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Fall Final Review 21-22

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A polymer is a large structure that is made up of multiple smaller units (building blocks) called:

a)

molecules

b)

monomers

c)

elements

2.

The function of a protein is:

a)

growth & repair

b)

storage of energy

c)

source of energy

d)

carrying genetic codes

3.

The function of a carbohydrate is

a)

growth & repair

b)

storage of energy

c)

source of energy

d)

carrying genetic codes

4.

What is the monomer of a carbohydrate

a)

fatty acid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

amino acid

d)

monosaccharide

5.

What is the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Monosaccharide

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Fatty acid

6.

Which of the following is NOT an essential life function?

a)

ability to reproduce

b)

ability to respond to stimuli

c)

ability to move

d)

ability to evolve

7.

Where is DNA found in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

in the cytoplasm

c)

in the cell wall

d)

in the ribosomes

8.

Where is DNA found in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

In the nucleus?

b)

In the cytoplasm

c)

In the cell wall

d)

In the ribosomes

9.

Autotrophs get their energy from

a)

eating other organisms

b)

making their own food

c)

autotrophs do not need energy

10.

In a DNA sequence, there is 15% of Adenine. What percentage is Thymine?

a)

10%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

11.

What is the complementary DNA strand for: GATACTGAC

a)

TGACGGATG

b)

CGTAGACCT

c)

CCGTAGCTA

d)

CTATGACTG

12.

Which biomolecules make up a cell membrane?

a)

carbohydrates and nucleic acids

b)

lipids and proteins

c)

proteins and nucleic acids

d)

nucleic acid and lipids

13.

Your cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means it allows only some materials to enter/exit the cell. This helps you...

a)

respond to the enviornment

b)

evolve & adapt

c)

maintain homeostasis

d)

grow & develop

14.

Anaerobic respiration takes place without...

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

glucose

d)

ATP energy

15.

The major difference in a prokaryote and a eukaryote is that a eukaryote has a ___________ while a prokaryote does not.

a)

cytoplasm

b)

ribosome

c)

cell membrane

d)

nucleus

16.

Where in a cell does photosynthesis take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

chloroplast

c)

ribosomes

d)

cytoplasm

17.

Where in a cell does cellular respiration take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

18.

What cellular process is shown in this picture?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

endosymbiosis

c)

cellular respiration

d)

anaerobic respiartion

19.

In early Earth, autotrophic prokaryotes came before multicellular life.

a)

true

b)

false

20.

Which part of the cell membrane is hydrophobic?

a)

head

b)

tail

c)

proteins

21.

Which part of the plasma membrane is hydrophilic?

a)

head

b)

tail

22.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration

c)

The products of photosynthesis block the reactants in cellular respiration

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration

23.

Two different species of reptile would be most related if they share which level of classification?

a)

Domain

b)

Phylum

c)

Family

d)

Class

24.

At which classification level are organisms most related?

a)

Kingdom

b)

Class

c)

Order

d)

Family

25.

Which organisms have eggs with shells?

a)

sharks

b)

amphibians

c)

crocodiles

d)

birds

26.

Which organism is most closely related to the rodents & rabbits?

a)

primates

b)

amphibians

c)

crocodiles

d)

sharks

27.

Which of the following levels is the broadest?

a)

Phylum

b)

Class

c)

Family

d)

Species

28.

Which of the following is a grizzly bear's correct scientific name?

a)

Ursus Arctos

b)

ursus arctos

c)

Ursus arctos

d)

Ursus arctos

29.

Taxonomy is the branch of science that studies...

a)

cellular processes in organisms

b)

classification of organisms

c)

family lineage of organisms

d)

genetic material within organisms

30.

The gray squirrel, Eastern fox squirrel, and red squirrel are all different species of squirrels. Why is having a scientific name for each species of an organism important?

a)

To prevent existing named organisms from having their names changed as they become extinct

b)

To keep the classification system from being altered as new organisms are discovered

c)

To allow organisms to be placed in many classification levels at the same time

d)

To standardize the naming and organization of organisms to avoid confusion

31.

How can you tell two organisms are closely related?

a)

The organisms share more levels of classification in common

b)

The organisms share fewer levels of classification in common

c)

None of the choices

32.

Which two organisms are most closely related?

a)

Snail and triceratops

b)

Human and snail

c)

Human and triceratops

33.

If a goat has 60 chromosomes, how many will it have after mitosis?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

120

34.

In reproduction, crossing over causes ______________.

a)

genetic variation

b)

babies

c)

the cell divide

d)

asexual reproduction

35.

What is the function in G2?

a)

cell grows

b)

DNA replicates

c)

cell divides

36.

What needs to be copied before mitosis can begin?

a)

nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

cell

37.

In meiosis, how many cells are made?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

38.

In mitosis, what type of cell is produced?

a)

Somatic

b)

Gametes

c)

Haploid

d)

Sexual

39.

In meiosis, what type of cell is produced?

a)

Diploid

b)

Gametic

c)

Somatic

d)

Identical

40.

What phase of the cell cycle uses enzymes for DNA synthesis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

41.

In what cycle does crossing over occur?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

42.

What is an is advantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

To create energy

b)

Makes exact copies

c)

Cute babies

d)

Genetic variability

43.

What is happening during S phase?

a)

Cell is growing

b)

DNA is creating a copy

c)

Cell is getting smaller

d)

Chromosomes meet in the middle

44.

How do enzymes help DNA synthesis?

a)

they speed it up

b)

they protect it

c)

they slow it down

45.

What phase does DNA synthesis happen in?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

46.

What 3 parts make up a DNA nucleotide?

a)

sugar

b)

protein

c)

phosphate

d)

nitrogen base

47.

Which is NOT a part of interphase

a)

G1 phase

b)

G2 phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

48.

Prokaryotes reproduce through...

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

Binary fission

d)

Interphase

49.

Which phase is shown here?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

50.

Which phase is this?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

51.

What process is shown in this picture?

a)

Meiosis

b)

DNA replications

c)

Binary fission

d)

Mitosis

52.

Which of the following is a heterozygous genotype?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

d)

B

53.

Which of the following is an example of a genotype?

a)

Brown fur

b)

Ff

c)

Genes

d)

Long hair

54.

Physical characteristics are called ____________.

a)

Genotype

b)

Recessive

c)

Dominant

d)

Phenotype

55.

What are the possible genotypes for the offspring with parents that have FF and ff?

a)

FF and ff

b)

FF and Ff

c)

ff only

d)

Ff only

56.

If black fur is dominant (FF) and white fur is recessive (ff), which is the correct match between genotype and phenotype?

a)

FF = white

b)

Ff = white

c)

Ff = black

d)

ff = black

57.

If you have two heterozygous parents, what are the percentage outcome for the offspring?

a)

HH 100%, Hh 0%, hh 0%

b)

HH 25%, Hh 25%, hh 50%

c)

HH 25%, Hh 50%, hh 25%

d)

HH 0%, Hh 100%, hh 0%

58.

What is an example of homozygous genotypes?

a)

R

b)

rr

c)

Rr

d)

r

59.

When neither allele is dominant, what do we call this? (example: A=tall a=short, but Aa would result in medium)

a)

Codominance

b)

Complete dominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Multiple dominance

60.

Which of the following is not true of enzymes?

a)

Enzymes have a specific shape and function.

b)

Enzymes are proteins.

c)

Enzymes are slow down reaction rates.

d)

Enzymes can be found in all life forms.

61.

How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

In the ratio of adenine to thymine

b)

As a sequence of nucleotides

c)

In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars

62.

The genetic information of a cell is passed from DNA to mRNA during the process of _________________ that happens in the _________________.

a)

Translation, ribosomes

b)

Transcription, nucleus

c)

Replication, nucleus

d)

None are correct

63.

What mRNA sequence will best match the section of DNA shown to the right?

a)

C-T-A-G-G-C

b)

C-U-A-G-G-A

c)

A-G-U-C-C-G

d)

T-C-G-A-A-G

64.

As mRNA moves through the ribosomes the codons are read and tRNA brings the amino acid to the ribosomes where the amino acid chain is assembled. Which part of protein synthesis is being described?

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

None of the choices

65.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled below. What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

Create messenger RNA using the DNA gene sequence

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

66.

The diagram to the right represents part of a process that occurs in cells. Which process is represented in the diagram to the right?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

67.

1. The function of most proteins depends primarily on the—

a)

Type and order of amino acids

b)

Environment of the organism

c)

Availability of starch molecules

d)

Nutritional habits of the organism

68.

1. Which sequence best represents the relationship between DNA and the traits of an organism?

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

What is the correct sequence of amino acids that this gene codes for?


DNA: TAC TTA GCG GAT ACT

a)

methionine – asparagine – arginine– leucine – Stop

b)

methionine – aspartate – arginine –leucine – Stop

c)

methionine – proline – histidine – glutamate – Stop

d)

asparagine – asparagine – alanine – histidine – Stop

70.

A mutation has occurred in an mRNA fragment that was originally CUU. Which of the following mutated mRNA fragments would result in an amino acid sequence different from that produced by the CUU fragment?

a)

CUC

b)

CUA

c)

CUG

d)

CAU

71.

The mRNA codon AAG would code for which of the following amino acids?

a)

Glycine

b)

Leucine

c)

Valine

d)

Lysine

72.

When 100 white corn seedlings were placed near a light source, 76 turned green within 48 hours. Which statement best explains why some of the plants turned green?

a)

A white plant results only from the lack of light.

b)

Genes are not affected by environmental conditions.

c)

A white plant results only from a homozygous genotype.

d)

The environment sometimes affects the expression of inherited traits.

73.

If a specific kind of protein is always made by a cell, the gene for that protein is

a)

transcribed and translated.

b)

never expressed.

c)

turned on and off at different times

d)

not regulated.

74.

The model shows a mutation to a partial sequence of bases in a gene. Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

Deletion

b)

Substitution

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

75.

The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA varies widely. The sequence of the bases in DNA is most important for which of the following?

a)

Providing the instructions for the traits of an organism

b)

Preventing mutations from occurring during DNA replication

c)

Allowing the DNA to have the shape necessary for replication

d)

Helping form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules

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