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Worksheets

Review Session #6

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the correct sequence of processes in the Central Dogma of molecular biology?

a)

RNA → DNA → Proteins

b)

Proteins → RNA → DNA

c)

DNA → RNA → Proteins

d)

Proteins → DNA → RNA

2.

Which process is responsible for the synthesis of RNA from DNA?

a)

Translation

b)

Replication

c)

Reverse transcription

d)

Transcription

3.

What is the process called that converts RNA into proteins?

a)

Transcription

b)

Replication

c)

Reverse transcription

d)

Translation

4.

Which base in RNA replaces thymine found in DNA?

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

5.

What is the main role of mRNA?

a)

It forms the structure of ribosomes.

b)

It codes for proteins.

c)

It is involved in the regulation of gene expression.

d)

It transports amino acids to the ribosome.

6.

What enzyme is responsible for linking new bases during transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

RNA polymerase II

d)

Primase

7.

During DNA replication, what is required by DNA polymerase to add bases?

a)

A 5' primer

b)

A 3' primer

c)

A 3' OH group

d)

A DNA template

8.

What happens to the RNA strand after transcription?

a)

It remains permanently attached to DNA

b)

It forms a double helix

c)

It is displaced from the DNA template

d)

It is proofread and corrected

9.

Why is it acceptable for RNA polymerase to make more mistakes than DNA polymerase?

a)

Because RNA is not involved in protein synthesis

b)

Because RNA is double-stranded

c)

Because RNA is permanent

d)

Because RNA is temporary

10.

What is the function of the promoter region in transcription for eukaryotes?

a)

It is the region where transcription ends.

b)

It is the region where RNA polymerase II binds to start transcription.

c)

It is the region that codes for multiple proteins.

d)

It is the region that releases the sigma factor in bacterial transcription.

11.

What is coordinated gene expression, and where does it occur?

a)

It is when one mRNA codes for multiple proteins, occurring in eukaryotes.

b)

It is when one mRNA codes for one protein, occurring in prokaryotes.

c)

It is when one mRNA codes for multiple proteins, occurring in prokaryotes.

d)

It is when one mRNA codes for one protein, occurring in eukaryotes.

12.

How many types of RNA polymerases do eukaryotes have, and which one is responsible for all protein coding genes?

a)

1 type, RNA polymerase I

b)

2 types, RNA polymerase II

c)

3 types, RNA polymerase II

d)

3 types, RNA polymerase I

13.

Which of the following is unique to eukaryotic transcription?

a)

Prokaryotic mRNA codes for multiple proteins.

b)

Eukaryotic mRNA codes for only one protein.

c)

Sigma factor binds to RNA polymerase.

d)

Genes are spread over DNA without introns.

14.

What is the role of transcription factors in the process of transcription?

a)

They degrade RNA polymerase II

b)

They bind to the promoter region and allow RNA Polymerase II to bind

c)

They prevent RNA polymerase II from binding to DNA

d)

They replicate DNA

15.

Which transcription factor binds to the TATA box?

a)

TFIIE

b)

TFIIH

c)

TFIID

d)

RNA polymerase II

16.

What is the characteristic of the TATA box that makes it the best area for transcription?

a)

It is G-C rich and has three hydrogen bonds

b)

It is A-T rich and has three hydrogen bonds

c)

It is G-C rich and has two hydrogen bonds

d)

It is A-T rich and has two hydrogen bonds

17.

What is the function of TFIIH?

a)

It acts as a ligase

b)

It acts as a helicase and unzips DNA

c)

It methylates the tail of RNA polymerase II

d)

It synthesizes RNA

18.

What additional role does TFIIH have besides acting as a helicase?

a)

It acetylates histones

b)

It phosphorylates the tail of RNA polymerase II

c)

It degrades RNA

d)

It binds to the TATA box

19.

What complex is formed by the addition of general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II?

a)

DNA Replication Complex

b)

Transcription Termination Complex

c)

Transcription Initiation Complex

d)

RNA Processing Complex

20.

What is required for the release of RNA polymerase II from DNA?

a)

Phosphorylation of the tail

b)

Methylation of the tail

c)

Dephosphorylation of the tail

d)

Acetylation of the tail

21.

RNA polymerase can transcribe a gene how many times simultaneously?

a)

Only once

b)

A limited number of times

c)

Many times

d)

Not at all

22.

What is added to the 3' tail of mRNA?

a)

Poly G Tail

b)

Poly T Tail

c)

Poly C Tail

d)

Poly A Tail

23.

What are introns?

a)

Coding sequences

b)

Noncoding sequences

c)

Untranslated regions

d)

Promoters

24.

What do exons code for?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

25.

What is characteristic of prokaryotic mRNA?

a)

It has a poly A tail

b)

It has a 5' cap

c)

It has one promoter and one long continuous coding region

d)

It has multiple promoters and fragmented coding regions

26.

What is the core of the spliceosome made of?

a)

snurps

b)

lariat structure

c)

exons

27.

What structure do snRNPs pull together during the splicing mechanism?

a)

Exons

b)

snurps

c)

introns to make a lariat

d)

Proteins

28.

What does alternative splicing allow for?

a)

Decreased protein diversity

b)

Increased protein diversity

c)

Reduced coding potential of the genome

d)

The creation of snRNPs

29.

Where is mRNA made in eukaryotes?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondria

30.

After transcription, where is the mRNA moved to in eukaryotes?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

31.

Why is mRNA transcribed and translated directly in the cytoplasm in prokaryotes?

a)

Because prokaryotes have a well-defined nucleus

b)

Because prokaryotes have multiple compartments

c)

Because prokaryotes do not have nuclei

d)

Because prokaryotes use DNA instead of RNA

32.

What is the process of using mRNA to make proteins called?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Mitosis

33.

Where does the process of translation occur?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

At the ribosome

c)

In the mitochondria

d)

On the cell membrane

34.

Are ribosomes large enough to be seen under a microscope?

a)

Yes

b)

No

35.

What is a codon?

a)

A. A type of protein

b)

B. A sequence of three nucleotides that forms part of a stop codon

c)

C. A sequence of three consecutive nucleotides that specifies a specific amino acid

d)

D. A molecule that helps in the replication of DNA

36.

What does the start codon AUG code for?

a)

A. Serine

b)

B. Arginine

c)

C. Methionine

d)

D. It is a stop codon and does not code for any amino acid

37.

What can happen if RNA is not translated correctly?

a)

A. It can lead to a mutation

b)

B. It will code for the intended protein

c)

C. It will enhance the protein function

d)

D. It will have no effect on the protein

38.

What are the two main structural components of a ribosomal subunit?

a)

DNA and ribosomal proteins

b)

mRNA and ribosomal proteins

c)

rRNA and ribosomal proteins

d)

tRNA and ribosomal proteins

39.

How many sites are there on the ribosomal unit?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

40.

What does the 'E' site on the ribosomal unit stand for?

a)

Entry site

b)

Energy site

c)

Exit site

d)

Enzyme site

41.

What is the function of the 'P' site on the ribosomal unit?

a)

It holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain.

b)

It is responsible for the exit of tRNA after delivering amino acids.

c)

It is the site where mRNA is decoded.

d)

It is the site where ribosomal proteins are synthesized.

42.

What does each ribosome bind to during protein synthesis?

a)

1 mRNA and 1 tRNA

b)

1 mRNA and 2 tRNAs

c)

1 mRNA and 3 tRNAs

d)

2 mRNAs and 3 tRNAs

43.

What is the function of tRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

It synthesizes new DNA strands.

b)

It brings the needed amino acids to the ribosome.

c)

It helps in the replication of the cell.

d)

It modifies the mRNA after transcription.

44.

What is the role of the anticodon in tRNA?

a)

It starts the replication process.

b)

It adds nucleotides during transcription.

c)

It recognizes the amino acid sequence on the mRNA.

d)

It prevents the mRNA from degradation.

45.

Where on the tRNA molecule is the amino acid attached?

a)

5' end

b)

Ribosome binding site

c)

3' end

d)

Anticodon loop

46.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding an amino acid to tRNA?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases

d)

Ligase

47.

What is the energy source used by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases to attach an amino acid to tRNA?

a)

Glucose

b)

GTP

c)

ATP

d)

NADH

48.

How is the energy from the high energy linkage on tRNAs (+ their amino acid) used during translation?

a)

To replicate the DNA

b)

To transcribe mRNA

c)

To covalently bond amino acid to polypeptide chain

d)

To break down the mRNA

49.

What happens after a stop codon is met during translation?

a)

The ribosomal unit starts the process over again

b)

A release factor binds to it and the ribosomal unit dissociates

c)

A peptide is formed

d)

The mRNA is degraded

50.

What is added by the release factor at the end of the translation process?

a)

An amino acid

b)

A peptide

c)

A carboxy

d)

A tRNA

51.

What are poly-ribosomes?

a)

A single ribosome translating multiple mRNAs at once

b)

Many ribosomes translating on one mRNA molecule simultaneously

c)

A group of ribosomes attached to a single amino acid

d)

Ribosomes that only synthesize polysaccharides

52.

What is the main advantage of poly-ribosomes?

a)

They prevent protein synthesis

b)

They enable the synthesis of more protein molecules at once, increasing efficiency

c)

They block bacterial protein synthesis

d)

They allow ribosomes to translate without mRNA

53.

What does differentiation refer to in the context of cell biology?

a)

The division of a cell into two identical daughter cells

b)

The process in which a non-specialized cell becomes specialized

c)

The replication of DNA within a cell

d)

The movement of a cell from one part of the body to another

54.

Which example is given to illustrate how gene expression determines cell differentiation?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cloning

c)

Meiosis

d)

Mutation

55.

What was the outcome when a random cell type with its nucleus removed was implanted into an egg that had its nucleus removed?

a)

The cell could not develop further

b)

The cell turned into a different type of specialized cell

c)

The cell was able to grow into an embryo/baby

d)

The cell died immediately

56.

What are housekeeping proteins?

a)

Proteins that are only expressed in certain cell types

b)

Proteins that are found in all cell types and are constantly expressed

c)

Proteins that are expressed in response to external stimuli

d)

Proteins that are never expressed in cells

57.

What does "constitutive" gene expression mean?

a)

Gene expression that occurs only during cell division

b)

Gene expression that is regulated by external signals

c)

Gene expression that is constant and does not require external signals

d)

Gene expression that is temporary and changes frequently

58.

Why is differential gene expression important?

a)

It prevents the expression of any genes within a cell

b)

It ensures that all cells express the same genes

c)

It allows for variation in cell size, shape, and function

d)

It is not important for cellular function

59.

What is the SLOW version of changing gene expression referred to in the text?

a)

A change in the cell membrane

b)

A change in the making of a protein

c)

A change in DNA replication speed

d)

A change in the organism's behavior

60.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three major types of gene regulation mentioned in the text?

a)

When/How often a gene is being transcribed

b)

The selective degradation of mRNA molecules

c)

The selective activation/deactivation of proteins

d)

The rate of glucose intake by the cell

61.

What does "post-translational" refer to in the context of gene regulation?

a)

Before the gene is transcribed

b)

During the transcription of the gene

c)

After the translation of proteins

d)

During the replication of DNA

62.

What is the function of histone acetylases in chromatin structure?

a)

They remove acetyl groups which closes DNA

b)

They add acetyl groups which opens DNA

c)

They bind to the promoter region near TATA

d)

They add methly which opens the DNA

63.

Where do general transcription factors and RNA polymerase II bind for transcription?

a)

On regulatory sequences

b)

On histone deacetylases

c)

On the promoter region (near TATA)

d)

Far away from genes

64.

What are regulatory sequences?

a)

Sites that remove ATP from DNA

b)

The promoter regions

c)

Sites that are far away from genes and regulate whether/how much a gene is expressed

d)

Sites where RNA polymerase II binds

65.

What is the difference between transcription factors and general transcription factors?

a)

Transcription factors remove acetyl groups, while general transcription factors add them

b)

Transcription factors are the same as general transcription factors

c)

Transcription factors bind to the promoter region, while general transcription factors bind to regulatory sequences

d)

Transcription factors are what actually affect gene expression, different from general transcription factors

66.

What do transcription factors bind to in the DNA? (not general transcription factors)

a)

Promoter regions only

b)

Regulatory sequences specifically and tightly

c)

Any DNA sequence randomly

d)

Only the sequences near the actual gene

67.

What is the primary function of activators as transcription factors?

a)

Decrease gene expression

b)

Bind to enhancers only

c)

Increase gene expression

d)

Cut the DNA strand

68.

Repressors are transcription factors that:

a)

Increase gene expression

b)

Have no effect on gene expression

c)

Decrease gene expression

d)

Only bind to promoters

69.

How can activators and repressors be regulated?

a)

By temperature changes only

b)

By constitutive action or phosphorylation

c)

Only during cell division

d)

By binding to each other

70.

Can transcription factors work on regulatory sequences that are far from the actual gene?

a)

No, they can only work on sequences close to the gene

b)

Yes, but only during replication

c)

Yes, they can work on regulatory sequences very far from the actual gene

d)

No, they do not work on regulatory sequences

71.

Where must activators, also known as transcription factors, bind to regulate gene expression?

a)

To the promoter sequence only

b)

To the enhancer sequence only

c)

To regulatory sequences that can be down/upstream of the gene

d)

Directly to the RNA polymerase

72.

What happens to the DNA structure during gene activation?

a)

DNA remains linear

b)

DNA replicates

c)

DNA bends and a mediator protein mediates b/t promoter and regulatory sequence

d)

DNA breaks apart

73.

What is required to express a protein in terms of transcription factors?

a)

Only one specific activator

b)

A combination of different transcription factors

c)

Repressors only

d)

No transcription factors are needed

74.

What is combinatorial control in eukaryotes?

a)

When a gene is controlled by a single transcription factor

b)

When a gene is controlled by a few transcription factors that are all activators

c)

When a gene is controlled by MANY transcription factors/groups and the combination determines the final rate of transcription initiation

d)

When a gene expression is random and not controlled by transcription factors

75.

What can combinatorial control of transcription factors create?

a)

Only one cell type

b)

Different cell types through different combinations of transcription factors

c)

The same protein in all cell types

d)

No change in cell types

76.

What was demonstrated by implanting a transcription factor for an eye on the leg of a fly?

a)

That transcription factors are not specific for what they do

b)

That transcription factors can only function in their original location

c)

That transcription factors can lead to a positive feedback loop to encode for additional transcription factors

d)

That transcription factors have no role in determining where body parts grow

77.

How can chromatin structure be propagated from parent to child cell?

a)

Through DNA replication

b)

Through epigenetic inheritance

c)

Through transcription factors

d)

Through cell division

78.

Can DNA methylation patterns be inherited?

a)

No, they cannot be inherited

b)

Yes, but only through mutations

c)

Yes, they can be inherited

d)

No, they are always acquired anew

79.

What happens once a cell has been differentiated?

a)

It can easily change into another cell type

b)

It loses all its specialized functions

c)

It stays differentiated and cannot change back

d)

It divides into pluripotent cells

80.

What are Induced Pluripotent Cells (iPS)?

a)

Cells that can only differentiate into one cell type

b)

Cells that remain in their differentiated state

c)

Cells that can differentiate into other cell types but cannot be reverted back to iPS

d)

Cells that are given certain transcription factors to revert back to a pluripotent state

81.

What type of chromatin is considered "open" and generally associated with active gene expression?

a)

Heterochromatin

b)

Euchromatin

c)

Maintenance Methyltransferase

d)

Histone tail

82.

What is the role of Maintenance Methyltransferase?

a)

It ensures acetylation is passed off to new DNA during replication.

b)

It ensures methylation is passed off to new DNA during replication.

c)

it maintain methylation on already created DNA

83.

What does acetylation of histone tails result in?

a)

Closing of chromatin and activation of genes.

b)

Opening of chromatin and suppression of genes.

c)

Opening of chromatin and activation of genes.

d)

Methylation of DNA.

84.

Which of the following is a reversible chemical modification on histone tails?

a)

Ubiquitination

b)

Acetylation

c)

Methylation

d)

All of the above

85.

What are post-transcriptional controls?

a)

Controls on a gene before transcription has started

b)

Controls on a gene after transcription has been started

c)

Controls on a gene during DNA replication

d)

Controls on a gene during the translation process

86.

Which of the following is NOT an example of post-transcriptional control?

a)

Alternative splicing

b)

UTR regions affecting binding of activators/repressors

c)

Small regulatory RNAs causing degradation of mRNA

d)

Histone tail modifications

87.

What components are removed by snRNPs during splicing?

a)

Exons

b)

Introns

c)

UTRs

d)

mRNA

88.

What can affect the binding of transcription factors to the 5' UTR region?

a)

Shape of the 5' UTR

b)

Number of exons

c)

Length of the mRNA

d)

Size of the introns

89.

Which of the following can influence whether mRNA can make protein?

a)

Protein binding

b)

A small molecule

c)

Temperature

d)

All of the above

90.

What is the role of noncoding RNAs found on the "junk" part of DNA?

a)

They are involved in DNA replication

b)

They play a role in gene expression

c)

They are not involved in any cellular processes

91.

What is the function of Micro RNA (miRNA)?

a)

It enhances the expression of genes

b)

It base pairs with specific mRNA to control stability and translation to silence genes

c)

It repairs damaged DNA

d)

It assists in the replication of viral RNA

92.

What is RNA Interference (RNAi) primarily involved in?

a)

Enhancing gene expression

b)

Degrading foreign RNA molecules

c)

Facilitating DNA replication

d)

Silencing DNA segments

93.

Which molecule is attracted by RNAi to degrade foreign RNA?

a)

RISC

b)

DICER

c)

snurps

d)

mRNA

94.

What is the purpose of siRNA?

a)

To enhance the replication of viruses

b)

To shut down foreign viruses

c)

To promote gene expression

d)

To assist in protein synthesis

95.

What is proteolysis?

a)

The process where proteins synthesize enzymes

b)

The process where enzymes break proteins down into their amino acids

c)

The process where amino acids are linked together to form proteins

d)

The process where proteins are synthesized from nucleic acids

96.

Which enzymes are responsible for breaking down proteins?

a)

Lipases

b)

Proteases

c)

Amylases

d)

Nucleases

97.

What is the role of ubiquitin in protein degradation?

a)

It synthesizes new proteins

b)

It folds proteins into their correct shape

c)

It marks proteins for degradation/proteolysis

d)

It transports proteins across the cell membrane

98.

What is the consequence of protein degradation on gene expression?

a)

It initiates gene expression

b)

It enhances gene expression

c)

It has no effect on gene expression

d)

It halts gene expression