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Worksheets

Midterm Review level 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Useful product disposal guidelines and medical and first aid information can be found on a(n):

a)

MSDS

b)

OSHA

c)

HCS

d)

EPA

2.

Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are:

a)

antiseptics

b)

disinfectants

c)

sterilizers

d)

sanitizers

3.

State regulatory agencies include which of the following?

a)

licensing agencies

b)

boards of cosmetology

c)

health departments

d)

All answers are correct.

4.

Invasion of body tissues by disease-causeing pathogenic bacteria can result in a(n):

a)

infection

b)

antitoxin

c)

abrasion

d)

inflammation

5.

Which term means to remove all visible dirt and debris from tools, impleaments and equipment by washing with soap and water?

a)

sterilize

b)

disinfect

c)

antiseptic

d)

clean

6.

One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characterisitic are:

a)

diseases

b)

bacteria

c)

cells

d)

mintue

7.

Nonpathogenic bacteria are:

a)

harmful

b)

harmless

c)

disesase producing

d)

toxic

8.

The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is:

a)

cocci

b)

pathogenic

c)

spirilla

d)

flagellum

9.

Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the:

a)

life cycle of bacteria

b)

chemical orgin of bacteria

c)

beneficail effects

d)

surrounding environment

10.

Inflammation is characterized by which of the following?

a)

swelling

b)

pain

c)

heart

d)

All answers are correct.

11.

A sign of a bacterial infection is the presence of:

a)

lesions

b)

tissue

c)

pus

d)

blood

12.

A pimple or an abscess is an example of a:

a)

blood disease

b)

general infection

c)

daughter cell

d)

local infection

13.

A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called:

a)

characteristic

b)

communicable

c)

communal

d)

microbial

14.

A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a:

a)

bacteria

b)

parasite

c)

virus

d)

contaminant

15.

Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called:

a)

positive pathogens

b)

acquired pathogens

c)

inculation pathogens

d)

bloodbone pathogens

16.

A disease caused by a bloodborne virus that causes liver damage is:

a)

hepatitis

b)

tuberculosis

c)

pneumonia

d)

blood posisoning

17.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the virus that causes:

a)

MRSA

b)

AIDS

c)

hepaitis

d)

HPV

18.

Which fungus affects plants or grows on inanimate objects but does not cause human infections in the salon?

a)

tinea babae

b)

staph

c)

mildew

d)

tinea pedis

19.

The most frequently encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is:

a)

tinea pedis

b)

tinea barbae

c)

tinea capitis

d)

barber's itch

20.

Organisms that grow, feed and find shelter on or in a host organism are called:

a)

fungi

b)

fumigations

c)

parasites

d)

pathogens

21.

A contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite is:

a)

scabies

b)

head lice

c)

pediculosis

d)

barber's itch

22.

The type of immunity that the body develops after overcoming a disease or through inoculations is:

a)

natural immunity

b)

natural healing

c)

acquired immunity

d)

acquired resistance

23.

A reaction due to extreme sensitivity to certain foods, chemicals, or other normally harmless substance is an:

a)

allergy

b)

infection

c)

disease

d)

parasite

24.

The term describing the effectiveness with which a disinfecting solution kills germs when used according to the label instructions is:

a)

effects

b)

concentration

c)

efficacy

d)

disinfection

25.

A safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats,is:

a)

quarter antiseptic solution

b)

quaternary-based compounds

c)

phenolic quaternary agents

d)

quaternary ammonium compounds

26.

Which of the following is a drawback to using phenolic disinfectants?

a)

can cause some metals to rust

b)

can damage plastic and rubber

c)

are known carcinogens

d)

All answers are correct.

27.

Sodium hypochlorite is the chemical name for:

a)

phenols

b)

bleach

c)

baking soda

d)

soap

28.

Which of the following is an example for a multi-use item?

a)

wooden sticks

b)

nippers

c)

gauze

d)

All answers are correct.

29.

Single-use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be:

a)

discarded

b)

washed

c)

stored

d)

immersed

30.

When hand washing it,is important to rub hands together for a minimum of how long?

a)

20 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

1 minute

d)

2 minute

31.

If an exposure incident should, occur, discard all disposable contaminated objects in a:

a)

trash bag

b)

contaminated wasted container

c)

paper towel

d)

trash can

32.

The basic unit of all living things is:

a)

bacteria

b)

cells

c)

plasma

d)

blood

33.

The protoplasm of a cell that surrounds the nucleus is the:

a)

cell membrane

b)

self-repair-fluid

c)

mitosis

d)

cytoplasms

34.

The chemical process in living organisms whereby cells are nourished and carry out their activities is:

a)

mitosis

b)

division

c)

metabolism

d)

reproduction

35.

The phase of metabolism that involves the breaking down of complex compounds within cells into

a)

catabolism

b)

anabolism

c)

cell divison

d)

mitosis

36.

The tissue that binds together, protects and supports parts of the body is:

a)

nerve tissue

b)

connective tissue

c)

epithelial tissue

d)

muscule tissue

37.

Structures composed of specialized tissues designed to perform specific functions in plants and animals are:

a)

cells

b)

hormones

c)

organs

d)

neurons

38.

The physical foundation of the body consisting of bones connected by joints is the:

a)

nervous system

b)

skeletal system

c)

muscular system

d)

endocrine system

39.

The bones that forms the back of the skull above the nape is the:

a)

temporal

b)

mandible

c)

occipital

d)

frontal

40.

The bones that forms the forehead is the:

a)

parietal

b)

frontal

c)

occipital

d)

hyoid

41.

Two bones that form the sides if the head in the ear region are the:

a)

temporal bones

b)

parietal bones

c)

frontal bones

d)

occipital bones

42.

The bone that joins all of the bones of the cranium together is the:

a)

ethmoid bone

b)

parietal bone

c)

malar bone

d)

sphenoid bone

43.

The cheekbones are also called the malar bones or:

a)

hyoid bones

b)

lacrimal bones

c)

ethmoid bones

d)

zygomatic bones

44.

The elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the:

a)

ribs

b)

thorax

c)

scapula

d)

clavivle

45.

The uppermost and largest bone of the arm, extending from the elbow to the shoulder is the:

a)

hyoid

b)

humerus

c)

ulna

d)

carpus

46.

The inner and larger bone of the forearm, attached at the wrist and located on the side of the little finger, is the:

a)

humerus

b)

carpus

c)

ulna

d)

radius

47.

The bones in the fingers or digits are called:

a)

phalanges

b)

metacarpus

c)

scapula

d)

carpus

48.

The heavy, long bone that forms the leg above the knee is called the:

a)

femur

b)

tibia

c)

fibula

d)

patella

49.

Muscles that are attached to the bones and are voluntary or consciously controlled are:

a)

nonstriated muscles

b)

striated muscles

c)

cardiac muscles

d)

insertion muscles

50.

The part of the muscle at the movable attachment to the skeleton is the:

a)

ligament

b)

tendon

c)

insertion

d)

origin

51.

Pressure in massage is usually directed from the:

a)

insertion to beginning

b)

insertion to the orgin

c)

origin to the insertion

d)

front to sides

52.

The muscle of the scalp that raises the eyebrows, draws the scalp forward, and causes wrinkles across the forehead is the:

a)

occipitalis

b)

masseter

c)

temporlis

d)

frontails

53.

The muscle of the neck that lowers and rotates the head is the:

a)

sternocleidomastoideus

b)

temporalis

c)

masseter

d)

aponeurosis

54.

The ring muscles of the eye socket that enables you to close your eyes is the:

a)

temporal oculi

b)

corrugator muscle

c)

orbicularis oculi

d)

latissimus dorsi

55.

The muscle that covers the back of the neck and upper and middle region of the back is the:

a)

corrugator muscle

b)

pectoralis minor

c)

latissimus dorsi

d)

trapezius

56.

The muscle that draws the eyebrow down and wrinkles the forehead vertically is the:

a)

corrugator muscle

b)

masseter muscle

c)

orbicularis oculi muscle

d)

epicranius muscle

57.

Extensor muscles that turn the hand inward so the palm faces downward are:

a)

flexors

b)

supinators

c)

pronators

d)

extensors

58.

Muscles that separate the fingers are:

a)

abductors

b)

pronators

c)

adductors

d)

extensors

59.

The nervous system as a whole is divied into how many main subdivisions?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

60.

The nervous system the controls the voluntary functions of the five senses is the:

a)

peripheral

b)

autonomic

c)

central

d)

voluntry

61.

The largest and most complex nerve tissue of the body is the:

a)

spinal cord

b)

neurons

c)

brain

d)

axon

62.

A lower, thick-walled chamber of the heart is the:

a)

atrium

b)

mitral valve

c)

ventricle

d)

pericardium

63.

Thin-walled blood vessels that are less elastic than arteries and located closer to the skin surface are:

a)

buccinators

b)

capillaries

c)

veins

d)

arteries

64.

Which blood componet gives blood its color?

a)

white blood cells

b)

hemoglobin

c)

plateless

d)

plasma

65.

The main arteries that supply blood to the head, neck and face are the:

a)

common carotid arteries

b)

common aorta arteries

c)

internal jugular

d)

serratus anteries

66.

Ductless glands that release secetion of homones directly into the bloodstream are:

a)

endocrine glands

b)

digestive glands

c)

exocrine glands

d)

sweat glands

67.

Insulin,adrenaline, and estrogen are examples of:

a)

digestive enzymes

b)

waste products

c)

hormones

d)

proteins

68.

Spongy tissuse composed of microscopic cells in which inhaled air is exchanged for carbon dioxide during one breathing cycle are:

a)

glands

b)

lungs

c)

pancreas

d)

integumentary system

69.

Tinea pedis is the medical term used to describe:

a)

scaling skin

b)

whitish patches on the nail

c)

athletes foot

d)

ingrown nail

70.

The stationary foundation of a curl that is also the area closest to the scalp is called the:

a)

stem

b)

base

c)

circle

d)

clip

71.

The movement or amount of mobility of a curl is determined by the:

a)

base

b)

circle

c)

stem

d)

size

72.

The type of curl that is placed completely off base and allows for the greatest mobility is the:

a)

half-stem curl

b)

base curl

c)

no-stem curl

d)

full-stem curl

73.

Pin curls that produce even, smooth wave and uniform curls are:

a)

open-center curls

b)

closed-center curls

c)

convex curls

d)

stationary curls

74.

Pin curls that produce waves that get smaller in size toward the end are:

a)

ridge curls

b)

open-center curls

c)

closed-center curls

d)

half-stem curls

75.

The most commonly shaped pin curl base is the:

a)

arc base

b)

rectangular base

c)

square base

d)

panel base

76.

Along the front hairline to prevent splits or breaks in the finished style, the recommended base to use is:

a)

triangular base

b)

square base

c)

oblong base

d)

panel base

77.

Ace pin curls are also know as half-moon or:

a)

no-stem base curls

b)

square base curls

c)

C-shape base curls

d)

S-shape base curls

78.

Forcing hair between the thumb and the back of the comb to create tension is called:

a)

sectioning

b)

sculpting

c)

bricklayer

d)

ribbonoing

79.

Pin curls sliced from a shaping and formed without lifting the hair from the head are referred to as:

a)

ridge curls

b)

carved curls

c)

alternating curls

d)

skip waves

80.

Ridge curls are pin curls placed immediately behind or below a ridge to form a:

a)

space

b)

ribbon

c)

wave

d)

curl

81.

Two rows of ridge curls on the side of the head are called:

a)

dual wavws

b)

carved curls

c)

sculptured curls

d)

skip waves

82.

Large diameter pin curls that are similar to a roller but do not have the same amount of tension are:

a)

straight curls

b)

rectangular curls

c)

open curls

d)

barrel curls

83.

The panel of the hair on which a rollers, is placed is called the:

a)

section

b)

panel

c)

base

d)

circle

84.

To create curls in the hair using rollers, the hair should be wrapped around the roller:

a)

one and half turns

b)

two and a half turns

c)

one complete turn

d)

two complete turns

85.

For a roller set where the least amount of volume is desired, rollers should be placed:

a)

completely off the base

b)

completely on the base

c)

half off base

d)

half on the base

86.

The point where curls of opposite directions meet forming a recessed area is called:

a)

Volume

b)

movement

c)

base

d)

indentation

87.

When securing a roller, one end of the clip should be under the roller and one end:

a)

invisible

b)

inside the roller

c)

angled at the scalp

d)

twisted

88.

Another term used to describe backbrushing is:

a)

backcombing

b)

matting

c)

teasing

d)

ruffing

89.

Combing small sections of hair from the ends toward the scalp to form a cushion at the base is know as:

a)

testing

b)

slicing

c)

backbrushing

d)

smoothing

90.

A styling technique used to keep curly hair smooth and straight while retaining shape is:

a)

backcombing

b)

interlocking

c)

wrapping

d)

ruffing

91.

The technique of drying and styling damp hair in one operation is:

a)

backcombing

b)

interlocking

c)

wrapping

d)

ruffing

92.

A blowdryer attachment used to accentuate or keep textural definition is a(n):

a)

concentrator

b)

nozzle

c)

diffuser

d)

element

93.

Brushes that are used to blowdry precision haircuts where little or no volume is desired are:

a)

classic styling brushes

b)

grooming brushes

c)

vent brushes

d)

round brushes

94.

Large, flat brushes with staggered pin patterns used for mid-to-longer-hair lenght are:

a)

vent brushes

b)

grooming brushes

c)

classic styling brushes

d)

paddle brushes

95.

Grooming brushes that add polish and shine to the hair have a bristle mixture consisting of:

a)

boar and nylon

b)

nylon and cotton

c)

sable and boar

d)

boar and rubber

96.

Styling foam, a light airy, whipped styling product that resembles shaving foam,is also called:

a)

texturizer

b)

straightening gel

c)

mousse

d)

liquid gel

97.

Combs that are used for thermal curling should be made of:

a)

plastic

b)

nylon blends

c)

soft metal

d)

hard rubber

98.

Hanging curls that are suitable for medium to long hairstyles are:

a)

barrel curls

b)

roll curls

c)

spiral curls

d)

flat curls

99.

When creating full-base curls, the hair should be held with medium tension at a:

a)

45-degree angle

b)

60-degree angle

c)

90-degree angle

d)

125-degree angle

100.

Curls that offer a curl option with only slight lift or volume are:

a)

full-volume curls

b)

half-base curls

c)

volume-base curls

d)

off-base curls