wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

2nd Half Book Test

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 5hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Goblet cells secrete:

a)

HCl

b)

Mucus

c)

Enzymes

d)

Amylase

2.

Which type of teeth is mainly involved in grinding of food?

a)

Molars

b)

Canines

c)

Incisors

d)

Pre-Molars

3.

Respiratory surface in humans is:

a)

One cell thick

b)

Two cell thick

c)

Three cell thick

d)

Four cell thick

4.

If a person is dehydrated, then which of the following will be stimulated to produce ADH?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Adrenal cortex

c)

Posterior Pituitary

d)

Anterior Pituitary

5.

Stimulation of parasympathetic nervous system will cause:

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Increased blood flow to limbs

c)

Decreased heart rate

d)

Dilation of pupil

6.

During Parkinson’s disease, which of the following is not observed:

a)

Involuntary tremors

b)

Rigidity in limbs

c)

Defective mental faculties

d)

Postural instability

7.

Testosterone production in males starts:

a)

Before birth

b)

After birth

c)

Before puberty

d)

After puberty

8.

The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to formation of sperm in a mature human testis is:

a)

Spermatogonia-spermatid-spermatocyte-sperm

b)

Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid-sperm

c)

Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid-sperm

d)

Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia-sperm

9.

Uterus gains maximum thickness during:

a)

Secretory phase

b)

Menstrual phase

c)

Proliferative phase

d)

Ovulatory phase

10.

It is a dense connective tissue that surrounds entire muscle:

a)

Tendon

b)

Ligament

c)

Epimysium

d)

Perimysium

11.

According to sliding filament theory, when muscle fibers are stimulated by nervous system, which of the following changes occurs?

a)

I-bands shorten

b)

H-zone becomes more visible

c)

Z-lines move further apart

d)

A-bands broaden

12.

During Addison’s disease:

a)

MSH and cortical hormones increases

b)

MSH and cortical hormones decreases

c)

MSH increases, cortical hormones decreases

d)

MSH decreases, cortical hormones increases

13.

Which of the following hormone is an amino acid derivative?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Acytylcholine

d)

ADH

14.

Tricuspid valve allows flow of blood from:

a)

Right atrium to right ventricle

b)

Right ventricle to right atrium

c)

Left atrium to left ventricle

d)

Left ventricle to left atrium

15.

Skin and mucous membranes are part of the body defense system and they form:

a)

Physical barriers

b)

Mechanical barriers

c)

Chemical barriers

d)

Biological barriers

16.

Which of these structures is formed from mesoderm?

a)

Intestinal lining

b)

Skin

c)

Brain

d)

Muscles

17.

A function that is made possible only by stomach in alimentary canal is:

a)

Mechanical digestion

b)

Chemical digestion

c)

Storage & absorption

d)

Discontinuous feeding

18.

Which of the following is bone dissolving cell?

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteoclast

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Chondrocyte

19.

This is not a sex linked disease:

a)

Hypophosphatemic rickets

b)

Tritanopia

c)

Haemophilia B

d)

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

20.

Antibodies are produced by:

a)

B-Lymphocytes

b)

T lymphocytes

c)

Helper T lymphocytes

d)

Plasma cells

21.

Random, uncontrolled activity of some cells in the brain leading to chaotic activity in both sensory and motor nerves causes patients of _______________ to see and hear different strange things.

a)

Epilepsy

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Huntington’s disease

22.

Part of hind brain responsible for the balance and equilibrium of body is called:

a)

Medulla

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Pons

d)

Thalamus

23.

Decrease of FSH and increase of estrogen cause pituitary gland to secrete:

a)

Somatotropin

b)

Luteinizing Hormone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Spermatogonium

24.

Longest bone in the human skeleton is:

a)

Ulna

b)

Fibula

c)

Tibia

d)

Femur

25.

In pelvic region of human body, sacrum is formed by the fusion of:

a)

4 vertebrae

b)

5 vertebrae

c)

6 vertebrae

d)

3 vertebrae

26.

___________ hormones are called fight and flight hormones as they prepare an organism to face stressful situation.

a)

Adrenalin, Nor-adrenalin

b)

Aldosterone, ADH

c)

Acetylcholine, Dopamine

d)

Insulin, Glucagon

27.

The type of immunity in which antibodies are passed from one individual to another is called:

a)

Passive immunity

b)

Artificial active immunity

c)

Natural active immunity

d)

Humoral immunity

28.

In antibody molecule, two heavy and two light chains are bonded by:

a)

Disulphide bond

b)

Monosulphide bond

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Ionic bond

29.

Food enters from stomach into small intestine through:

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Cardiac sphincter

c)

Semilunar valve

d)

Diaphragm

30.

____________ are the part of gastric gland which produce hydrochloric acid.

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Goblet cells

c)

Chief cells

d)

Zymogen cells

31.

Chordae tendineae are fibrous cords attached with:

a)

Cardiac end of stomach valve

b)

Tricuspid valve of heart

c)

Pyloric sphincter of stomach

d)

Eye lid

32.

Bicuspid valve controls the flow of blood from:

a)

Right atrium to right ventricle

b)

Right ventricle to pulmonary artery

c)

Left ventricle of aorta

d)

Left atrium to left ventricle

33.

Carboxyhaemoglobin (10-20%) is formed when CO2 combines with:

a)

Amino group of haemoglobin

b)

Iron part of haemoglobin

c)

Haem portion of haemoglobin

d)

Plasma proteins

34.

Restriction endonucleases cleave the ___________ of duplex DNA.

a)

Nitrogenous base

b)

Pentose sugar

c)

Phosphodiester bond

d)

Hydrogen bond

35.

Liver is not involved in synthesis of:

a)

Prothrombin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Albumin

d)

Renin

36.

Which of the following blood vessels will have more urea as compared to others?

a)

Hepatic artery

b)

Hepatic vein

c)

Hepatic portal vein

d)

Renal vein

37.

Following is not a part of male reproductive system:

a)

Ureter

b)

Urethra

c)

Epididymis

d)

Ejaculatory duct

38.

Site for attachment of calcium ions is present on:

a)

Actin

b)

Troponin

c)

Myosin

d)

Tropomyosin

39.

These muscles are striated and involuntary:

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Gut smooth

d)

Vascular smooth

40.

Strictly speaking, immune system is composed of:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

WBCs

41.

First part of large intestine is

a)

Caecum

b)

Colon

c)

Rectum

d)

Appendix

42.

Gill pouches in vertebrates represent

a)

Convergent evolution

b)

Divergent evolution

c)

Both “A” and “B”

d)

None of these

43.

For evolution, the important requirement is

a)

Variations

b)

Natural selection

c)

Adaptations

d)

Developmental anatomy

44.

Epithelial cells of villi are constantly replaced by cells produced in

a)

Microvilli

b)

Lacteals

c)

Crypts

d)

Ileocolic mucosa

45.

Erypsin acts on ________ to convert it into _______

a)

Polypeptides, Peptones

b)

Dipeptides, Amino acids

c)

Amino acids, dipeptides

d)

Proteins, Polypeptides

46.

Larger dust particles are entrapped in

a)

Hair and mucus of nasal cavities

b)

Hair and mucus of trachea

c)

Mucus of alveoli

d)

Mucus and hair of pharynx

47.

Bronchioles are mainly made up of

a)

Circular skeletal muscles

b)

Circular smooth muscles

c)

Cartilaginous plates

d)

Cartilaginous rings

48.

Total percentage of all blood cells out of whole blood is

a)

45%

b)

55%

c)

90%

d)

10%

49.

Which component of blood plasma is very important to maintain pH of blood?

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Organic nutrients

c)

Inorganic ions and minerals

d)

Nitrogenous wastes

50.

Which of the following organic nutrient is usually not present in blood?

a)

Glucose

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Glycogen

d)

Amino acids

51.

Phagocytes includes

a)

Neutrophils and macrophages

b)

Neutrophils and lymphocytes

c)

Lymphocytes and eosinophils

d)

Basophils and platelets

52.

Antibodies will destroy bacteria by

a)

Neutralizing toxins produced by them

b)

Speeding up their phagocytosis

c)

By producing antitoxins

d)

Speeding up their cell division

53.

Vaccination is type of

a)

Naturally induced active immunity

b)

Artificially induced active immunity

c)

Naturally induced passive immunity

d)

Artificially induced passive immunity

54.

Passive immunity is

a)

Slow acting but long-lived

b)

Fast acting but short-lived

c)

Fast acting and long-lived

d)

Slow acting and short-lived

55.

Gonads in human males

a)

Are protected by scrotum

b)

Present inside body cavity

c)

Produce FSH

d)

Consist of follicles

56.

Function of sertoli cells is to

a)

Produce testosterone

b)

Help in meiosis

c)

Provide fluid for nourishment of sperms

d)

Regulate sperm ejaculation

57.

Epididymis is actually

a)

Proximal straight part of vas deferens

b)

Convoluted seminiferous tubules

c)

Distal convoluted part of vas deferens

d)

Proximal convoluted part of vas deferens

58.

Ovum after fertilization enters into

a)

Uterus

b)

Oviduct

c)

Ovary

d)

Vagina

59.

Collagen is not

a)

Flexible

b)

Non-living

c)

Inelastic

d)

Protein in nature

60.

Replacement of cartilage with bone in early age is the function of

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Fibroblasts

61.

Axial skeleton in humans consists of

a)

Skull, vertebrae, ribs, clavicle

b)

Skull, vertebrae, ribs, sternum

c)

Cranium, vertebrae, ribs, sternum

d)

Skull, ribs, lungs, vertebrae

62.

Pick a wrong statement about the rib cage

a)

12 pairs of ribs are present

b)

10 pairs directly attached with sternum

c)

4 ribs are floating ribs

d)

12 pairs are attached with vertebrae

63.

Branched and interconnected fibers are found in

a)

Smooth muscles

b)

Skeletal muscles

c)

Cardiac muscles

d)

Mixed muscles

64.

Hormones produced by gonads belong to which class of hormones

a)

Proteins

b)

Amino acid derivatives

c)

Lipids

d)

Polypeptides

65.

Anterior pituitary is also known as master gland because

a)

It produces growth hormone

b)

It produces primary hormones

c)

It is under control of hypothalamus

d)

It produces trophic hormones

66.

All of following factors stimulate release of ACTH except

a)

High steroid level in blood

b)

Conditions of stress

c)

Infections in body

d)

Cushing’s disease

67.

A hormone that is sometimes inappropriately known as LTH

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Progesterone

d)

Prolactin

68.

A gland that is involved in maintaining circadian rhythms is

a)

Pons

b)

Pituitary

c)

Thyroid

d)

Pineal

69.

Formyl group can occur

a)

Anywhere in the carbon chain

b)

In the middle of carbon chain

c)

Only at the second carbon atom of the chain

d)

Only at the end carbon atom of the chain

70.

The number of functional groups in the following hypothetical compound are

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

71.

1-Butyne reacts with water in the presence of dilute H2SO4 and 1% HgSO4 forming

a)

2-butanol

b)

Dimethyl ketone

c)

Butanal

d)

Ethyl methyl ketone

72.

Benzene reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of AlCl3 to give

a)

Benzaldehyde

b)

Benzyl chloride

c)

Acetophenone

d)

Benzophenone

73.

Which of the following hydroxide of group of IA is more soluble in water

a)

LiOH

b)

KOH

c)

NaOH

d)

Ca(OH)2

74.

Magnesium burns in air to form

a)

MgO

b)

Mg3N2

c)

MgCO3

d)

MgO and Mg3N2

75.

Sodium does not show +2 oxidation state because of its

a)

High first ionization energy

b)

Large cationic radius

c)

High second ionization energy

d)

High electronegative value

76.

Hydrogen gas is evolved during reaction of Na metal with all except

a)

Water

b)

Ethyl alcohol

c)

Ethyl chloride

d)

Hydrochloric acid

77.

Which of the following pair of ions gives coloured solution of their complexes?

a)

Ti4+, Cu1+

b)

Sc3+, Zn2+

c)

Co2+, Fe3+

d)

Ni2+, V5+

78.

Copper acetylide reacts with ___________ to regenerate acetylene

a)

Na

b)

NaNH2

c)

NH4OH

d)

HNO3

79.

Carboxylic acids are dehydrated on heating strongly in the presence of ______

a)

K2Cr2O7

b)

LiAlH4

c)

P2O5

d)

V2O5

80.

Minimum binding energy is possessed by

a)

Cr

b)

Mn

c)

V

d)

Zn

81.

Reactivity of alkenes is due to

a)

Localized π electrons

b)

Delocalized π electrons

c)

High polarity of C – H bond

d)

Sigma electrons

82.

What are X and Y in the reaction

a)

X = Vinyl bromide, Y= 1,2-Dibromethane

b)

X = Vinyl bromide, Y = Ethyl bromide

c)

X = Vinyl bromide, Y = 1, 1-Dibromethene

d)

X = Vinyl bromide, Y = 1,1-Dibromethane

83.

Which alcohol is less acidic

a)

1-Propanol

b)

Ethyl alcohol

c)

Methyl alcohol

d)

1-Butanol

84.

Picric acid is formed by

a)

Carbolic acid + ConC.HNO3

b)

Phenol + Dil. HNO3

c)

Carbolic acid + Bromine

d)

Benzene + Conc. HNO3

85.

When CO2 is made to react with ethyl magnesium iodide, followed by acid hydrolysis, the product formed is

a)

Propanol

b)

Ethanoic acid

c)

Propanal

d)

Propanoic acid

86.

Which of the following is correct general formula for ketones

a)

(CnH2n+1)2O

b)

CnH2nO2

c)

(CnH2n–1)2CO

d)

(CnH2n+1)2CO

87.

In the body, nucleic acids occur as a part of conjugated proteins called

a)

Ribonucleoproteins

b)

Deoxyribonucleoproteins

c)

Nucleoproteins

d)

Lipoprotein

88.

Oxidation of ketone resists in the presence of

a)

K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4

b)

KMnO4 / H2SO4

c)

AgNO3 / NH4OH

d)

HNO3.ConC

89.

The reagent used for decarboxylation of carboxylic acids is

a)

SOCl2

b)

CaO + NaOH

c)

NH3

d)

NaHCO3

90.

Aldol condensation reaction is carried out by

a)

Methanal

b)

Benzaldehyde

c)

2,2-Dimethyl propanal

d)

Ethanal

91.

Elements in the periodic table are classified into four blocks. This classification is based upon

a)

Valence orbital

b)

Shell

c)

Orbit

d)

Shielding effect

92.

Which one of the following compound is not organic in nature

a)

CHF3

b)

CH2O

c)

CCl4

d)

NH4CNO

93.

If 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane are treated with alcoholic KOH, it gives

a)

1-Propene

b)

2-propene

c)

Propane

d)

Both A and B

94.

Correct name of CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2(OH) is

a)

Ethylene glycol

b)

Propylene glycol

c)

Tertiary propyl glycol

d)

1,2,3-propanetriol

95.

Which of the following alkaline earth metals has highest melting point

a)

Be

b)

Mg

c)

Ca

d)

Sr

96.

The complete combustion of one mole of C6H14 will produce how many moles of CO2

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

97.

The haloalkane which does not give β- elimination is

a)

Iso butyl chloride

b)

Neo pentyl chloride

c)

tertiary butyl chloride

d)

Iso propyl chloride

98.

Which is NOT periodic property?

a)

Ionization energy

b)

Electron affinity

c)

Melting point

d)

Coordination number

99.

Which of the following alkali metals can form superoxide on reaction with oxygen?

a)

Potassium

b)

Cesium

c)

Rubidium

d)

All of these

100.

The elements of ______ group has highest electrical conductivity

a)

IIIA

b)

IIA

c)

IA

d)

IB

101.

Which one of the following does not react with steam?

a)

Li

b)

Mg

c)

Na

d)

Be

102.

If a complex of chromium absorbs red light in wavelength region of 650 – 700nm

then it looks like to be

a)

Blue

b)

Yellow

c)

Green

d)

Red

103.

The geometry and hybridization of [Co(NH3)6] complex

a)

Octahedral, d2 sp3

b)

Trigonal bipyramidal, dsp3

c)

Tetrahedral, sp3

d)

Square planar, dsp3

104.

A transition element X has configuration [Ar]3d4 in its +3-oxidation state, it

atomic number will be

a)

25

b)

22

c)

26

d)

29

105.

The number of d-electrons of Cr in [Cr(NO2)6]3- ions is

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

106.

The number of sp3 hybridized carbons in 1-pentene-4-yne are

a)

Zero

b)

One

c)

Two

d)

Five

107.

Alkanoic acid and alkyl alkanoateare _______ isomer of each other

a)

Chain

b)

Positional

c)

Functional group

d)

Metamerism

108.

Benzene does not undergo addition reactions easily because

a)

It has a cyclic structure

b)

Double bonds are very strong

c)

Resonance stabilization system

d)

It has six hydrogen atoms

109.

Benzene reacts with propanoylchloride in presence of AlCl3 to give

a)

Ethyl phenyl ketone

b)

Benzyl chloride

c)

Acetophenone

d)

Benzophenone

110.

IUPAC name of vinyl alcohol is

a)

Ethanol

b)

Ethenol

c)

hydroxyl ethene

d)

1-hydroxyethene

111.

The correct melting point order is

a)

Al > Si

b)

Br2 > I2

c)

Na > Mg

d)

S ˃ P

112.

Collagen is a fibrous protein present most abundantly in

a)

Tendons

b)

Arteries

c)

Hair

d)

Nail

113.

An organic compound Y when treated with NaBH4 forms Z, which gives positive

iodoform test. The compound Y is

a)

Ethanol

b)

Methanal

c)

Ethanal

d)

Propanal

114.

Butanone on oxidation with K2Cr2O7 / H2SO4 forms

a)

Acetic acid and Ethane

b)

Acetic acid only

c)

Methane and Propanoic acid

d)

Propanoic acid and methanoic acid

115.

Aldehydes and ketones react with ammonia derivative to form compounds containing imine functional group. This is an example of

a)

Substitution reaction

b)

Elimination reaction

c)

Addition reaction

d)

Addition-elimination reaction

116.

Which one of the following compounds is difficult to oxidize?

a)

CH3CH2CHO

b)

C3H7OH

c)

CH3CHO

d)

CH3COCH3

117.

Acetone and formaldehyde can be distinguished by means of

a)

Iodoform test

b)

Tollen’s test

c)

Sodium Nitroprusside test

d)

All of these

118.

__________ when strongly heated with Fehling’s reagent gives brick red precipitate of cuprous oxide

a)

Benzaldehyde

b)

Propanal

c)

Propanol

d)

Propanone

119.

Which of the following is a fatty acid?

a)

Adipic acid

b)

Oxalic acid

c)

Benzoic acid

d)

Butanoic acid

120.

If ethyl butyrate is added to a liquid, it will develop a flavor of

a)

Banana

b)

Pineapple

c)

Jasmine

d)

Apricot

121.

Which of the following derivative of ethanoic acid is least reactive?

a)

Ethyl acetate

b)

Acetamide

c)

Acetic anhydride

d)

Acetyl chloride

122.

When phenol reacts with ethanoyl chloride in the presence of a base it forms______

a)

Ester

b)

Salt

c)

Ketone

d)

Ether

123.

When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level its radius is.

a)

Four times its ground state radius

b)

Same

c)

Twice

d)

Three times

124.

In the nth orbit, the energy of an electron En=-13.6/n2 eV for hydrogen atom. The energy required to take the electron from first orbit to second orbit will be

a)

10.2 eV

b)

13.6 eV

c)

12.1 eV

d)

3.4 eV

125.

X-rays of λ=1A° have frequency

a)

3×108Hz

b)

3×1018Hz

c)

3×1010Hz

d)

3×1015Hz

126.

The diagram shows the electric field lines in a region of space containing two small

charged spheres (Y and Z). Then

a)

Y is negative and Z is positive

b)

The magnitude of the electric field is the same everywhere

c)

The electric field is strongest midway between Y and Z

d)

The electric field is not zero anywhere (except infinitely far from the spheres)

127.

A cell of emf 5V and internal resistance 1 Ω will give maximum power output to

a)

A single resistor of 1 Ω

b)

Two 1 Ω resistor connected in series

c)

Two 1 Ω resistor connected in parallel

d)

None of these

128.

A charged particle enters a magnetic field such that the direction of initial velocity is different from the direction of the field. Which of the following characteristics of the particle will not change with time?

a)

Momentum

b)

Acceleration

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Direction of motion

129.

A conductor of length 1m carrying current of 1A is placed parallel to a magnetic field of 1 Gauss. The magnetic force acting on the conductor is

a)

Zero

b)

1 newton

c)

10–4 newton

d)

1 Dyne

130.

From a metal surface violet light causes photo emission but blue do not. If sodium light is used then photo electrons

a)

Not emitted

b)

Are emitted with less K.E

c)

Are emitted with zero K.E

d)

Are emitted with very high K.E

131.

The cesium coated oxidized silver emits electrons for

a)

Infrared light

b)

U.V light

c)

Visible light

d)

Valence shell

132.

A generator coil rotates through 60 revolutions each second. The frequency of the emf is.

a)

30 Hz

b)

60 Hz

c)

120 Hz

d)

240Hz

133.

If a charge particle is placed one by one at point A, B and C then at which point it will experience a larger force.

a)

At point “A”

b)

At point ‘B”

c)

At point “C”

d)

None of these

134.

Three identical charge are placed at the corners of an equilaterd triangle. If forces

between any two charges is F, Then the net force on each will be

a)

2F\sqrt[]{2}F  

b)

3F\sqrt[]{3}F  

c)

2F

d)

3F

135.

Equipotential planes are

a)

Parallel to one another

b)

Non-parallel to one another

c)

Intersecting

d)

Circular

136.

If 2 bodies are oppositely charged with 400µC and 200µC, the distance between them in the air is 0.5 m. The force between the bodies should be

a)

2880 N

b)

3000 N

c)

1850 N

d)

3250 N

137.

Find capacitance across AB:

a)

C/3

b)

3C

c)

C

d)

None of these

138.

If two bulbs are connected in parallel and one bulb blows out, what happens to the other bulb?

a)

The other bulb blows out as well

b)

The other bulb glows with increased brightness

c)

The other bulb continues to glow with the same brightness

d)

The other bulb stops glowing

139.

Calculate the energy in the 5 ohm resistor in 20 seconds.

a)

21.5kJ

b)

2.15J

c)

2.15kJ

d)

21.5J

140.

Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?

a)

The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire

b)

The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire

c)

The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire

d)

The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire

141.

The strength of electromagnet can be increased by introducing a soft iron core

a)

Outside the coil

b)

Inside the coil

c)

Round the coil

d)

Above the coil

142.

For a cell, the graph between the potential difference (V) across the terminals of the cell and the current (I) drawn from the cell is shown in the figure.

The e.m.f. and the internal resistance of the cell are

a)

2V, 0.5 Ω

b)

> 2V, 0.5 Ω

c)

2V, 0.4 Ω

d)

> 2V, 0.4 Ω

143.

The ripple factor indicates the number of ripples in the

a)

A.C output

b)

D.C output

c)

A.C input

d)

None of these

144.

de-Broglie wavelength of a body of mass 1 kg moving with velocity of 2000 m/s is

a)

3.32 x 10–27 Å

b)

1.5 x 107 Å

c)

0.55 x 10–22 Å

d)

None of these

145.

If the angular speed of rotation of an armature of alternating current generator is

doubled, then the induced electromotive force will be:

a)

Twice

b)

Four times

c)

No change

d)

Half

146.

If a unit charge is taken from one point to another point over an equipotential surface, then___________

a)

Work is done on the charge

b)

Work is done by the charge

c)

Work done on the charge is constant

d)

No work is done

147.

A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volts are to be used from a

household supply. The rating of fuse to be used is

a)

2.5 A

b)

7.5 A

c)

5.0 A

d)

10 A

148.

If the temperature is increased by 3°C, the value of temperature co-efficient of

resistivity.

a)

increases

b)

remains same

c)

decreases

d)

None of these

149.

The energy of a charged capacitor resides in

a)

The electric field only

b)

The magnetic field only

c)

Both the electric and magnetic field

d)

Neither in electric nor magnetic field

150.

The dielectric constant k of an insulator cannot be

a)

3

b)

6

c)

8

d)

151.

A charged particle is projected into a region of uniform and parallel, E and B fields. The force on the particle is:

a)

zero

b)

perpendicular to the field lines

c)

along the field lines

d)

at some angle < 90◦ with the field lines

152.

Velocity selector is a device used to determine the velocity of charge particles, it works with

a)

Electric field only

b)

Both electric and magnetic field which are parallel to each other

c)

Magnetic field only

d)

Both electric and magnetic fields which are mutually perpendicular

153.

In given figure, the force on arm BC is:

a)

Inwards (into the paper)

b)

Outwards (out of paper)

c)

Upwards

d)

No force will act on arm BC

154.

An α −particle is moving through a current carrying solenoid along its axis. Magnetic force acting on α −particle is

a)

ILv

b)

eV

c)

Bev

d)

Zero

155.

If a charge on a capacitor is doubled, then its capacitance will be

a)

Halved

b)

Remain unchanged

c)

Doubled

d)

Become four times

156.

A capacitor of capacitance C has charge Q and stored energy is E. If the charge is

increase to 2Q. The stored energy will

a)

E/4

b)

2E

c)

E/2

d)

4E

157.

Two bulbs of 500 W and 300 W are manufactured to operate on a 220V line. If their resistances are R1 and R2 respectively, the value of R1/R2 is,

a)

5/3

b)

3/5

c)

25/9

d)

9/25

158.

What carries current in an electrolyte?

a)

Electrons only

b)

–ve ions only

c)

+ve ions only

d)

Both +ve and –ve ions

159.

The frequency of direct current is:

a)

Zero

b)

50 Hz

c)

60 Hz

d)

100 Hz

160.

A metallic sphere of diameter 30 cm, carries a charge of 600 μ\mu  C. Find electric field

intensity at surface of sphere?

a)

54 × 103NC–1

b)

54 × 107NC–1

c)

13.5 × 103NC–1

d)

2.4 × 108NC–1

161.

A step-down transformer reduces the supply voltage from 220 V to 11 V and increase the current from 6 A to 100 A. Then its efficiency is

a)

1.2

b)

0.83

c)

0.12

d)

0.9

162.

A certain radioactive nuclide of mass number ‘x’ decay by β–emission and α–emission to a second nuclide of mass number ‘t’, which of the following correctly relates ‘x’ and ‘t’?

a)

x = t–4

b)

x + 3 =t

c)

x = t+4

d)

x –1 = t

163.

Mass of alpha particle is

a)

4 times of mass of proton

b)

About 7000 times of mass of electron

c)

7000 times of mass of proton

d)

Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

164.

Among the following four spectral regions, in which of them, the photon has the highest energy in?

a)

Infrared

b)

Violet

c)

Red

d)

Blue

165.

What will be the number of photons emitted per second, if the power of the radio

transmitter is 15 kW and it operates at a frequency of 700 kHz?

a)

3.24 × 1031

b)

3.87 × 1025

c)

2.77 × 1037

d)

3.24 × 1045

166.

If the intensity of incident radiation in a photo-cell is increased, how does the stopping potential vary?

a)

Increases

b)

Remains the same

c)

Decreases

d)

Infinite

167.

In terms of Rydberg's constant R, the wavelength of the first Balmer line is

a)

R

b)

3R

c)

5R/36

d)

36/5R

168.

The half-life of a radioactive substance is:

a)

Half the time it takes for the entire substance to decay

b)

The time for radium to change into lead

c)

Usually about 50 years

d)

The time for half the substance to decay

169.

Possible units for the disintegration constant λ are:

a)

kg/s

b)

hour

c)

s/kg

d)

Day−1

170.

In photo electric effect wavelength of incident photon is λ while threshold wavelength of metal surface is λo. The K.Emax of ejected electron is given b

a)

hc(λo − λ )

b)

hc[1/ λo-1/ λ]

c)

hc/ λ- λo

d)

hc[ λo- λ/ λ λo]

171.

The quanta of energy possessed by γ\gamma  -radiation is of the order of

a)

eV

b)

MeV

c)

keV

d)

None

172.

Mass No. of a nucleus will change only if it emits

a)

α– particle

b)

β – radiation

c)

γ\gamma   – rays

d)

β – positive radiation

173.

Sterilization of surgical instruments medical supplies and bandages can be done by

exposing them to a beam of

a)

α-rays

b)

β-rays

c)

γ\gamma   – rays

d)

B and C have equal antiseptic properties

174.

Negative Beta particles ionize an atom

a)

Due to the electrostatic force of attraction

b)

Due to the electrostatic force of repulsion

c)

Due to a direct collision

d)

Due to the gravitational force

175.

In a radioactive phenomenon observation shown in figure where α-deviates lesser than β in some electric or magnetic field (not shown in the figure). What is the reason of less deviation of α?

a)

α is charged particle

b)

α is neutral particle

c)

α is heavier particle

d)

α is lighter particle

176.

Per year safe limit of radiation exposure is

a)

5 rem

b)

7 rem

c)

10 rem

d)

15 rem

177.

Choose the correct option:

a)

"Go then," said the ant, "and dance winter away."

b)

"Go then," said the ant and dance winter away."

c)

Go then, said the ant, "and dance winter away."

d)

"Go then," said the ant "And dance winter away."

178.

Choose the correct option:

a)

Let‘s go and have coffee at Marcel’s.

b)

Let‘s go and have coffee to Marcel’s

c)

Let‘s go and have coffee on Marcel’s

d)

Let‘s go to and have coffee to Marcel’s

179.

Choose the correct option:

a)

Jack and Jill’s pail of water is prominently featured in the nursery rhyme.

b)

Jack’s and Jill’s pail of water is prominently featured in the nursery rhyme.

c)

Jack’s and Jill pail of water is prominently featured in the nursery rhyme.

d)

Jack’s and Jill’s pails of water is prominently featured in the nursery rhyme.

180.

Choose the correct option:

a)

Fermentation had far more important effects at medicine, surgery, and public health.

b)

Fermentation had far more important effects on medicine, surgery, and public health.

c)

Fermentation had far more important effects in medicine, surgery, and public health.

d)

Fermentation had far more important effects for medicine, surgery, and public health.

181.

Identify the underlined phrase:

We were prevented from seeing the prisoner

a)

Present participle

b)

Participial

c)

Gerund

d)

Absolute

182.

Read the following passages and answer the questions given below.

Mom walked into the kitchen to put the grocery bags down on the counter when she noticed shattered glass from the picture window all over the living room floor and a baseball not far from there. “I’m going to kill you, Tommy!” Mom yelled to herself as she realized that Tommy’s shoes were gone.

What happened to the window?

a)

It got crushed

b)

It forcedly open

c)

It got strengthened

d)

It got cracked

183.

Read the following passages and answer the questions given below:

Every day after work Paul took his muddy boots off on the steps of the front porch. Alice would have a fit if the boots made it so far as the welcome mat. He then took his dusty overalls and threw them into a plastic garbage; Alice left a new garbage bag tied to the porch railing for him every morning.

What type of job does Paul do?

a)

Librarian

b)

Gardener

c)

Teacher

d)

Driver

184.

Choose the correct voice.

The crew paved the entire stretch of highway.

a)

The crew paved the entire stretch of highway.

b)

The entire stretch of highway had been paved by the crew.

c)

The entire stretch of highway was paved by the crew.

d)

The entire stretch of highway was to be paved by the crew.

185.

Choose the correct voice.

The Muslims must observe fasts.

a)

Fasts had observed by the Muslims.

b)

Fasts must be observed by the Muslims.

c)

Fasts must to be observed with the Muslims.

d)

Fasts must have been observed by the Muslims.

186.

Choose the correct voice.

Do not catch this bird.

a)

Not let this bird to be caught.

b)

Do not let this bird not be caught.

c)

Let this bird not to be caught.

d)

Let this bird not be caught

187.

Choose the Correct Narration:

He said, “Let us start now.”

a)

He suggested that they should start then.

b)

He suggested us that they should start then.

c)

He suggested us to let them start then.

d)

He suggested they must start then.

188.

Choose the Correct Narration:

The teacher says, “Always speak the truth.”

a)

The teacher advises that you always speak the truth.

b)

The teacher advises to speak the truth always.

c)

The teacher advised to always speak the truth.

d)

The teacher advises that one speaks the truth always

189.

Choose the Correct Narration:

The scientist said, “The earth revolves around the sun.”

a)

The scientist said us that the earth will revolve around the sun.

b)

The scientist said that the earth revolved around the sun.

c)

The scientist said that the earth revolves around the sun.

d)

The scientist said to us that the earth did revolve around the sun.

190.

Identify the underlined Part of speech:

I hope you get well again soon.

a)

Adjective

b)

Adverb

c)

Verb

d)

Noun

191.

Choose the best option to complete the sentence:

Ozone in the Earth’s atmosphere _______ living organisms from damaging ultraviolet radiations.

a)

warms

b)

reflects

c)

absorbs

d)

protects

192.

Spot the Error:

One of the first records of famine was carved over granite by an Egyptian Pharaoh.

a)

of

b)

records

c)

over

d)

by

193.

Spot the Error:

For a long time there was only the sound of the wind at the late afternoon.

a)

For

b)

only

c)

of

d)

at

194.

Choose the Correct Spelling

a)

Termenate

b)

Termanate

c)

Tirminate

d)

Terminate

195.

In the overall economy of Pakistan, agriculture is the largest sector of economic activity. It plays a crucial role in the country's economic development by providing food to its people and raw materials to industry. It accounts for the largest share to the national income. The share of the various agricultural commodities, animal husbandry and ancillary activities has been more than 40 percent since independence. During the decade of the fifties, it actually contributed about half of the national output.

Agriculture is the mainstay of Pakistan economy.

a)

Definitely true

b)

Probably true

c)

Data inadequate

d)

Probably false

e)

Definitely false

196.

The space exploration has been done mainly by using unmanned satellites called space probes containing a large variety of latest scientific instruments on board. These space probes have provided us the close up pictures and other data about planets and other bodies in the outer space. The climax of the intensive American space program came when Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the moon on July 20, 1969. Originally, the artificial satellites were launched for studying the upper atmosphere of earth.

Neil Armstrong was the first man to go into space.

a)

Definitely false

b)

Data inadequate

c)

Probably true

d)

Probably false

e)

Definitely true

197.

Statement:

Every citizen of a country should pay tax to the Government.

Courses of action:

The government should aware and educate people about income tax.

II) The government should take strict action against income tax fraudulent.

a)

If only I follow

b)

If only II follows

c)

If either I or II follows

d)

If neither I nor II follows

e)

If both I and II follows

198.

In spite of the Principal's repeated warnings, a child was caught exploding crackers secretly in the school.

Courses of Action:

I. All the crackers should be taken away from the child and he should be threatened not to do it again.

II. The child should be severely punished for his wrong act.

a)

Only I follows

b)

Only II follows

c)

Either I or II follows

d)

Neither I nor II follows

e)

Both I and II follow

199.

I. It is the aim of the city's civic authority to get the air pollution reduced by 20% in the next two months.

II. The number of asthma cases in the city is constantly increasing.

a)

If Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b)

If Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c)

If Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e)

If Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

200.

Statements:

I. The government has decided to take up the irrigation projects on war footing and complete all of them in the next two years.

II. Scientists predicted very low rainfall for the next seven years.

a)

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b)

Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c)

Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d)

Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e)

Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause