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AP BIO Unit 4 Communication & Cell Cycle

Total questions: 197

Worksheet time: 3hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling in animals?
a)
neurotransmitter acetylcholine
b)
hormone epinephrine
c)
neurotransmitter norepinephrine
d)
growth factor
2.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
3.
What is a G protein?
a)
specific type of membrane-receptor protein
b)
protein on the cytoplasmic side of a membrane
c)
membrane-bound enzyme
d)
relay protein
4.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
5.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
6.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
7.
What does a protein kinase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme
8.
What does a protein phosphatase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme with a signal molecule
9.
What is a phosphorylation cascade?
a)
travelling of hormones through the air
b)
travelling of hormones through the blood
c)
the removal of a phosphate
d)
a series of molecules that get phosphorylated
10.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
11.
What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?
a)
size
b)
polarity
c)
ability to cross the membrane
d)
all of these are correct
12.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
13.
What do you call it when two neurons communicate through neurotransmitters?
a)
Hormones
b)
Synapse
c)
Cholesterol
d)
Monty
14.
What is an organic compound that is made by glands in the body (pituitary, thyroid, etc) that is used in long distance communication between cells?
a)
Hormones
b)
Neurotransmitters
c)
Synapse
d)
Carbohydrates
15.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
16.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
17.
Hormones are used in ____ signaling.
a)
endocrine
b)
juxtacrine
c)
autocrine
d)
paracrine
18.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
19.
Each of the following numbered processes are involved in signal transduction pathways:  
 I.  Response  
II.  Amplification  
 III.  Reception  
IV.  Transduction
 Which of the following represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?
a)
I, II, III, IV
b)
III, I, IV, II
c)
II, IV, I, III
d)
III, IV, II, I
20.
This is an example of
a)
paracrine signaling
b)
synaptic signaling
c)
long-distance signaling
d)
all of the above
21.

What is being depicted in the image?

a)

Amplification of the signal molecule

b)

Enzymatic proteins inhibiting process of the signal transduction pathway

c)

Kinase groups adding dimer groups to other enzymes

d)

Diffusion of molecules within the cell due to the signaling molecule

22.

Which type of membrane protein would help intake a message from outside of the cell to inside of the cell?

a)

Receptor Protein

b)

Enzymatic Protein

c)

Channel Protein

d)

Junction Protein

e)

ATP Synthase

23.

Which letter represents the cell surface receptor protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

24.

Which letter represents the secondary proteins?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

25.

Which letter represents the ligand?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

26.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following molecules act as a second messenger in the cascade by which epinephrine stimulates the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase?
a)
Adenosine
b)
Adenylyl cyclase
c)
Citric acid
d)
Cyclic AMP
27.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following represents the correct ordering of the molecules that are activated by a single molecule of epinephrine, from highest number of molecules to lowest number of molecules?
a)
cAMP, protein kinase A, phosphorylase kinase, glycogen phosphorylase
b)
Glycogen phosphorylase, phosphorylase kinase, protein kinase A, cAMP
c)
cAMP, phosphorylase kinase, glycogen phosphorylase, protein kinase A
d)
Glycogen phosphorylase, cAMP, protein kinase A, phosphorylase kinase
28.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following would likely not be observed in a person injected with epinephrine?
a)
Decreased production of cAMP in liver cells
b)
Inactivation of glycogen synthase
c)
Increased glucose mobilization
d)
Activation of G proteins
29.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following best describes a benefit of the many steps involved in a protein kinase cascade?
a)
It allows for the activation or inhibition of many enzymes.
b)
It allows for the amplification of the signal.
c)
It allows for the distribution of the signal throughout the inside of the cell.
d)
 All of the above.
30.
G proteins are a family of proteins involved in transmitting chemical signals originating from outside a cell into the inside of the cell. G proteins function as molecular switches.
Which of the following best describes the role in which the G protein is most intimately involved in the process shown above?
a)
Production of the ligand molecule.
b)
Reception of the signal.
c)
Transduction of the signal.
d)
Production of response to signal.
31.
G proteins are a family of proteins involved in transmitting chemical signals originating from outside a cell into the inside of the cell. G proteins function as molecular switches.
Investigations into the causes behind symptoms in Alzheimer’s patients have led to the hypothesis that the disease may be caused by excessive activity of IP3 second messengers in brain cells. When comparing cell samples of Alzheimer’s patients to those taken from the control group, which of the following pieces of evidence would support this hypothesis?
a)
A lower number of receptor proteins in the Alzheimer cell samples.
b)
A greater volume of endoplasmic reticulum membrane in the control group cell samples.
c)
A higher concentration of calcium ions in the cytosol of the Alzheimer cell samples.
d)
A lower number of activated proteins in the cytosol of the Alzheimer cell samples
32.
The term steroid describes both hormones produced by the body and artificially produced medications that duplicate the action for the naturally occurring steroids. All of the following describe steroid hormones EXCEPT:
a)
A.  They bind with receptor proteins in the plasma membrane to trigger cellular responses.
b)
A.  They are derived from cholesterol and are lipid soluble.
c)
They serve as ligands in signal transduction pathways
d)
A.  They are exemplified by testosterone, estrogen and progesterone
33.
Cell signaling involves converting extracellular signals to specific responses inside the target cell. Which of the following best describes how a cell initially responds to a signal?
a)
The cell experiences a change in receptor conformation
b)
The cell experiences an influx of ions
c)
The cell experiences an increase in protein kinase activity
d)
The cell experiences G protein activation
34.
Which areas in the diagram depict the process of transduction in the signal transduction pathway of cell communication?
a)
Q and R
b)
Q and U
c)
S and T
d)
T and U
35.

What form of communication is used to communicate from one cell to another cell with no distance?

a)

Antigen Presenting Cell

b)

Local Regulator

c)

Hormone

d)

Metabolic Pathways

36.

What form of communication is used to communicate from one cell to multiple cells that might have a longer distance?

a)

Antigen Presenting Cell

b)

Local Regulator

c)

Hormone

d)

Metabolic Pathways

37.
What is D pointing at?
a)
Phospholipid bilayer
b)
Cholesterol
c)
Transmembranic Protein
d)
Peripheral Protein
38.
What is E pointing at?
a)
Phospholipid Bilayer
b)
Cholesterol
c)
Transmembranic Protein
d)
Peripheral Protein
39.
What is F pointing at?
a)
Phospholipid bilayer
b)
Cholesterol
c)
Transmembranic Protein
d)
Peripheral Protein
40.
What is A pointing at?
a)
Phospholipid bilayer
b)
Cholesterol
c)
Transmembranic Protein
d)
Peripheral Protein
41.

Which term refers to cells signaling to themselves?

a)

Paracrine

b)

Autocrine

c)

Endocrine

d)

Somatricine

42.

type of cell signalling in which the cells are in direct contact with each other

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

43.
At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and function of several organ systems, primarily under the influence of changing concentrations of estrogens and other steroid hormones. How can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many effects?
a)
Estrogen is produced in very large concentration and therefore diffuses widely.
b)
Estrogen binds to specific receptors inside many kinds of cells, each of which have different responses to its binding.
c)
The subcomponents of estrogen, when metabolized, can influence cell response.
d)
Estrogen is kept away from the surface of any cells not able to bind it at the surface.
44.

What is 'C' labeling? (See image)

a)

G protein

b)

Adenylyl Cyclase

c)

Kinase

d)

ATP

45.

Name the structure labeled 'B' (see image)

a)

Post synaptic terminal

b)

Receptor

c)

Ligand

d)

Neurotransmitter

46.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
G-protein receptor
b)
tyrosine kinase receptor
c)
gated ion channel
47.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
 tyrosine kinase receptor
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
gated ion channel
48.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
negative
b)
neutral 
c)
positive
49.
What type of feedback loop is shown?
a)
Positive
b)
Neutral
c)
Negative
50.

There are three stages in cell signaling. Which is NOT one of them?

a)

Response

b)

Reception

c)

Translocation

d)

Transduction

51.

What is the term for any chemical signal that binds to another substance (often a larger one)?

a)

Ligand particle

b)

Shmoo particle

c)

Alpha particle

d)

Protein particle

52.

What part of the neuron contains the neurotransmitter?

a)

axon

b)

axon terminal

c)

dendrite

d)

synapse

53.

Which molecule would increase in quantity if the Anterior Pituitary stops functioning?

a)

Thyroxine

b)

TSH

c)

TRH

d)

inhibition

54.

If both unicellular and multicellular organisms utilize similar cell communication methods, this suggests

a)

that they're awesome

b)

they're un-related

c)

they come from a common ancestor

d)

they do not share evolutionary history

55.

Which of the following causes apples to ripen?

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

ethylene gas

c)

influx of calcium

d)

pathogen

56.

cell that takes pieces of eaten pathogen from macrophage and displays them to be recognized

a)

APC

b)

helper T

c)

B cell

57.

recognizes the shape of APC

a)

APC

b)

Helper T

c)

B Cell

58.

How do bacteria sense local population density?

a)

quorum sensing

b)

bacteria sensing

c)

signal sensing

d)

population sensing

59.

The nasty on your teeth in the morning is an example of what?

a)

biofilm

b)

saliva

c)

dry toothpaste residue

d)

bacterial hormomes

60.

Name the two main second messengers.

a)

cAMP

b)

GTP

c)

Calcium ions

d)

ligands

61.

What word means programmed cell death?

a)

apoptosis

b)

mitosis

c)

Ced-9

d)

bleb

62.

Cyclins are small proteins that bind to and activate CDK enzymes during the process of:

a)

endocytosis

b)

cell respiration

c)

osmosis

d)

mitosis

63.

Cells can communicate with one another via:

a)

chemical messengers

b)

hormones

c)

gap junctions

d)

all of these

64.

Does DNA replicate before or after cell replication?

a)

before the cell divides

b)

after the cell divides

65.

G1 is associated with what event?

a)

doubling of cell content

b)

DNA replication

c)

The beginning of mitosis

d)

breakdown of the nuclear membrane

66.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
67.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
68.

A feedback loop best fits which characteristic of life?

a)

Cells

b)

Organization

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Adaptation

69.

According to the feedback loop, what does high blood sugar promote?

a)

Insulin Release

b)

Glucagon Release

c)

Insulin Uptake

d)

Glycogen Uptake

70.
When you get cut, your skin cells release hormones that signal platelets to come and stop the bleeding. Platelets then release more hormones that signal even more platelets to help stop bleeding. The hormone signals continue until the cut is closed.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
71.
As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump. Your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to normal level.
a)
Positive Feedback Response
b)
Negative Feedback Loop 
72.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
gated ion channel
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
tyrosine kinase receptor
73.
Which of the following correctly describes the reception stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
protein kinases phosphoylate molecules
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
74.

A series of chemical reactions that relay chemical message inside the cell; may amplify the signal

a)

reception

b)

transduction

c)

response

d)

activation

75.

the change in cell activity that results from the binding of the ligand to the receptor

a)

reception

b)

transduction

c)

integration

d)

response

76.

type of cell signalling where the ligand is produced at a location distant from its target cell(s)

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

77.

type of cell signalling where the ligand is released and will affect cells in its "neighborhood"

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

78.

type of cell signalling in which the cells are in direct contact with each other

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

79.

Neurons release acetylcholine (ACh) into the gap between the nerve cell and a muscle cell. ACh then binds to receptors in the muscle cell membrane, resulting in the release of Ca2+ from the smooth ER

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

80.

Glucagon, released from the pancreas, attaches to receptors in the liver, resulting in the breakdown of glycogen stores and an increase in blood sugar

a)

autocrine signalling

b)

juxtacrine signalling

c)

paracrine signalling

d)

endocrine signalling

81.

An example of LOCAL cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

82.

An example of DIRECT cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

83.

What is 'D' labeling? (See image)

a)

Alpha subunit

b)

Glycogen

c)

Kinase

d)

ATP

84.

cAMP is considered a "secondary messenger" which takes the original message (from the ligand) and _____________.

a)

amplifies it (spreads/grows it)

b)

shuts it off

c)

simply transfers the message to one kinase molecule

85.

An example of DISTANCE cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

86.

What turns on proteins by adding a phosphate?

a)

kinase

b)

phosphatase

c)

phosphorylase

d)

ATPase

87.

What turns off proteins by removing a phosphate?

a)

kinase

b)

phosphatase

c)

phosphorylase

d)

ATPase

88.

What is the amplification of a series of kinases called?

a)

phosphorylation cascade

b)

kinase cascade

c)

phosphatase cascade

d)

ATPase cascade

89.

What creates cAMP by converting ATP to cAMP?

a)

adenylyl cyclase

b)

cAMP synthase

c)

ATP phosphatase

d)

cAMP kinase

90.

The final activated molecule in a signaling pathway may function as a what?

a)

transcription factor

b)

second messenger

c)

kinase

d)

phosphatase

91.

What word means “to make more of” when talking about signal molecules?

a)

amplify

b)

spotify

c)

phosphorylate

d)

augment

92.

One signal molecule can yield different results based on which receptor receives it.

a)

true

b)

false

93.

Which of our body parts would be webbed if it weren’t for apoptosis?

a)

head

b)

hands/feet

c)

arms/legs

d)

butt

94.
Plant cells have ___ for cell to cell communication.
a)
gap junctions
b)
plasmodesmata
c)
desmosomes
d)
tight junctions
95.

What cell signaling compound is shown in the figure to provide short-distance communication, affecting nearby cells in the same tissue or area?

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine

c)

apoptosis

d)

hormone

96.

Cells can communicate with one another via:

a)

chemical messengers

b)

hormones

c)

gap junctions

d)

all of these

97.

All types of cell communication have the same effectiveness (Ex: speed/distance).

a)

True

b)

False

98.

CDKs:

a)

regulate the timings of cell cycle phases

b)

regulate metabolic reactions

c)

stimulate leukocytes

d)

activate lysosomes

99.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
100.
sequence
a)
C,D, B, A, F, E
b)
D,A,F,C,E,B
c)
B,E,C,F,A,D
d)
C,B,D,A E,F
101.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
102.
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids line up on the equator of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
103.
In which phase of mitosis does the nucleus disappear, centrioles move to the poles, and chromosomes condense into sister chromatids?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
104.
Why do cells go through cell division
a)
Growth
b)
Reproduction
c)
Repair
d)
All of the above
105.
Which of the following phrases best describes cytokenesis
a)
division of the cytoplasm
b)
division of the nucleus
c)
division of DNA
d)
division of surface area
106.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
107.
Chromosomes and genes are replicated during
a)
prophase
b)
telophase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
108.

Select ALL stages of Interphase

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

109.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the DNA replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

110.

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The chromosomes begin to form and nuclear membrane disappears.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

111.

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

112.

How many chromosomes do human somatic cells (body cells) have?

a)

23

b)

48

c)

46

d)

92

113.

When you start with 1 cell, at the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

114.

After mitosis is complete, the new cells:

a)

are all identical

b)

are half identical and half different

c)

are all different

d)

are all stretched out

115.
Place these cells in order of mitosis.
a)
A, B, C, D, E
b)
B, E, D, A, C
c)
C, E, A, D, B
d)
B, D, A, E, C
116.

The three stages of the cell cycle are __________, mitosis, and

cytokinesis.

a)

interphase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

117.

Identical cells formed during cell division are called:

a)

daughter organelles

b)

daughter cycles

c)

daughter nucleus

d)

daughter cells

118.

The phase of mitosis where the nuclear membrane forms

is called ________ .

a)

anaphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

119.

The first phase of mitosis is called _______________ .

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

120.

The final stage of the cell cycle is called:

a)

Interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokinesis

d)

daughter cells

121.

The stage of mitosis where the sister chromatids separate:

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

122.

A copy a chromosome made during cell division are called:

a)

daughter chromatids

b)

sister chromatids

c)

cell chromatids

d)

sister chromosome

123.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
124.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
125.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
126.
True or False. 
After a cell goes through cytokinesis, it starts mitosis all over again.
a)
True
b)
False
127.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
128.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
129.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
130.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
131.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
132.
During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
133.
During which part of the cell cycle does the cell divide?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
S phase
134.
During which part of the cell cycle is DNA copied?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
S phase
135.
During which parts of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 and G2
b)
G1 and S
c)
M phase and cytokinesis
136.
Which phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
137.
What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
a)
To create new daughter cells
b)
To prevent cancer from developing
c)
To help the body fight viruses and bacteria
138.

Uncontrolled cell division which usually leads to tumors and disease is called:

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Cancer

d)

Diabetes

139.

Which type of cell divides most frequently?

a)

Liver cell

b)

Skin cell

c)

Blood cell

d)

Nerve cell

140.

Which of these cells divides the least?

a)

Liver cell

b)

Skin cell

c)

Blood cell

141.

Which of these cells never divides?

a)

Skin cell

b)

Liver cell

c)

Nerve cell

d)

Blood cell

142.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
143.
During what phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
S phase
d)
G2 phase
144.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
145.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
146.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
147.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
148.
Put the following in order: G2, G1, S, mitosis, cytokinesis. 
a)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
c)
G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
d)
G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
149.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
150.
DNA will condense into...
a)
Centromeres
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Nuclei
d)
Spindle fibers
151.
Structure A refers to the _____.
a)
chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
152.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
153.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
154.

Mitosis in animals creates which kind of cells

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

c)

Gametes

d)

Somatic

155.

If a cell has 20 chromosomes and under goes mitosis twelve times how many chromosomes will the daughter cell have?I

a)

20

b)

40

c)

240

d)

10

156.
The cell carries out normal functions during..
a)
interphase
b)
cytokinesis
c)
mitosis
157.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
158.
Which of the following statements is true of cytokinesis
a)
takes place in plant cells only
b)
completes the cell cycle
c)
organizes DNA
d)
occurs in prophase
159.
Which of the following is NOT a reason we need mitosis.
a)
Growth
b)
Recovering from injuries
c)
Replacement of dead cells
d)
Sexual reproduction
160.
How does mitosis in plant cells differ from mitosis in animal cells?
a)
animal cells form a cell plate
b)
plant cells form a cell plate
c)
plant cells go through the process in reverse
d)
plant cells go through two rounds of mitosis while animal cells just do one
161.

What two components make an active MPF

a)

a growth factor and a mitotic factor

b)

ATP synthetase and a protease

c)

cyclin and tubulin

d)

cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase

162.

Endocrine glands secrete _

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

A wide range of chemical substances

163.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

It creates chemicals, or hormones, that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

b)

It creates electrical messages that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

c)

It maintains the correct level of oxygen in the body to maintain homeostasis.

d)

It releases waste from the body to maintain homeostasis.

164.

Feedback loops are important because they allow organisms and the environment to

a)

change based on new inputs

b)

fall apart

c)

change based on new outputs

d)

maintain balance

165.
The hormone that lowers blood sugar is:
a)
Insulin
b)
Glucagon
c)
Cortisol
d)
GnRH
166.
Hormones that enter cells directly to cause changes are usually:
a)
Steroids
b)
Proteins
167.
The second messenger produced by the action of many protein hormones is:
a)
cAMP
b)
Adenylate Cyclase
c)
G-Protein
d)
Epinephrine
168.

What hormone is responsible for the "fight or flight" response?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Parathyroid Hormone

169.
Cells that ingest pathogens are
a)
plasma cells
b)
phagocytic cells
c)
helper T cells
d)
antibodies
170.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
171.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
172.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
173.
During which checkpoint does the cell check to make sure the DNA is copied correctly.
a)
G2 Checkpoint
b)
G1 Checkpoint
c)
Interphase Checkpoint
d)
Metaphase Checkpoint
174.
Time period between cell divisions.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Interphase
175.
During which checkpoint does the cell check its surroundings to determine if the cell is healthy enough to move to the next phase?
a)
G2 Checkpoint
b)
Metaphase Checkpoint
c)
Cytokinesis Checkpoint
d)
G1 Checkpoint
176.
During which checkpoint does the cell check to make sure the chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle fibers.
a)
G2 Checkpoint
b)
G1 Checkpoint
c)
Metaphase Checkpoint
d)
Nucleus Checkpoint
177.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
178.

Which of the following would NOT result in the inhibition of this pathway?

a)

A change in the shape of the receptor

b)

The presence of a competitive ligand

c)

Increase in hormone concentration

d)

Loss of second messenger production

179.

Which part of the signaling pathway could consist of protein modification, second messenger production, amplification or a phosphorylation cascade?

a)

Reception

b)

Transduction

c)

Response

d)

All of these

180.

The B-adrenergic receptor is important because...

a)

It serves as the only ligand receptor

b)

It produces a secondary messenger

c)

It is the ligand that activates the pathway

d)

It is the target molecule that stimulates gene expression

181.

If MNK1 remained in its active state permanently, what would be the result?

a)

c-Myc would be unable to translate growth genes

b)

Cell growth and division will stop

c)

The phosphorylation cascade will stop

d)

Cell division will increase, leading to tumor formation

182.

When GAP is unable to release a phosphate, what result occurs?

a)

Genes that lead to cancer are activated

b)

Normal signaling continues

c)

GTP is activated by GEF

d)

Genes that lead to tumor suppression are activated

183.

Which of these explains why this pathway involves a negative feedback loop in a normal cell?

a)

As ERK increases, it inhibits RAS, stopping transduction

b)

As ERK increases, it increases RAS, continuing transduction

c)

Grb2 is removed from the receptor, stopping transduction

d)

RAS mutates, causing signal transduction to stop

184.

This type of cell signaling will only be effective...

a)

over long distances (endocrine)

b)

when cells are in direct contact (juxtacrine)

c)

when responding to its own ligands (autocrine)

d)

if cells are nearby (paracrine)

185.

Which receptor is responsible for the signaling pathway that leads to apoptosis?

a)

Delta/Serrate/Lag-2

b)

Frizzled

c)

TGF-B RI/RII

d)

Ptch

186.

Which of these is an accurate response to increased glucose levels in the blood?

a)

Alpha cells release glucagon from the pancreas

b)

Liver breaks down glycogen and releases glucose

c)

Blood glucose levels rise back to homeostatic levels

d)

Beta cells in the pancreas release insulin

187.

Which phase of mitosis occurred between panels C and D?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Synthesis

d)

Anaphase

188.

In what phase of mitosis is this cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

189.

Which of these graphs represents the amount of DNA present in a normal cell throughout the cell cycle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

190.

p53 is a gene that codes for a CDK inhibitor that slows the cell cycle. What would be the result of a mutation in the p53 gene?

a)

No cell division

b)

Decreased CDK/Cyclin complexes

c)

Activated DNA repair

d)

Tumor formation

191.

Which of the following is NOT a result of a cell unable to perform apoptosis?

a)

Increased health and fitness due to the removal of the cellular death process

b)

Continued growth of cancerous cells

c)

Potential for additional, unnecessary tissues

d)

Proliferation of cells infected with a virus in spite of immune response

192.

If ATP were unavailable, what would be the effect on this pathway?

a)

Protein kinase A would not be produced

b)

GDP would not bind to the transmembrane protein

c)

The hormone would not bind to the transmembrane protein

d)

The secondary messenger would not be produced

193.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
194.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
195.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
196.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
197.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase

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