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WorksheetsU.S Govt Test
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 3600secs
The Founders incorporated separation of powers, checks and balances, and federalism into the structure of American government in order to:
mimic the structure of English government.
promote altruism.
counter the effects of powerful factions.
prevent class-based politics.
The legislative, judicial, and executive branches of government share governmental power in order to prevent tyranny.
True
False
Tyranny within American government is most effectively prevented by:
the existence of competitive political ideologies.
citizens’ strong commitment to the free market and economic individualism.
a system of checks and balances.
the collective action problem.
Which of the following is not a major source of conflict in American politics?
ideological differences
economic interests
cultural values
none of the above
It is often necessary that public goods be provided by the government because:
citizens are incapable of organizing efficient methods of distribution.
public goods are often under produced in a free market.
only the government has the power to limit negative externalities.
according to several states’ laws, public goods must be funded by tax dollars.
The size of the federal government is evidence that:
politics is everywhere.
politics is conflictual.
the political process matters.
all of the above
A libertarian would most likely support which of the following policies?
an increase in benefits for welfare recipients
making abortion illegal
the legalization of drugs
an increase in funding for environmental research
The term “culture wars,” in the context of American politics, refers to:
any conflict that occurs on the basis of race, ethnicity, gender, or political ideology.
the conflicts that exist as a result of the inherent differences among people living in the North and the South.
the conflict among factions that form during each presidential election.
the conflict between religious and secular Americans.
The collective action problem prevents positive externalities from being shared by the maximum number of people.
True
False
The fact that political process matters is exemplified by all of the following, except:
Policy is enacted with the desires of the public in mind.
The political party in power has extensive control over the policies enacted.
Citizens can vote at age 18.
Over 11 million people receive a paycheck from the federal government.
Despite the importance of economic equality in defining our nation’s early history, socioeconomic classes have formed as a result of:
Americans’ commitment to the free market and economic individualism.
the Founders’ inability to predict how the American economy would develop.
slavery and its aftermath.
the difficulty in revising laws established by the Constitution.
The preamble of the U.S. Constitution:
protects basic rights of Americans.
defines the two central duties of national government as to “provide for the common defense” and to “insure domestic tranquility.”
is the supreme law of the land.
acknowledges life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness as fundamental human rights.
Which of the following was not a reason for rejecting the Articles of Confederation?
Congress was unable to raise taxes.
New York state troops threatened to occupy Massachusetts territory.
State trade became inefficient.
The federal government was unable to negotiate foreign treaties.
The Articles of Confederation endorsed a system with a strong national government.
True
False
Judicial review was asserted by the Supreme Court in which case?
McCulloch v. Maryland
Marbury v. Madison
Barron v. Baltimore
Priestman v. United States
During the Constitutional deliberations, Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay wrote 85 articles to sway public opinion. Collectively, these 85 articles are known as what?
Antifederalist Papers
Common Sense
Federalist Papers
Pluralist Papers
Which branch of government has “Neither the power of the purse nor the sword?”
the courts
the bureaucracy
the presidency
the Congress
Which of the following important key passages in the Constitution is not considered “most important and most ambiguous”?
executive powers clause
commerce clause
enumerated powers clause
Article V
Which are not among Congress’s exclusive powers?
right to regulate commerce
right to declare war
right to establish a post office
right to nominate judges
The Great Compromise was the compromise between the constitutional proposals of what two states?
Delaware and New York
New Jersey and New York
Pennsylvania and Rhode Island
New Jersey and Virginia
The levels of economic inequality in the United States during the creation of the Constitution were similar to levels of economic inequality in Europe.
True
False
Pluralism is based on what ideals?
Political man is concerned by collective interests, rather than self-interest.
Providing many groups access to government prevents authoritarianism.
Providing many groups access to government promotes authoritarianism.
Restricting civil liberties is necessary to produce stability and security.
What was the outcome of the Three-fifths Compromise?
Slaves would get three-fifths of a vote.
Slaves counted as three-fifths of a person for taxation.
Slaves counted as three-fifths of a person for the census.
B and C
What does Article V of the Constitution detail?
the process of conducting national elections
the process of establishing political parties
the process of amending the Constitution
the process of selecting Supreme Court justices
Which was not one of the central tensions in the Constitutional Convention?
free trade versus domestic protectionism
legislative power versus executive power
majority rule versus minority rights
national power versus states’ rights
Which of the following is not an example of how implied powers have been interpreted?
the Supreme Court ruling that Congress could create a bank
Congress levying a national tax to support the Marine Corps in the battle against the Barbary Pirates
the president unilaterally setting national foreign policy
Congress removing appointed officials from the president’s cabinet
Impeachment allows Congress to remove the president for politically unpopular action.
True
False
Which of the following executive arrangements were not proposed in the Constitutional Convention?
a three-person executive council
an executive appointed by the courts
a single executive as a member of a “Council of Revision”
a strong executive with “prerogative powers”
Which branch of government is often considered “the First Branch?”
the presidency
Congress
the courts
the bureaucracy
Which was not a provision of the Articles of Confederation?
The Articles forbade the creation of a national judiciary.
The Articles required nine of thirteen states to approve legislation.
The Articles gave states sole authority to coin money.
The Articles gave the states each a single vote in Congress.
Which of the following options is not a reason that the Constitution is considered a “living document”?
Some parts are ignored.
The Constitution can be amended.
Central passages are ambiguous.
Explicit details allow only one interpretation of its meaning.
What is the name of the clause that gives Congress the “power to pass any law that is related to one of its expressed powers?”
establishment clause
national supremacy clause
congressional powers clause
elastic clause
Antifederalists felt that the Constitution should not specifically protect civil liberties.
True
False
One state recognizing a marriage sanctioned by another state is an example of the exercise of which constitutional clause?
privileges and immunities clause
elastic clause
commerce clause
full faith and credit clause
New Federalism attempted to shift power away from the national government and toward state governments by:
granting state and local governments greater control of nationally funded programs, such as welfare.
consolidating categorical grants into block grants.
consolidating block grants into categorical grants.
A and B
Under a system of dual federalism, the national and state governments are:
equally subject to the decisions of state supreme courts.
seen as distinct entities providing separate services.
seen as distinct entities providing overlapping, occasionally redundant services to ensure that all citizens have access to necessary public goods.
entitled to declare the other’s legislation void.
Block grants consist of federal aid to state or local governments that is:
divided into discrete “blocks” of grants, each capped at $50 million.
to be spent on a policy area decided on by the state or local government.
contingent upon state/local endorsement of some contentious piece of federal legislation.
to be spent within a specified policy area, though the receiving state or local government can decide how to spend within that area.
The commerce clause of Article I, Section 8, of the U.S. Constitution affords Congress broad regulatory power over what?
intertribal trade between Native Americans
international commerce
intrastate commerce
interstate commerce
The U.S. Supreme Court upheld the right of the national government to create a national bank and reaffirmed the notion of “national supremacy” in which landmark case?
Chisholm v. Georgia (1793)
Barron v. Baltimore (1833)
Marbury v. Madison (1803)
McCulloch v. Maryland (1819)
Coercive federalism describes a form of federalism in which:
the national government pressures the states to change their policies by using regulations, mandates, and conditional funding.
the state governments attempt to lobby the national government for specific laws of grants.
the national government relies on grants alone to influence state policies.
state governments compete with one another for business and jobs through the policies they adopt.
A unitary government is a system in which the _______ government holds ultimate authority.
state/provincial
county
national
supranational
Competitive federalism is a form of federalism in which:
states levy taxes against one another, and the national government levies taxes on the individual states.
the national government is in perpetual conflict with state governments over matters of economic policy and taxation.
states compete to attract business and jobs through the policies they adopt.
states provide block and categorical grants to local governments within the state.
The doctrine of interposition holds that if the national government passes an unconstitutional law, the people of a given state may:
declare the law void through an act of the state legislature.
petition the Supreme Court to review the law.
impeach one or both of their senators and hold emergency elections.
declare the law void through a popular referendum.
Which of the following best describes remedial legislation?
national laws that designate block grants to be spent by the states on remedial education initiatives
state laws that supplement national education laws pertaining to education
national laws that address discriminatory state laws
state laws that address discriminatory national laws
Federal preemptions allow Congress to impose national priorities on states through national legislation, a power that is rooted in the Constitution’s:
elastic clause.
supremacy clause.
establishment clause.
necessary and proper clause.
The form of government that best describes the American system while under the Articles of Confederation is:
confederal
federal
unitary
Byzantine
The Lemon test is designed to determine whether a practice violates the 1st Amendment’s establishment clause. Which of the following is not a component of the Lemon test?
determining if governments can force Amish parents to send their children to high school
determining if government involvement has a secular legislative purpose
determining if government involvement either advances or inhibits a religion
determining if government involvement fosters an excessive government entanglement with religion
Which of the following evidence is not allowed in court under the 4th Amendment’s exclusionary rule?
searching a home for an escaped prisoner but arresting the occupant for illegal pornography
searching the passenger area of a car for marijuana if the driver has been stopped for a traffic offense
searching school lockers for stolen property if the police have probable cause
random drug testing of federal employees
Which amendment in the Bill of Rights has not been applied to the states via selective incorporation?
the 5th Amendment: protection from self-incrimination
the 2nd Amendment: right to bear arms
the 9th Amendment: right to privacy
the 8th Amendment: right to a public trial
What is “selective incorporation”?
the Supreme Court using the precedent of Barron v. Baltimore to require that states uphold liberties from the Bill of Rights
the Supreme Court using the 14th Amendment to apply all the civil liberties in the Bill of Rights to the states
the Supreme Court using the 14th Amendment to apply civil liberties in the Bill of Rights to the states on a case-by-case basis
a passage placed in the 14th Amendment to appease the Antifederalists
Which of the following forms of speech is the Supreme Court least likely to allow regulation on?
commercial speech
obscenity
fighting words
hate speech
Which of the following civil liberties has been strengthened over time?
double jeopardy (5th Amendment)
right to attorney (6th Amendment)
protection against self-incrimination (5th Amendment)
exclusionary rule (4th Amendment)
Which group threatened to oppose ratification of the Constitution unless a bill of rights was included?
the Federalists
southern colonies
northern colonies
the Antifederalists
Which was not one of the provisions of the Civil War amendments?
ended Jim Crow laws in the South
abolished slavery
granted civil liberties to former slaves
gave voting rights to former male slaves
In Schenk v. United States, the Supreme Court adopted which test to determine if speech is considered dangerous and would not be legally protected?
clear and present danger test
Lemon test
Miller test
direct incitement test
Which of the following is not true regarding the Miller test of obscenity?
The Miller test uses local community interests as a standard.
The Miller test applies a single, national standard.
One component requires that the work is “patently offensive.”
One component requires that the work lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value.
If the Supreme Court were to consider the speech codes (regulations on hate speech) that are common on college campuses, they would be likely to:
find in favor of the college’s right to regulate behavior on campus.
find that speech codes are constitutionally permitted, as they are protected by the “direct incitement test.”
find that speech codes are not constitutional because they are not “content neutral.”
find that speech codes are not constitutional because they fail the “Lemon test.”
Which of the following acts of prayer has the Court struck down under the establishment clause?
beginning each session of Congress with a prayer
a prayer at a Texas high school graduation organized and led by students
an Alabama public school practice of observing a one-minute moment of silence for “meditation or voluntary prayer”
allowing the state of Texas to display a monument of the Ten Commandments outside the state capital in Austin
Under what context is “prior restraint” relevant?
the courts preventing members of Congress from Twittering their locations when on a security tour of Iraq
the courts preventing college professors from teaching about the questionable legality of the Patriot Act
a limit on the Court’s ability to choose the cases it decides to hear
the courts allowing the media to publish a leaked, classified document—the Pentagon Papers
Which of the following is not true:
Libel is spoken, slander is written.
Libel and slander are forms of false statements meant to damage a person’s reputation.
Libel is written, slander is spoken.
Winning a libel suit generally requires proving that the statement was made “with actual malice.”
Which of the following is true regarding the difference between civil rights and civil liberties?
Civil liberties are guaranteed in part by the “equal protection” clause of the 14th Amendment.
Civil rights refer to the freedoms in the Bill of Rights.
Civil liberties are rooted in the Bill of Rights.
Civil rights are guaranteed by the “due process” protection of the 14th Amendment.
The due process clause of the 14th Amendment does what?
forbids state governments from denying “life, liberty or property” to any person without due process of law
forbids the federal government from denying “life, liberty or property” to any person without due process of law
requires state governments to process new voting applications “with all due speed”
Overrides the 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution
The right to privacy was established in which case?
Griswold v. Connecticut
Roe v. Wade
Gideon v. Wainwright
Simmons v. United States
Level of conceptualization refers to:
an individual’s IQ.
the amount of complexity in an individual’s beliefs about government and complexity.
the level of commitment an individual has to his or her stated beliefs.
the amount of complexity in a political party’s policy agenda.
All of the following are examples of random sampling techniques, except:
selecting houses at random from census data.
robo-polling.
random digit dialing.
face-to-face interviews of people selected at random.
Increasing the number of respondents _____ the _____.
decreases; sampling error
increases; issue scale
increases; population
decreases; sample
Policy mood is a measure of the level of public support for:
expanding the government’s role in society.
expanding the government’s taxing authority.
expanding the availability of health care.
expanding access to educational opportunities.
On-line processing is a way of forming political opinions in which:
a person develops a preference for a political candidate, party, or position based on readily accessible and specific facts and figures.
a person articulates a preference for a political candidate, party, or position but does not really hold that preference.
a person develops a preference for a political candidate, party, or position but does not remember the original reasons behind the preference.
a person develops a preference for a political candidate, party, or position but does not necessarily hold that opinion for any length of time.
Theories of political socialization posit that people’s political opinions originate in:
Theories of political socialization posit that people’s political opinions originate in:
what they learned from their parents and their surrounding culture.
their religious upbringing.
primary school.
Ideological polarization describes the effect on public opinion when:
many citizens move away from extreme positions toward the middle of the political spectrum, identifying themselves instead as moderates.
many citizens move away from moderate positions toward either end of the political spectrum, identifying themselves as either liberals or conservatives.
many citizens move away from Democratic Party identification toward Republican Party identification.
many citizens move away from Democratic Party identification toward no party identification, instead identifying themselves as independents.
Because it is often impossible to interview every member of a large group, surveys typically involve _____ of the _____.
random digit dialing; population
populations; sample
random samples; sampling error
samples; population
When opinions are formed on the spot, they are based on “considerations.” Considerations are:
specific facts about a candidate, party, or policy that the respondent has learned of through watching or reading the news.
pieces of relevant information such as macroeconomic statistics, policy preferences, and specific news stories that come to mind when the opinion is requested.
snap judgments about a candidate, party, or policy that are based on the opinions of the respondent’s favorite political commentators.
pieces of relevant information such as ideology, party identification, religious beliefs, and personal circumstances that come to mind when the opinion is requested.
Researchers survey samples of a population because:
it decreases a study’s sampling error.
it increases a study’s sampling error.
it mitigates the potential for bias in the survey results.
it would be impossible to interview the entire population.
All of the following are common problems with surveys, except:
respondents may provide socially acceptable answers rather than reveal their true opinion.
respondents may provide answers they believe the interviewer wants to hear.
question wording can bias survey results.
none of the above
Which of the following statements best describes a political “realignment”?
A nationwide shift in which large numbers of people move from identifying with one political party to identifying with no political party.
An occasion in which the two major political parties switch their policy positions on an issue.
A nationwide shift in which large numbers of people move from identifying with one political party to identifying with another.
An occasion in which state and local political parties break with their national party counterparts on an issue position.
Which of the following is not an example of media cross-ownership?
the Tribune Company owning the WGN radio station, the WGN TV station, and the Chicago Tribune newspaper
Clear Channel Communications owning FM and AM radio stations across the country
News Corporation owning DirecTV, the Wall Street Journal, and 20th Century Fox
General Electric owning NBC, Universal Studios, and DreamWorks SKG
This theory posits that Americans acquire political information accidentally.
theory of information’s two-step flow
theory of online processing
the by-product theory
the friends and neighbors effect
Which of the following is not a reason why the Internet has failed to lead to a better informed public?
Information is inconsistent in its reliability.
Finding information can be difficult.
Many people just don’t demand information.
Often, it is hard to find information from more than one viewpoint.
What is framing?
the influence on public opinion as a result of the way a story is presented or covered, including the details, explanations, and context offered in the report
the influence on public opinion as a result of a story that covers one candidate or policy favorably without providing similar coverage of the other side
the influence on public opinion as a result of journalists’ decisions about which news stories to cover
the influence on public opinion as a result of positive or negative coverage of a candidate or issue
What is “soft news”?
investigative journalism
news that is sensational or entertaining
news stories from the wire service
news focused on campaigns and on which candidates are jumping ahead or falling behind
The fairness doctrine was a regulation instituted by the FCC in the 1940s. What did it require?
Except for news coverage, radio and TV stations must give the same air time to each candidate.
Radio and TV stations must send two reporters, one Democrat and one Republican, to cover the same event.
Radio and TV stations must treat all candidates who appear on their shows fairly and with respect.
Radio and TV stations must offer a variety of political views in their programming.
The textbook lists several reasons why news sources differ across mediums. Which is not a reason listed?
professionalism
resources
timeliness
breadth
What is the term for media influence on the public’s general impression caused by positive or negative coverage of a candidate or issue?
filtering
priming
bias
slant
Why has newspaper use of the wire service been criticized most often?
It is expensive and drives up subscription fees.
It is often unreliable.
It leads to the same news stories being printed all across the country.
It only reports facts and doesn’t provide analysis of events.
The idea that people view balanced coverage as biased against their preferred candidate is known as:
pessimistic bias
the Limbaugh effect
yellow journalism
the hostile media phenomenon
Whom does a shield law protect?
sources
reporters
newspaper editors
story subjects
What technological innovation allowed newspapers to use the wire service?
telephone
telegraph
radio
Which of the following is not a reason why soft news has become so prevalent?
Journalists feel they need to demonstrate their independence from politicians.
Soft news is more profitable than hard news.
Newspapers have lowered their standards to attract young journalists.
Americans are generally uninterested in fact-based, in-depth news.
Under a responsible parties system, an incumbent candidate for a political party is judged by voters based on
the prevailing macroeconomic conditions at the time of the election.
whether he or she achieves the objectives set forth in his or her party’s platform.
whether voters consider her party trustworthy and honest.
candidate characteristics, such as personal integrity and perceived loyalty her party.
A party platform is:
a set of objectives outlining the party’s issue positions and priorities, which candidates are required to support.
a set of objectives outlining the party’s issue positions and priorities, which candidates are not required to support.
a nationwide media strategy meant to announce the party’s issue positions and priorities.
a local or statewide media strategy meant to announce the party’s issue positions and priorities.
During times of divided government, which party is said to be the party in power?
the president’s party
the majority party in the House
the majority party in the Senate
the majority party across the House and Senate
Duverger’s law states that in a democracy with _____ and _____, only two parties’ candidates will have a realistic chance of winning political office
single-member districts; majoritarian voting
multimember districts; majoritarian voting
single-member districts, plurality voting
multimember districts, plurality voting
A political machine is an unofficial patronage system within a political party that seeks to gain political power and government contracts, jobs, and other benefits for whom?
party leaders
opposition party leaders
party workers and supporters
A and C
There have been six party systems in American history. The term “party system” describes periods in which:
one party dominates all others.
the major parties’ names, their groups of supporters, and the issues dividing them are all constant.
the majority of Americans do not profess loyalty to any party.
no one party has an electoral advantage.
In a spoils system:
supporters of the winning party are rewarded.
opponents of the winning party are punished.
supporters of the losing party are rewarded if they defect to the winning party.
political independents are punished by the winning party.
Which of the following statements best describes a political “dealignment”?
an occasion in which the two major political parties switch their policy positions on an issue
an occasion in which state and local political parties break with their national party counterparts on an issue position
a nationwide shift in which large numbers of people move from identifying with one political party to identifying with another
a decline in the percentage of citizens who identify with one of the major parties
The party in the electorate includes:
all the citizens who identify with the party.
the politicians who were elected as candidates of the party.
any citizen who has ever voted for the party.
A and B
Unlike political action committees (PACs), 527 organizations are:
not allowed to directly endorse or oppose a candidate.
not subject to contribution limits and spending caps.
subject to contribution limits and spending caps.
A and B
Which of the following statements best describes the party principle?
A strong, well-functioning political party requires loyal party members, and party members are loyal only when they are financially invested, dues-paying members of the party.
Local political parties ought to take direction from the national party leaders in defining the party’s agenda and nominating party candidates.
A political party exists as an organization distinct from its elected officials or party leaders.
Only party members can have a say in nominating party candidates and deciding party policy preferences.
The Democratic Party of the second party system (1829–56) embodied which important innovation(s)?
It cultivated electoral support as a way of strengthening the party’s hold on power in Washington.
It built party organizations at the state and local level to mobilize citizens to support the party’s candidates.
It mobilized potential voters by emphasizing in debates and in the press the negative attributes of their political opponents.
A and B
What are attempts by elected officials to increase economic growth and reduce unemployment around election time called?
political economic cycle
election cycle
political business cycle
money primary
A citizen’s judgment of an officeholder’s job performance since the last election is called what?
prospective evaluation
retrospective evaluation
reflective election
calculated expectation
Which of the following is not a purpose of the party national conventions?
select presidential nominee
select vice-presidential nominee
select the party’s congressional leadership nominees
attract public and media attention to the party and its nominees
When candidates write their platforms, which of the following is not a factor that influences a decision?
the state or district where they are running for office
how possible it will be to enact each initiative
which interest groups have donated money to the campaign fund
how they have voted in the past
What is a nationalized election?
presidential election
congressional election
election where the turnover rate for congressional incumbents is high
election where the turnover rate for congressional incumbents is low
Which of the following is an example of wholesale politics?
writing mass newsletters to constituents
calling prominent community members in the constituency
going to coffee shops and shaking hands
driving from church to church on Sundays to meet parishioners as they leave service
Which of the following explanations for why people turn out to vote is incorrect?
Individual votes have a reasonably high likelihood of changing the election outcome, particularly if one lives in a swing state.
Voting is viewed as an obligation of citizenship.
People feel guilty for not voting.
People don’t have to collect much information on their own to make a good decision.
Money that can be used to mobilize voters on a particular issue but not for a specific candidate is called:
hard money
soft money
527 contribution
“bundled” money
If no candidate receives a majority of the electoral college votes, how is the winner determined?
the popular vote breaks the tie.
decision goes to the Supreme Court
decision goes to the U.S. Senate
decision goes to the House of Representatives
What is opposition research?
when staffers are sent to attend opponents’ events with video cameras in the hopes of recording embarrassing behavior or statements
combing through a candidate’s old voting records to find votes that contradict policy statements
using push polls to shift public perception of the candidate
using focus group interviews to determine what viewers think the opponent’s weaknesses are
How do primaries and caucuses differ?
Primaries are ballot votes for a party’s nominee, while caucuses are local meetings where party members select their party’s nominee.
Caucuses are ballot voters for a party’s nominee, while primaries are local meetings where party members select their party’s nominee.
Caucuses are held in the first half of the nomination process, while primaries are held in the second half of the nomination process.
Primaries are held in the first half of the nomination process, while caucuses are held in the second half of the nomination process.
When a voter casts an unmarked ballot, votes in some races but not others, or casts a ballot that cannot be counted, it is called:
undervote
subvote
down ballot
butterfly ballot
What is front-loading?
the practice of candidates visiting the biggest states first in the election season because they are the most important
the practice of putting the party’s convention as early as possible to set the tone for the general election
the practice of candidates campaigning for presidential nominations two to three years before the general election
the practice of states moving their primaries or caucuses to take place earlier in the nomination process
What is the difference between a referendum and an initiative?
Referenda require support from a two-thirds majority of the electorate to pass, while initiatives only require a simple majority.
Referenda require support from a simple majority of the electorate to pass, while initiatives require a two-thirds majority.
Initiatives are put on the ballot by citizens, while referenda begin in the state legislature,
Initiatives begin in the state legislature, while referenda are put on the ballot by citizens.
Which of the following is not an example of a selective incentive?
providing tote bags for donating to NPR
AAA members getting discounts at hotels
Sierra Club giving opportunities for members to go on nature walks
Mothers Against Drunk Driving assuring members that what they are doing makes society a better place
Which of the following is an example of a free rider problem?
driving along a toll road
attending public school
watching Sesame Street on PBS but not donating during the funding drives
joining the Sierra Club and enjoying clean air
What is the main difference between a political action committee (PAC) and a 527?
PACs
can give money to political candidates, while 527s can only spend money
on voter mobilization and ads that directly endorse or oppose
candidates.
PACs
can only spend money on voter mobilization or on ads that don’t
explicitly support or undermine a candidate, while 527s can give money
to political candidates.
Donations to PACs are tax-exempt, while donations to 527s are taxable.
They are the same.
What is the scholarly consensus on how much influence interest groups have?
There
is no consensus: half the studies find interest groups had an impact on
policy, while half the studies find that interest groups have almost no
influence on policy making.
They generally agree that interest groups have a lot of influence in policy making.
The topic is too difficult to study well.
They generally agree that interest groups have almost nonexistent influence on policy making.
When is an interest group most likely to be successful in effecting policy change?
when the issue is of high salience to most people, and the group’s position goes along with the preferences of the public
when the issue is of low salience to most people, and the group’s position goes along with the preferences of the public
when the issue is of low salience to most people, and the group’s position goes against the preferences of the public
when the issue is of high salience to most people, and the group’s position goes against the preferences of the public
Which of the following is not an example of interest group activity within Washington, DC?
preparing research reports on their topics of interest
providing expert testimony in congressional committee hearings
taking the U.S. government to court
building up constituency support to pressure a legislator to support a specific issue
