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Fall A+.1001. 3.0 Test

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 18hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following describe characteristics of DSL modems? (Select 2 answers)

a)

Dedicated bandwidth

b)

Cabling that carries TV signals

c)

Shared bandwidth

d)

Telephone lines

e)

Coaxial cabling

2.

Which of the following acronyms describes using a single twisted-pair Ethernet cable to carry both data and electrical power?

a)

EPP

b)

PoE

c)

ECP

d)

PLC

3.

A type of technology that enables sending data over electrical power wiring is known as:

a)

PLC

b)

ECP

c)

PoE

d)

EPP

4.

Which of the following are characteristics of fiber-optic network cabling? (Select 3 answers)

a)

Less suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling

b)

Immunity to electromagnetic interference

c)

Limited bandwidth and maximum cable segment length in comparison to copper cabling

d)

More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling

e)

Used for network backbone cabling

5.

What is the typical maximum segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable?

a)

33 meters

b)

55 meters

c)

250 meters

d)

100 meters

6.

What is the minimum cabling requirement needed to create a 10 Gbps Ethernet connection over copper twisted-pair cable?

a)

Cat 5

b)

Cat 6

c)

Cat 5e

d)

Cat 6A

7.

What type of Ethernet cable is used to establish a direct communication link between two PCs?

a)

Patch cable

b)

Crossover cable

c)

Rollover cable

d)

Straight-through cable

8.

Which of the following cable types can transmit both video and audio data? (Select 2 answers)

a)

S/PDIF

b)

DVI

c)

VGA

d)

HDMI

e)

DisplayPort

9.

What is the maximum allowable cable length for both Full Speed USB and High Speed USB?

a)

3 meters

b)

4.5 meters

c)

5 meters

d)

10 meters

10.

Examples of cabling types used for mass storage devices include: (Select all that apply)

a)

SATA

b)

IDE/PATA

c)

STP

d)

SCSI

e)

HDMI

11.

SATA revision 2.0 specifies: (Select 2 answers)

a)

6 Gbps data transfer rate

b)

3 Gbps data transfer rate

c)

Maximum cable length of 2 meters

d)

1.5 Gbps data transfer rate

e)

Maximum cable length of 1 meter

12.

Which is true about SATA revision 3.2 ?

a)

16 Gbps data transfer rate

b)

32 Gbps data transfer rate

c)

Maximum cable length of 3 meters

d)

Maximum cable length of 2 meters

13.

Examples of wired connection types that can be used for SOHO multifunction device/printer sharing include: (Select all that apply)

a)

USB

b)

Bluetooth

c)

Serial

d)

802.11x

e)

Ethernet

14.

What are some characteristic features of RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)

a)

Coaxial cabling

b)

Suitable for short-distance cable runs

c)

Used for analog video and CCTV installations

d)

Twisted-pair copper cabling

e)

Suitable for long-distance cable runs

15.

Which of the following are characteristics of RG-6 cabling specifications? (Select 3 answers)

a)

Coaxial cabling

b)

Suitable for long-distance cable runs

c)

Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

d)

Suitable for short-distance cable runs

e)

Twisted-pair copper cabling

16.

What is the name of a proprietary connector type used by Apple mobile devices?

a)

8P8C connector

b)

BNC connector

c)

Lucent Connector (LC)

d)

Lightning connector

17.

Which USB connector type can be used on an Android device for mobile device synchronization?

a)

USB Mini-B

b)

USB Micro-B

c)

USB Mini-A

d)

USB Type-B

e)

USB Type-A

18.

DE-15, DB-15, and HD-15 are different names used for a(n):

a)

VGA connector

b)

RJ-45 connector

c)

BNC connector

d)

8P8C connector

19.

Which interface uses a 19-pin Type A connector?

a)

USB

b)

Thunderbolt

c)

FireWire

d)

HDMI

e)

DisplayPort

20.

Which of the following is a Mini-HDMI connector used with portable devices such as camcorders and digital cameras?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

21.

The _______ connector supports both digital and analog video signal transmissions.

a)

DVI-I

b)

DVI-A

c)

DVI-D

22.

Parallel ATA (PATA) cabling uses:

a)

68-pin connectors

b)

40-pin connectors

c)

15-pin connectors

d)

80-pin connectors

23.

Which of the following are true of RJ-11 connectors? (Select 3 answers)

a)

Ethernet network cabling

b)

Telephone equipment

c)

Dial-up networking

d)

Twisted-pair copper cabling

e)

Coaxial cabling

24.

Which of the following is an 8P8C connector used with IEEE 802.3 network cabling?

a)

RJ-11

b)

RG-59

c)

MT-RJ

d)

RJ-45

25.

eSATA (external) connectors feature a distinct L-shape (right-angled or left-angled) that prevents the improper insertion of a connector plug into an eSATA port.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following are characteristic features of Static Random-Access Memory (SRAM)? (Select all that apply)

a)

Faster than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)

b)

Volatile storage media type

c)

Utilized for CPU cache memory chips

d)

Slower than Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DRAM)

e)

Non-volatile storage media type

27.

The term "Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (SDRAM)" encompasses a broad range of DRAM modules that rely on a signal sent by the system clock in order to synchronize the memory operation with other internal PC components.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following is a valid SDRAM module combination that can be installed on a single PC motherboard?

a)

DDR2 + DDR

b)

DDR3 + DDR2

c)

DDR4 + DDR3

d)

None of the above

e)

Any of the above

29.

A Small Outline Dual In-Line Memory Module (SODIMM) is a more compact type of computer memory and is designed for desktop PCs.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

What are some characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 2 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory (DDR2 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers)

a)

1 notch on the module contact surface

b)

204 contact pins

c)

Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle

d)

240 contact pins

e)

2 notches on the module contact surface

31.

Which of the following is the industry name used for DDR2-1066 modules?

a)

PC2-4200

b)

PC2-5300

c)

PC2-6400

d)

PC2-8500

32.

Which of the following is the industry name of DDR3-1333 modules?

a)

PC3-6400

b)

PC3-12800

c)

PC3-8500

d)

PC3-10600

33.

What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR4-3200 module?

a)

25600 MB/s

b)

21333 MB/s

c)

23466 MB/s

d)

19200 MB/s

34.

Which of the following are characteristics of the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in desktop PCs? (Select 2 answers)

a)

SODIMM

b)

Non-ECC memory

c)

Static RAM

d)

ECC memory

e)

Dynamic RAM

35.

Which memory type can provide a CPU with the fastest access to frequently used data?

a)

DRAM

b)

Secondary storage

c)

Flash memory

d)

Multi-level cache

36.

Which of the following can be used to describe the features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)? (Select 3 answers)

a)

Relatively high device cost

b)

High performance

c)

Low performance

d)

Relatively low device cost

e)

Lower capacity in comparison to magnetic drives

37.

Which of the following are SSD form factors used in laptop computers? (Select 2 answers)

a)

1.5 inch

b)

1.8 inch

c)

1.3 inch

d)

5.25 inch

e)

2.5 inch

38.

Examples of mass storage device interfaces include: (Select all that apply)

a)

HDMI

b)

STP

c)

IDE/PATA

d)

SCSI

e)

SATA

39.

SCSI ID:

a)

Identifies SCSI devices on a network

b)

Serves as an interchangeable term for LUN

c)

Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

d)

Tater Tots

40.

Which of the following is an example of Write Once, Read Many (WORM) storage media?

a)

BD-R

b)

CD-RW

c)

CD-ROM

d)

Magnetic tape

e)

Flash drive

41.

A single-sided, single-layer DVD disc can store up to:

a)

4.7 GB of data

b)

7.8 GB of data

c)

8.5 GB of data

d)

9.4 GB of data

42.

A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to:

a)

15 GB of data

b)

25 GB of data

c)

30 GB of data

d)

50 GB of data

e)

60 GB of data

43.

Which of the following are examples of SSD host interfaces? (Select 3 answers)

a)

MAPI

b)

ACPI

c)

SATA

d)

PCIe

e)

M.2

44.

Which of the following is a logical device interface used to access non-volatile memory storage devices attached via a PCIe?

a)

GDI

b)

NVMe

c)

SLI

d)

MAPI

45.

Which of the following is the maximum rpm value available in modern HDDs?

a)

15,000 rpm

b)

10,000 rpm

c)

25,000 rpm

d)

30,000 rpm

46.

Which of the following is the size of a magnetic drive form factor for desktops?

a)

1.8 inch

b)

3.5 inch

c)

5.25 inch

d)

2.5 inch

47.

Examples of flash memory card formats include: (Select all that apply)

a)

SD

b)

CompactFlash

c)

Micro-SD

d)

Mini-SD

e)

xD

48.

Hardware RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers)

a)

Is also known as disk striping

b)

Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array)

c)

Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance

d)

Requires at least 3 drives to implement

e)

Is also referred to as disk mirroring

49.

Hardware RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers)

a)

Requires at least 3 drives to implement

b)

Requires at least 4 drives to implement

c)

Requires at least 5 drives to implement

d)

Offers increased performance and fault tolerance

50.

Which type of RAID creates a striped set from a series of mirrored drives?

a)

RAID 0+1

b)

RAID 1+0

c)

RAID 1

d)

RAID 5

51.

Which of the following is an example of a hot-swappable drive? (Select all that apply)

a)

USB drive

b)

PATA drive

c)

IDE drive

d)

SATA drive

e)

eSATA drive

52.

Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.) enables monitoring a system for anticipated:

a)

HDD failures

b)

Network interface problems

c)

Video adapter failures

d)

Power spikes

53.

Which of the following are a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by a startup BIOS after a computer is powered on?

a)

SFC

b)

POTS

c)

CRC

d)

POST

54.

Which of the following MS Windows utilities provides access to basic information about a computer's BIOS?

a)

Winver.exe

b)

Control.exe

c)

Services.msc

d)

Msinfo32.exe

55.

BIOS configuration settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply)

a)

Using a jumper on the motherboard

b)

Changing settings in Windows Device Manager

c)

Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard

d)

Choosing the default configuration option in the BIOS interface

56.

Which of the following is a feature of UEFI? (Select all that apply)

a)

Network access

b)

Designed as a replacement for BIOS

c)

Secure boot

d)

GUI mode

57.

A BIOS configuration interface provides a wide range of advanced hardware-related options. In modern PCs, depending on the specific BIOS type and version, these options might typically include:

a)

Viewing a detailed information related to CPU, RAM, and HDDs

b)

Enabling/disabling integrated hardware interfaces, such as USB, Audio, NIC, TPM, or integrated graphics controllers

c)

Configuring the parameters of CPU, RAM, and HDDs

d)

Enabling/disabling certain functionalities, e.g. virtualization support

e)

All of the above

58.

Which of the following would you try first when troubleshooting a system that attempts to boot to an incorrect device? (Select 2 BEST answers)

a)

Administrative Tools

b)

Disconnecting any USB thumb drives

c)

Safe mode troubleshooting

d)

Device Manager

e)

Checking BIOS settings for boot order

59.

Examples of wired connection types that would commonly be used for SOHO multifunction device/printer sharing include: (Select all that apply)

a)

USB

b)

Serial

c)

Ethernet

d)

Fiber-optic

e)

Coaxial

60.

Which of the following are legacy parallel printer ports? (Select 2 answers)

a)

USB

b)

RS-232

c)

LPT

d)

DB-25

61.

IPP, LPD/LPR, and SMB/CIFS are examples of protocols that enable:

a)

Name resolution

b)

Printing

c)

Email handling

d)

IP address allocation

e)

Tater Tot deep frying

62.

Which of the following is a laser printer component that holds a representation of the output image drawn on its surface by the laser?

a)

Transfer belt

b)

Imaging drum

c)

Transfer roller

d)

Print head

63.

Which of the following is a laser printer component that applies heat and pressure to bond toner to the paper?

a)

Fuser assembly

b)

Print head

c)

Transfer roller

d)

Imaging drum

64.

In laser printing, the function of a transfer roller is to apply an electrical charge to a sheet of paper to move the representation of an image or text (consisting of toner) from the imaging drum to the paper.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which of the following lists the correct sequence of steps in a laser printing process?

a)

Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning

b)

Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging

c)

Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing

d)

Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

66.

Which of the following is a relatively inexpensive printer type commonly used in SOHO environments?

a)

Inkjet

b)

Thermal

c)

Laser

d)

Impact

67.

Which of the following printer types belongs to the category of impact printers?

a)

Dot matrix

b)

Thermal

c)

Inkjet

d)

Laser

68.

File formats commonly used in virtual printing include: (Select 2 answers)

a)

XPS

b)

GDI

c)

PCL

d)

TXT

e)

PDF

69.

In laser printing, long vertical streaks on each output page indicate a problem with:

a)

The printer driver

b)

Clogged print head nozzles

c)

Damage to the imaging drum

d)

Printer calibration

70.

Which step of the laser printer imaging process requires troubleshooting if a printer produces ghost images on output pages?

a)

Charging

b)

Fusing

c)

Exposing

d)

Developing

e)

Cleaning

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