?

a)

Each DNA molecule is a single strand of nucleotides

b)

Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotides sequences in their DNA

c)

Genes are proteins that produce DNA

d)

DNA is made up of six different kinds of nucleotides

5.

Which of the following statements is not consistent with Darwin's theory of natural selection?

a)

Factors in the environment result in some organism having better reproductive success than others

b)

Individual organism experience genetic change during their life span to better fit their environment

c)

Natural section can lead to the appearance of new species

d)

Individuals in a population exhibit variations, some of which are passed from [parents to offs[ring

6.

An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria to

a)

be just a susceptible to that antibiotic as was the previous generation

b)

die out due to the drastic decrease in population size.

c)

be more contagious that the prior generation

d)

be more resistant to that antibiotic

7.

What is a hypothesis?

a)

A fact

b)

the same thing as a theory

c)

a possible explantion

d)

an untestable idea

e)

a verifiable explanation

8.

A theory is an

a)

description of a belief that invokes the supernatural

b)

idea that had been proven

c)

explanation of an idea that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence

d)

concept in the early stages that still needs to be tested

9.

A scientist performs a controlled experiment. This means that

a)

the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reaction and process all experimental data

b)

the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate

c)

two versions of the experiment are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable

d)

one experiment is performed, but the scientist controls the variables

10.

The four most common elements in living organisms are

a)

C,N,O,Na

b)

C,H,O,N

c)

C,H,O,Na

d)

C,H,O,Fe

11.

In the equation 2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O

a)

H2,O2, and H2O are all elements

b)

only H2O is a compound

c)

only H2 and O2 are compounds

d)

H2, O2, and H2O are all compounds

12.

An uncharged atom of boron has an atomic number of 5 and an atomic mass of 11. How many electrons does boron have?

a)

11

b)

2

c)

15

d)

5

13.

Which of the following best describes the atomic number of an atom?

a)

the number of electrons in the atom

b)

the number of neutrons in the atom

c)

the number of protons in the atom

d)

the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom

14.

Typically, nitrogen atoms are composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons. An isotope of nitrogen could

a)

be negatively charged

b)

be positively charged

c)

have more neutrons than the usual nitrogen atom

d)

have more protons than the usual nitrogen atom

15.

When full, the innermost electron shell of argon contains ___ electrons, and the outermost shell contains _____ electrons.

a)

4;8

b)

8;8

c)

2;8

d)

2;2

16.

A(n) _____ forms when two atoms share electrons

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

ion

17.

A hydrogen atom has one electron. How many covalent bonds can hydrogen form

a)

one

b)

two

c)

four

d)

none

18.

Table salt is formed when

a)

Sodium and chlorine share electrons to form a bond

b)

chlorine gives an electron to sodium

c)

sodium donates its single outer electron to chlorine

d)

a hydrogen bond forms between sodium and chlorine

19.

What is the fundamental difference between covalent and ionic bonding?

a)

In covalent bonding, both partners end up with filled outer electron shells , in ionic bonding one partner does and the other does not

b)

Covalent bonds form between atoms of the same elements; ionic bonds form between atoms of different elements

c)

Covalent bonding involves only the outermost electron shell; ionic bonding also involves the next electron shell inside the outermost shell

d)

In a covalent bond, the partners share a pair of electrons; in an ionic bond one partner accepts electrons from the other

20.

Which statement is false about the structure of atoms?

a)

An isotope is a variation of an element that differs in the number of electrons

b)

Atoms consist of protons, neutrons, and electrons

c)

An electron is a subatomic particle with a negative charge

d)

All atoms of particular element have the same unique number of protons

21.

Which of the following statements regarding the oxygen atom of a water molecule is true?

a)

Oxygen is attracted to the negatively charged atoms of other molecules

b)

Oxygen is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms

c)

Oxygen attracts electrons less strongly than the hydogen atoms

d)

Oxygen is more positively charged than the hydrogen atoms

22.

In a water molecule, hydrogen and oxygen are held together by a ____ bond.

a)

polar covalent

b)

nonpolar covalent

c)

double covalent

d)

hydrogen

23.

The hydrogen atoms of a water molecule are bonded to the oxygen atom by ______ bonds, whereas neighboring water molecules are held together by _______ bonds.

a)

polar covalent; ionic

b)

polar covalent; hydrogen

c)

ionic; covalent

d)

hydrogen; polar covalent

24.

DNA differs from RNA because DNA

a)

contains phosphate groups not found in RNA

b)

contains thymine in place of uracil

c)

consists of a single rather than a double polynucleotide strand

d)

contains the sugar ribose rather the sugar deoxyribose

25.

Water molecules stick to other water molecules because

a)

covalent bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules

b)

water molecules are neutral, and neutral molecules are attracted to each other

c)

the oxygen atoms of adjacent water molecules are attracted to one another

d)

hydrogen bonds form between the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule and the oxygen atoms of other water molecules

26.

Which of the following statements regarding chemical reactions is false

a)

although the atoms of a reaction's reactants and products are identical to each other their molecular formulas differ

b)

the reactants contain the same number of atoms as the products

c)

chemical reactions involve the making and breaking of chemical bonds

d)

some chemical reactions create electrons; others destroy them

27.

As ice melts

a)

hydrogen bonds are broken

b)

the water becomes less dense

c)

heat is released

d)

water molecules become less tightly packed

28.

Compared to a solution of pH 3, a solution of pH 1 is

a)

100 times more acidic

b)

10 times more basic

c)

100 times more basic

d)

10 times more acidic

29.

Which of the following statements about pH is true?

a)

the pH scale is a measure of oxygen ion concentration

b)

an increase in hydrogen ion concentration means a decrease in pH scale units

c)

a single unit change on the pH scale is equivalent to a 1% change in hydrogen ion concentration

d)

basic pH levels are less than 7

30.

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing

a)

glucose/phospholipid bilayer

b)

monosaccharide/polysaccharide

c)

amino acid/protein

d)

deoxyribonucleotide/DNA

31.

In animals, carbohydrates serve primarily as

a)

storehouses for amino acids

b)

energy sources

c)

enzymes

d)

sites of protein synthesis

e)

insulation

32.

In an ecosystem, energy

a)

typically flows from producers to a series of consumers

b)

cycles along with chemical nutrients

c)

typically flows from consumers to producers to decomposers

d)

comes ultimately from bacteria

33.

Organic compounds

a)

always contains nitrogen

b)

always contain oxygen

c)

always contain carbon

d)

are synthesized only by animal cells

34.

Which of the following statements regarding carbon is false?

a)

Carbon has the ability to bond together to form extensive branched or unbranched "carbon skeleton"

b)

Carbon has a tendency to form covalent bonds

c)

Carbon has the capacity to form single and double bonds

d)

Carbon has the ability to bond with up to six other atoms

35.

Which of the following contains a carboxyl and an amino group?

a)

glucose

b)

amino acid

c)

sugar

d)

fat

36.

Which of the following statements about the monomers and polymers found in living organisms is False?

a)

Monomers are joined together by the process of hydrolysis

b)

Monomers serve as building blocks for polymers

c)

Cells typically make all their macromolecules from a set of 40-50 common monomers and a few other ingredients that are rare.

d)

The monomers used to make polymers are essentially universal

37.

What is the general function of enzymes within the cell?

a)

to promote the synthesis of monomers

b)

to speed up chemical reactions

c)

to induce chemical reactions

d)

to stop chemical reactions

38.

The storage form of carbohydrates is ___ in animals and ____ in plants.

a)

glycogen;starch

b)

glycogen;cellulose

c)

starch;glocogen

d)

cellulose;glocogen

39.

What feature of fats makes them hydrophobic?

a)

fats have carboxyl groups

b)

fats have nonpolar hydrocarbon chains

c)

fats include one glycerol molecule

d)

fats have polar fatty acids

40.

Fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be

a)

monoglecerides

b)

completely hydrogenated

c)

unsaturated

d)

saturated

41.

The development of heart disease can result from a diet high in

a)

saturated fats

b)

sigars

c)

protein

d)

fiber

42.

Which of the following substances is made of lipids?

a)

cellulose

b)

enzymes

c)

steroids

d)

DNA

43.

A major type of lipids found in cell membrane is

a)

glycerol

b)

unsaturated fats

c)

phospholipids

d)

saturated fats

44.

Proteins differ from one another because

a)

the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein

b)

the peptide bonds linking amino acids differ from protein to protein

c)

each protein contains its own unique sequence of sugar molecules.

d)

the number of nucleotides found in each protein varies from molecule to molecule

45.

peptide bonds

a)

are formed by a hydrolysis reaction

b)

link amino acids

c)

are used to form amino acids

d)

form between fatty acids

46.

The primary structure of a protein is

a)

maintained by hydrogen bonds

b)

composed of two or more polypeptide chains

c)

an alpha helix or pleated sheet

d)

the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain

47.

How are genes used by cells to build proteins?

a)

The genes in RNA direct the synthesis of a DNA molecule, which is used to build a protein

b)

The genes in DNA direct the synthesis of an RNA molecule, which is used to build a protein.

c)

DNA is transcribed into an amino acid sequence

d)

The genes in RNA direct the synthesis of proteins directly

48.

Which of the following statements regarding nucleotides is False?

a)

Nucleotides contain sugar molecules

b)

Nucleotides contain lipids

c)

Nucleotides can be linked together to form nuclei acids

d)

Nucleotides contain nitrogenous bases

49.

What components make up a nucleotide?

a)

a nitrogenous base and phosphate group only

b)

a sugar and phosphate group only

c)

a nitrogenous base and sugar only

d)

a sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group

50.

The hydrogen bonds shown in this figure are each between

a)

an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of different water molecules

b)

two hydrogen atoms

c)

two atoms with the same charge

d)

an oxygen and a hydrogen atom of the same water molecule

51.

A scientist wants to examine living cells lining the respiratory tract to determine how the cell use tiny hairs to move dirt and mucus away from the lungs. Which of the following instruments would be best, and why?

a)

a scanning electron microscope , because it can be used to observe whole cells without slicing them

b)

a transmission electron microscope because it has high resolution

c)

a light microscope because it allows observations of whole, live cells

d)

a scanning electron microscope, because it can reveal structures on cell surfaces

52.

Which of the following would you NOT find in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

cell wall

b)

ribosomes

c)

nucleus

d)

plasma membrane

53.

Cell theory states that

a)

cells can be created from molecules spontaneously

b)

calls make up living and nonliving substances

c)

all living things are composed of cells and that all cells come from other cells

d)

all living things are made of many cells

54.

A scanning electron microscope is used to study___ whereas a transmission electron microscope is used to study ____.

a)

dead celss; live cells

b)

live cells; dead cells

c)

cell surfaces; internal cell structures

d)

internal cell structures; cell surfaces

55.

A pathologist who wants to examine a patient's liver cells to determine if the mitochondria have an internal structural abnormality will likely need to use a

a)

light microscope

b)

transmission electron microscope

c)

fluorescence microscope

d)

scanning electron microscope

56.

In the plasma membrane, the phospholipid heads

a)

are hydrophobic and face inward, shielded from water

b)

are hydrophilic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the membrane

c)

are hydrophobic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the membrane

d)

are hydrophilic and face inward, shielded from water

57.

which of the following structures is only associated with prokaryotic cells?

a)

chromosome

b)

ribosomes

c)

membrane-bound nucleus

d)

nucleoid

58.

which of the following incorrectly pairs the cell structure with its function?

a)

lysosome- transport

b)

mitochondria- ATP synthesis

c)

ribosomes- protein synthesis

d)

microfilaments- muscle contraction

59.

Which type of structure is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

a)

chloroplast

b)

central vacuole

c)

cell wall

d)

A & B only

e)

A,B, and C

60.

You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plants, animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. You conclude correctly that the cells

a)

could be either plant or bacterial cells

b)

are bacterial cells

c)

are plant cells

d)

are animal cells

61.

Protein synthesis requires the use of mRNA, which

a)

is made in the nucleolus

b)

is translated by the ribosomes into the amino acid sequences of proteins

c)

carries the message to the nucleus to synthesize new DNA during cell division

d)

must be made by the ribosomes

62.

The main function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum is the production of

a)

mitochondria and proteins secreted by the cell

b)

ribosomes and steroid hormones

c)

membrane and proteins secreted by the cell

d)

hydrogen peroxide and steroid hormones secreted by the cell

63.

Secretory Proteins are

a)

produced by ribosomes on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b)

produced by the cell for internal us

c)

chemically modified in the nucleus

d)

released from the cell through the plasma membrane

64.

The golgi apparatus

a)

strings together amino acids to produce proteins

b)

is composed of stacks of membranous vesicles that are continuous with one another

c)

is the site of carbohydrate breakdown

d)

stores, modifies, and packages proteins

65.

Insulin is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into the bloodstream. Which of the following options correctly lists the order of the structures through which insulin passes from its production to its exit from the cell?

a)

rough ER, lysosomes,transport vesicles, cell membrane

b)

rough ER, transport vesicles, golgi apparatus,vacuole, cell membrane

c)

rough ER, golgi apparatus, smooth ER, cell membrane

d)

rough ER, transport vesicles, golgi apparatus, transport vesicles, cell membrane

66.

The function of mitochondria is

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular repiration

c)

lipid synthesis

d)

intracellular digestion

67.

The __ of a mitochondrion is/are an adaption that increases the surface area and enhances a mitochondrion's ability to produce ATP

a)

stroma

b)

intermembrane space

c)

matrix

d)

cristae

68.

The function of chloroplast is

a)

intracellular digestion

b)

cellular respiration

c)

photosynthesis

d)

lipid synthesis

69.

Intermediate filaments

a)

guide the movements of organelles

b)

support the inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

guide the movements of chromosomes

d)

surround the nucleus

70.

Cilia differ from flagella in that

a)

cilia are anchored only in the proteins of the cell membrane, whereas flagella are anchored in a special structure called the basal body

b)

cilia contain nine microtubules doublets surrounding a central pair of microtubules, whereas flagella contain only nine microtubule doublets

c)

cilia are typically more numerous and shorter than flagella

d)

the protein filaments of cilia are "naked", whereas those of flagella are wrapped in an extension of the cell membrane

71.

Diffusion does not require the cell to expend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is considered a type of

a)

active transport

b)

exocytosis

c)

endocytosis

d)

passive transport

72.

Skin cells are fastened into strong sheets by

a)

basal bodies

b)

tight junctions

c)

anchoring junctions

d)

gap junctions

73.

a animal cell in a hypotonic solution

a)

becomes turgid because of an inflow of water

b)

wilts because of an outflow of water

c)

bursts because of an inflow of water

d)

shrivels because of an outflow of water

74.

Which of the following statements regarding plasmodesmata is false?

a)

plasmodesmata are found in plants and animals

b)

plasmodesmata carry nutrients between plant cells

c)

plasmodesmata penetrate plant cell walls

d)

plasmodesmata carry chemical messages between plant cells

75.

Most of the functions of a call membrane, including and enzymatic function, are

a)

cholesterol

b)

glycolipids

c)

proteins

d)

phospholipids

76.

Osmosis can be defined as

a)

the diffusion of nonpolar molecules

b)

the diffusion of water

c)

active transport

d)

the diffusion of a solute

77.

Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This mean that

a)

glucose cannot enter the cell

b)

the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell easily than others

c)

plasma membranes must be very thick

d)

anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy

78.

Which of the following statements regarding membrane function is False?

a)

The plasma membrane forms a selective barrier around the cell

b)

the plasma membrane has receptors for chemical messages

c)

the plasma membrane is the control center of the cell

d)

the plasma membrane plays a role in transferring signals to the cells interior

79.

Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the lipid bilayer

a)

CO2

b)

O2

c)

Na+

d)

a small, nonpolar molecule

80.

You are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean and, being thirsty, drink the surrounding seawater. As a result

a)

your cells lyse from excessive water intake

b)

you dehydrate yourself

c)

your cells become turgid

d)

you quench your thirst

81.

Which of the following statements is true for all types of passive transport ?

a)

proteins are needed to transport molecules across the membrane

b)

ions never cross the plasma membrane by passive transport

c)

the concentration gradient is the driving force

d)

only small polar molecules are able to cross the plasma membrane

82.

Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ____ and moves a substance ____ its concentration gradient

a)

transport proteins; down

b)

energy and transport proteins; against

c)

transport proteins; against

d)

energy and transport proteins; down

83.

The molecules responsible for membrane transport are

a)

proteins

b)

steroids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

phospholipids

84.

Which of the following processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient?

a)

passive transport

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

active transport

85.

Which of the following statements regarding active transport is false?

a)

Active transport can move a solute against its concentration gradient

b)

Active transport uses ATP as an energy source

c)

Active transport is driven by the concentration gradient

d)

Active Transport requires the cell to expend energy

86.

Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. This enzyme is a protein. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion?

a)

diffusion

b)

phagocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

87.

The process of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is

a)

receptor-mediated endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

phagocytosis

d)

osmosis

88.

Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that

a)

kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules

b)

kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do work, and chemical energy is the energy of movement

c)

chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy

d)

kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of energy, whereas chemical energy can only be converted into heat

89.

Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing

a)

chemical energy into potential energy

b)

kinetic energy into thermal energy

c)

kinetic energy into potential energy

d)

chemical energy into kinetic energy

90.

When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it uses the energy released from a(n) ____ reaction to drive a(n) ____ reaction

a)

spontaneous; exergonic

b)

exergonic; spontaneous

c)

endergonic; exergonic

d)

exergonic; endergonic

91.

Which of the following statements about ATP is true?

a)

It releases energy when one phosphate group leaves ATP

b)

Extremely stable bonds link second and third phosphate groups

c)

It contains five phosphate groups

d)

It contains the sugar glucose

92.

Most of a cell's enzymes are

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

amino acids

d)

lipids

93.

When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction

a)

it acts as a reactant

b)

it lowers the activation energy of the reaction

c)

it raises the activation energy of the reaction

d)

it is used once and discarded

94.

Which of the following statements correctly compare facilitated diffusion and active transport

a)

Facilitated diffusion moves substances down their concentration gradient and active transport moves them against their gradient

b)

Facilitated diffusion does not require energy and active transport does require energy

c)

Facilitated diffusion uses proteins and active transport does not

d)

A and B only

e)

A,B, and C

95.

Aquaporins

a)

allow water to cross the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient

b)

allow for the active transport of water

c)

are found in all cells

d)

allow water to cross the plasma membrane via facilitated diffusion

96.

The active site of an enzyme is

a)

the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate

b)

the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme

c)

the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme

d)

the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various

97.

Which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false?

a)

Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze

b)

Enzymes are used when the catalyze a chemical reaction so must be synthesized for each new chemical reaction

c)

An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape

d)

Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates

98.

How does inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by a competitive inhibitor differ from inhibition by a non competitive inhibitor?

a)

Competitive inhibitors interfere with the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors interfere with the reactants

b)

Competitive inhibitors change the enzymes tertiary structural; noncompetitive inhibitors cause polypeptide sub units to dissociate

c)

Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site

d)

Competitive inhibitors bind to the enzyme reversibly; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to it irreversibly

99.

Which statement about the cell membrane is true?

a)

the cell membrane is not involved in exocytosis or endocytosis

b)

The cell membrane is a barrier that prevents all molecules from entering or leaving the cell.

c)

The cell membrane is only composed of phospholipids

d)

the interior region of the cell membrane is hydrophobic

100.

An energy barrier

a)

is the amount of energy that must be produced by the reactants to end a chemical reaction

b)

can only be overcome with the use of enzymes

c)

prevents the spontaneous breakdown of molecules int he cell

d)

is higher than the activation energy of a reaction