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AP biology first semester review

Total questions: 242

Worksheet time: 4hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following shows the correct hydrogen bonding in water molecules?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
2.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
3.
Plants store glucose in the form of
a)
starch
b)
glycogen
c)
cellulose
d)
chitin
4.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a)
cellulose
b)
glycogen
c)
wax
d)
lipids
5.
Polymers form through _____________
a)
hydrolysis
b)
dehydration synthesis
c)
ATP synthesis
d)
monomerization
6.
Where in a plant or animal would you find phospholipids?
a)
In the blood (for animals) or sap (for plants).
b)
In the digestive system.
c)
In the cell membranes.
d)
In the energy storage organs.
7.
The characteristic that all lipids have in common is----
a)
made of lots of double bonds
b)
acidic when mixed with water
c)
no high energy content
d)
do not dissolve in water
8.
A "kinky structure" due to the double bonds between carbon atoms creates a lipid known as what?
a)
saturated fat
b)
wax
c)
steroid
d)
unsaturated fat
9.
The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of this reaction?
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Pepysis
d)
Oxidation
10.
The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of the resulting bond?
a)
Peptide Bond
b)
Glycosidic Linkage
c)
Ester Bond
d)
Hydrogen Bond
11.
The primary sequence of a protein refers to the:
a)
Order of amino acids
b)
α-Helix or β-Pleated Sheet
c)
Interaction of subunits
d)
Hydrogen Bonding
12.
From the nucleotide on the right, which part is labeled 2?
a)
Phosphorous
b)
Nitrogenous Base
c)
DNA
d)
Sugar
13.
Which statement describes the polarity of a water molecule?
a)
The oxygen end has slight positive charge and the hydrogen end has a slight negative charge
b)
The oxygen end has a slight negative charge and the hydrogen end has a slight positive charge
c)
Electrons are shared evenly between the hydrogens and the oxygen.
d)
The charge on each end of the molecule is balanced.
14.
Attractions between water molecules are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
15.
In a controlled experiment, the variable that IS changed between groups, is called the 
a)
control variable (s)
b)
independent variable 
c)
dependent variable 
16.
The variables that are kept the same between groups in an experiment are called the 
a)
control variable (s) 
b)
independent variable (s) 
c)
dependent variable (s)
d)
experimental variable (s) 
17.
A pair of researchers are wanting to see the effect of carbon dioxide on the growth of plants.  They use a greenhouse to create an environment with an elevated carbon dioxide levels.  In another greenhouse, they monitor the gases to keep carbon dioxide levels to a normal level.  They keep the humidity, the sunlight levels, duration of light,  water, and fertilizer the same between both groups.  The researchers recorded the height, leaf numbers, and change in mass of the plants in each greenhouse.   In this experiment, what is the independent/experimental variable?
a)
the fertilizer
b)
the amount of carbon dioxide
c)
the number of leaves
d)
the amount of oxygen
18.
A pair of researchers are wanting to see the effect of carbon dioxide on the growth of plants.  They use a greenhouse to create an environment with an elevated carbon dioxide levels.  In another greenhouse, they monitor the gases to keep carbon dioxide levels to a normal level.  They keep the humidity, the sunlight levels, duration of light,  water, and fertilizer the same between both groups.  The researchers recorded the height, leaf numbers, and change in mass of the plants in each greenhouse.   In this experiment, what would be the control variable (s) 
a)
amount of water
b)
amount of light 
c)
both the water and the light
d)
neither the water or the light
19.
A pair of researchers are wanting to see the effect of carbon dioxide on the growth of plants.  They use a greenhouse to create an environment with an elevated carbon dioxide levels.  In another greenhouse, they monitor the gases to keep carbon dioxide levels to a normal level.  They keep the humidity, the sunlight levels, duration of light,  water, and fertilizer the same between both groups.  The researchers recorded the height, leaf numbers, and change in mass of the plants in each greenhouse.  In the plant experiment, what else would be a good part of the design? 
a)
Having the same type and overall health of plants in each group
b)
also increasing the amount of oxygen as well as the carbon dioxide during the experiment
c)
giving the experimental group extra fertilizer
d)
cutting off the leaves throughout the experiment to measure their masses
20.
The part of the cell that makes protein.
a)
Vacuoles
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Cytoplasm
21.

Acts like a subway system, carrying protein through the cell, often modifying it along the way

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Nuclear Membrane

c)

Ribosomes

d)

rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

22.
Packages proteins into vesicles and ships them out.
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Nucleus
23.
Which organelle aids with the detoxification of the cell as well as makes lipids for cell membranes?
a)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Golgi Body
24.
This contains digestive enzymes. These enzymes can digest materials and cleans the cell
a)
ribosomes
b)
cilia
c)
flagella
d)
lysosomes
25.
What type of cell does not have a nucleus?
a)
eukaryotic 
b)
prokaryotic 
26.
In the diagram below, which section represents a cells that has been placed in a hypertonic solution?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
27.
Produces hormones and lipid molecules for cells
a)
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b)
rough endoplasmic reticulum
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
28.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
29.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
30.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
31.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
32.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
a)
Grows
b)
Matures
c)
Carries on normal activities
d)
All of the above
33.
In the S stage of interphase_______________
a)
the cell grows
b)
the nucleus divides
c)
the cell membrane divides
d)
the DNA is replicated
34.

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transfer system in cell respiration?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

O2

d)

H2O

35.
The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by 
a)
the breakdown of pyruvate 
b)
ATP synthase in the electron transport system 
c)
photophosphorylation 
d)
the creation of NADH 
36.
A molecule that blocks ATP synthase would have which effect?
a)
Fewer ATP would be generated because the proton gradient is lost
b)
Fewer ATP would be generated because protons can't diffuse through ATP synthase
c)
Even more ATP can be made through susbstrate level phosphorylation 
d)
More ATP could be generated as electrons donate their energy directly to ADP and Phosphate. 
37.
Which molecule enters Kreb's Cycle?
a)
Pyruvate
b)
Glucose
c)
Acetyl CoA
d)
reducing powers
38.
 Starting with one molecule of glucose, the "net" products of glycolysis are 
a)
2 NAD+, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O. 
b)
2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP,
c)
2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, 4 ATP, and 2 H2O.
d)
6 CO2, 6 H2O, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate. 
39.
What enzyme in the ETC is responsible for generating the ATP molecules?
a)
ATPase
b)
ATP synthase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
none of the above
40.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
41.
Where does glycolysis occur?
a)
Inner mitochondrial membrane
b)
Mitochondrial Matrix
c)
Cytosol
d)
At a ribosome
42.
Krebs Cycle takes place in the:
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Matrix
c)
Ribsome
d)
InterMembrane Space
43.
Prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each pyruvate molecule loses electrons, hydrogen ions, and a carbon, forming an energy-rich molecule of
a)
Acetyl-CoA
b)
Citrate
c)
Oxaloacetate
d)
Malate
44.
site of the krebs cycle
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
45.
If a hole was created in the inner mitochondrial membrane the result would be _________ ATP created from the ETC.
a)
Less
b)
More
46.
H+ come back into the matrix because of:
a)
Magic
b)
Facilitated Diffusion
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
47.
During the electron transport system
a)
H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor
b)
a concentration gradient is generated when H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
c)
energy is released as H+ ions move freely across the mitochondrial membrane
d)
ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase
48.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
49.
When muscles work at their maximum ability, blood flow is often unable to provide enough oxygen to continue to produce ATP. Which process allows muscles to continue ATP production in this situation? 
a)
beta oxidation 
b)
aerobic respiration 
c)
lactic acid fermentation 
d)
alcoholic fermentation 
50.
What is happening at A?
a)
Oxygen is accepting an electron from the electron transport system
b)
NADH is dropping off an electron to the electron transport system
c)
ATP is being generated
d)
H+ ions are being pumped across
51.
What is happening at B?
a)
Oxygen is accepting an electron from the electron transport system
b)
NADH is dropping off an electron to the electron transport system
c)
ATP is being generated
d)
H+ ions are being pumped across
52.
What is happening at D?
a)
Oxygen is accepting an electron from the electron transport system
b)
NADH is dropping off an electron to the electron transport system
c)
H+ ions are diffusing through ATP synthase
d)
H+ ions are being pumped across
53.
Using the figure, which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
B and C
c)
C and D
d)
all of the above
54.
Lactic acid fermentation occurs in your muscles after a workout because your cells are struggling to get...
a)
Glucose
b)
Sunlight
c)
Oxygen
d)
Water
55.

Fermentation regenerates what substance so glycolysis can continue to occur?

a)

ATP

b)

FAD

c)

NAD+

d)

FADH2

56.
When levels go above or below a set point a hormone is released to return the body to set point. When the body is restored to set point no more hormone is released. This is an example of...
a)
a positive feedback loop
b)
a negative feedback loop
c)
a neutral feedback loop
57.
1.  Name the protein that adds phosphate groups to proteins in cell communication.
a)
Protein Kinase
b)
Cyclase
58.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
59.
Protein kinases activate other relay proteins by adding a(n) ____ to them.
a)
phosphate
b)
ATP molecule
c)
cAMP
d)
GTP
60.
Which of the following is an example of a second messenger?
a)
cAMP
b)
GTP
c)
insulin
d)
epinephrine
61.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
62.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
63.
When epinephrine binds to cardiac (heart) muscle cells, it speeds their contraction. When it binds to muscle cells of the small intestine, it inhibits their contraction. Which of the following best accounts for the fact that the same hormone can have different effects on muscle cells?
a)
Cardiac cells have more receptors for epinephrine than do intestinal cells
b)
Epinephrine circulates to the heart first and thus is in higher concentration around cardiac cells
c)
The two types of muscle cells have different signal transduction pathways for epinephrine and thus have different cellular responses
d)
Cardiac muscle is stronger than intestinal muscle and thus has a stronger response to epinephrine
64.
Each of the following numbered processes are involved in signal transduction pathways:  
 I.  Response  
II.  Amplification  
 III.  Reception  
IV.  Transduction
 Which represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?
a)
I, II, III, IV
b)
III, I, IV, II
c)
II, IV, I, III
d)
III, IV, II, I
65.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
66.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
67.
Consider this pathway: epinephrine --> receptor --> cAMP --> protein kinase --> transcription factors. 

Identify the secondary messenger.
a)
epinephrine
b)
G protein-coupled receptor
c)
adenylyl cyclase
d)
cAMP
68.
What is a G protein?
a)
specific type of membrane-receptor protein
b)
protein on the cytoplasmic side of a membrane
c)
membrane-bound enzyme
d)
relay protein
69.
What does a protein phosphatase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme with a signal molecule
70.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following would likely not be observed in a person injected with epinephrine?
a)
Decreased production of cAMP in liver cells
b)
Inactivation of glycogen synthase
c)
Increased glucose mobilization
d)
Activation of G proteins
71.
G proteins are a family of proteins involved in transmitting chemical signals originating from outside a cell into the inside of the cell. G proteins function as molecular switches.
Which of the following best describes the role in which the G protein is most intimately involved in the process shown above?
a)
Production of the ligand molecule.
b)
Reception of the signal.
c)
Transduction of the signal.
d)
Production of response to signal.
72.
What activates adenylyl cyclase?
a)
epinephrine binding to it
b)
an activated G protein
c)
cAMP
d)
a protein kinase
73.
A G protein is active when (Chapter 11)
a)
GTP is bound to it
b)
GDP replaces GTP
c)
It is phosphorylated by a protein kinase
d)
It is bound by its ligand and transported to the nucleus
74.
What activates G proteins?
a)
GDP
b)
ATP
c)
ADP
d)
GTP
75.
G proteins are a family of proteins involved in transmitting chemical signals originating from outside a cell into the inside of the cell. G proteins function as molecular switches.
Investigations into the causes behind symptoms in Alzheimer’s patients have led to the hypothesis that the disease may be caused by excessive activity of IP3 second messengers in brain cells. When comparing cell samples of Alzheimer’s patients to those taken from the control group, which of the following pieces of evidence would support this hypothesis?
a)
A lower number of receptor proteins in the Alzheimer cell samples.
b)
A greater volume of endoplasmic reticulum membrane in the control group cell samples.
c)
A higher concentration of calcium ions in the cytosol of the Alzheimer cell samples.
d)
A lower number of activated proteins in the cytosol of the Alzheimer cell samples
76.
Which areas in the diagram depict the process of transduction in the signal transduction pathway of cell communication?
a)
Q and R
b)
Q and U
c)
S and T
d)
T and U
77.
The data shown was collected in an experiment designed to test the hypothesis that a second messenger mediates between receptor activation at the plasma membrane and enzyme activation in the cytoplasm. Liver tissue was homogenated and used to make three test solutions; a whole homogenate, a fraction containing plasma membrane and a fraction containing cytoplasm but no plasma membrane. Which of the following would be a reasonable conclusion based on the data collected?
a)
All cells in an organism respond to the presence of epinephrine via second messengers present in the homogenate
b)
A soluble second messenger, produced by hormone-actived membranes is present in the solution and activates enzymes in the cytoplasm
c)
Epinephrine is a hormone found bound in the membrane of cells and requires a ligand to stimulate its transduction
d)
An epineprine signal transduction pathway works more efficiently at warmer temperatures
78.

According to the diagram, if the levels of thyroxine increases, then

a)

the level of TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) will also increase

b)

the Temperature will continue to increase

c)

the level of TSH will decrease

d)

the amount of thyroxine will increase

79.

What is being depicted in the image?

a)

Amplification of the signal molecule

b)

Enzymatic proteins inhibiting process of the signal transduction pathway

c)

Kinase groups adding dimer groups to other enzymes

d)

Diffusion of molecules within the cell due to the signaling molecule

80.
What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?
a)
size
b)
polarity
c)
ability to cross the membrane
d)
all of these are correct
81.
Which of the following correctly describes the reception stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
protein kinases phosphoylate molecules
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
82.
Which of the following correctly describes the response stage of this signal transduction pathway?
a)
epinephrine binds to a g-protein coupled receptor protein present in the cell membrane
b)
the g protein changes shape, is activated, activates adenyl cyclase, which activates cAMP, which activates protein kinases
c)
cAMP binds to the g-protein coupled receptor protein
d)
glycogen synthesis is inhibited and glycogen breakdown is promoted
83.
Where are receptors located for steroid hormones?
a)
in the cell membrane
b)
in the cytoplasm
c)
in the extracellular environment
d)
at the ribosomes
84.
Which signaling molecules can cross the cell membrane on their own and do not need to bind to receptor proteins?
a)
steroid hormones (nonpolar lipids)
b)
ions (small, very polar)
c)
glucose (large and polar)
d)
protein hormones (large and polar)
85.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
 tyrosine kinase receptor
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
gated ion channel
86.

A vervet monkey baby will cry an alarm call at every little noise and movement. The adults around him ignore the alarms when there is nothing to respond to. According to habituation,

a)

we would see the baby increase his alarm calls to get his parents attention

b)

we would see the baby vervet monkey reason through why his parents are ignoring him

c)

we should expect a decrease in false alarm calls

d)

We should see the number of alarm calls stay the same. The adults have no influence

87.

A Mocking bird captures and starts to eat a frog that secretes a distasteful mucus. If that mockingbird sees colors, then would should we predict about the frog?

a)

frogs that are brightly colored will be better at warning the mockingbird

b)

frogs that are brightly colored will attract the bird more

c)

frogs that have camouflage coloring will be better at warning the bird

d)

the mocking bird will still try to eat the frogs

88.

As the mockingbird attempts to eat the frog, the birds learns that red frogs do not taste good. The association with red would be a natural example of

a)

classical conditioning

b)

operant conditioning

c)

fixed action pattern

d)

reasoning

89.

In some areas of the United States, we see both venomous coral snakes and their harmless mimics scarlet kingsnakes. Which of the following would be a good prediction? (two are correct)

a)

In areas where both snakes are present predators will attempt to eat both

b)

In areas where both snakes are present, predators will avoid both the coral snake and kingsnake

c)

In areas where the coral snake is absent, predators will not learn to avoid them and will eat the kingsnake

d)

In areas where the kingsnake is absent, the predators will still eat the coral snake.

90.

A researcher observes a chick pecking at a red spot on the beak of the mother bird. The mother bird invariably regurgitates its food once a chick has pecked at the red spot. The researcher decides to create an experiment where they use a blunt probe and a fake baby beak to touch the red spot. In both cases, the mother bird regurgitates the food. The best conclusion to this is that the behavior is a

a)

fixed action pettern

b)

a conditioned response to the pecking

c)

a learned response to the chicks peeping

d)

reasoned response, the mother birds knows it's her offspring

91.

A stickleback's response to red developed in order to help the fish

a)

flee from predators

b)

flirt and gain a mate and fight off rivals

c)

fight off predators

d)

gain food

92.
Find the degrees of freedom.
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
93.
What is the expected value for all cells, if we assume that this is a fair six sided die?
a)
96
b)
16
c)
8
d)
1/6
94.

In the formula for Chi Sqare, the O stands for

a)

the sum

b)

the observed frequency

c)

The expected frequency

d)

the p value

95.

In the formula for Chi Sqare, the E stands for

a)

the sum

b)

the observed frequency

c)

The expected frequency

d)

the p value

96.

If the chi square value is less than the p value then you

a)

retain the null hypothesis

b)

cry

c)

scream

d)

go home

97.

A pair of researchers are wanting to see the effect of carbon dioxide on the growth of plants. They use a greenhouse to create an environment with an elevated carbon dioxide levels. In another greenhouse, they monitor the gases to keep carbon dioxide levels to a normal level. They keep the humidity, the sunlight levels, duration of light, water, and fertilizer the same between both groups. The light, amount of water, and humidity are the

a)

independent variables

b)

dependent variables

c)

control variables

98.

Which of the following best depicts the action potential as it travels down the axon? (dep= depolarization and rep = repolarization) Arrows represent the direction of the ion flow

a)
b)
c)
d)
99.

What is the purpose the the cell cycle checkpoints?

a)

To repair damaged cells before they enter cell division.

b)

To remove damaged cells from an organism.

100.

What is the first checkpoint of the cell cycle?

a)

Mitosis checkpoint

b)

G1 checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

101.

When is apoptosis initiated?

a)

When DNA damage is repaired.

b)

When cells are removed from the cell cycle.

c)

When DNA damage cannot be repaired.

102.
Uncontrolled cell division is stopped by...
a)
tumor suppressor genes
b)
oncogenes
103.
Which is an example of a tumor suppressor gene?
a)
apoptosis
b)
proto-oncogenes
c)
p53
d)
oncogenes
104.
p53 activates which of the following?
a)
Tumor suppressor genes
b)
cell cycle
c)
DNA repair proteins
d)
uncontrolled cell division
105.
This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes sure the correct number of chromosomes are present and attached to microtubules.
a)
G1 Checkpoint
b)
G2 Checkpoint
c)
M Checkpoint
d)
I Checkpoint
106.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
a)
grows
b)
matures
c)
carries on normal activities 
d)
all of the above
107.

The passage of a cell through the stages of the cell cycle is controlled by protein kinases that phosphorylate many different proteins at appropriate times. What are these protein kinases called?

a)

Cdk activating kinases

b)

Cyclin-dependent kinases

c)

Cyclins

d)

Tyrosine kinases

108.
Which of the following shows the correct hydrogen bonding in water molecules?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
109.

When a tree starts to leaf out in the spring, it must use the store of starches as it's source for glucose. Which of the following is the best description of the process?

a)

plant cells must use dehydration synthesis to build glucose molecules from the starch molecules

b)

plant cells much use hydrolysis to break down the starches completely into carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms and then dehydration synthesis to rebuild glucose.

c)

plant cells will use hydrolysis to break down starch molecules into glucose molecules

d)

plant cells will use dehydration synthesis to build glucose from protein molecules.

110.

A bear preparing for hibernation will eat large quantities of berries (sugars), fish (protein), and may gain a hundred pounds of fat tissue. What is the best explanation for this?

a)

metabolic pathways within the bears tissues can convert carbohydrates and proteins into fat molecules

b)

The fat tissue stores not only fat but sugar and protein

c)

The carbohydrates and proteins are broken down into separate atoms and then rebuilt into fat molecules

d)

The carbohydrates and proteins are used immediately but fat is stored.

111.
Animals store glucose in the form of
a)
cellulose
b)
glycogen
c)
wax
d)
lipids
112.

Which of the following diagrams best shows the parts of the molecules that would undergo dehydration synthesis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
113.

Plants synthesis chlorophyll in a complicated metabolic process. To build the portion with nitrogen, it could use

a)

monosaccharides

b)

lipids

c)

amino acids

d)

water

114.

What is the best description of the difference between starch and cellulose?

a)

both starch and cellulose are made of glucose, but the glucose in cellulose alternates rotation every other glucose

b)

starch is made of glucose monomers and cellulose is made of lactose monomers

c)

starch is made of glucose monomers but cellulose is made of alternating glucose and lactose monomers

d)

they are both made of glucose but the glucose in cellulose has been stripped of hydrogen.

115.

Which of the following would be an accurate description of this model?

a)

it would show adhesion with water molecules due to its polarity

b)

it would be non-polar and not mix with water

c)

it lost its polarity when the monomers were bonded together

d)

it would mix with oil

116.

Which of the following models correctly shows a dehydration synthesis reaction occurring between two amino acids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
117.
The diagram shows a bond forming between two amino acids. What is the name of the resulting bond?
a)
Peptide Bond
b)
Glycosidic Linkage
c)
Ester Bond
d)
Hydrogen Bond
118.

CHanging the primary sequence of a protein

a)

can change how the protein folds due to changes in charge attraction between R groups

b)

requires breaking apart the R groups and reassembling them on a different amino acid

c)

will not affect the protein folding because the amino acid functional groups are responsible for the folding

d)

might change the folding but won't affect the function

119.
REVIEW: A scientist analyzing an unknown substance has determined that it consists of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. During experimentation, she determines that the substance is soluble in oil but not in water. Which of the following macromolecules is the unknown substance most likely to be?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
nucleic acid
c)
lipid
d)
protein
120.

If a plant is in nitrogen deprived soil, then what is the most affected?

a)

The production of sucrose

b)

The production of starch

c)

The production of carbohydrates and proteins

d)

The production of proteins and nucleic acids.

121.

Plants synthesis chlorophyll in a complicated metabolic process. To build the portion with hydrocarbon tail, it could use

a)

monosaccharides

b)

lipids

c)

amino acids

d)

water

122.

For organic molecules, what is true regarding dehydration synthesis reactions?

a)

they occur between two of the same type of monomer

b)

they result in an ionic bond and a water molecule

c)

a covalent bond is formed by removing a -H from one molecule and a -OH from the other molecule.

d)

a monosaccharide is bonded to an amino acid

123.

Which of the following describes all amino acids ?

a)

all amino acids have a -NH2 and -COOH group

b)

all amino acids have a ration of 2 hydrogen to 1 oxygen

c)

all amino acids have non-polar R groups

d)

all amino acids have a -COOH group and a phosphate group

124.

Which of the parts of an amino acid would need to be changed in order to make it a different amino acid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
125.

Which bond/s would need to be broken to break apart one amino acid in this polypeptide?

a)

bond 1 only

b)

bond 2 only

c)

bond 2 and 4

d)

bond 3

126.
Which of the following contains the highest water potential? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
127.
If a student was going to draw an arrow indicating the solution from the highest water potential to the lowest water potential, the arrow would be pointing 
a)
from the left to the right
b)
from the right to the left
128.
A protein that is destined for the membrane would be made 
a)
on a ribosome that is in the cytoplasm
b)
within a lysosome
c)
on a ribosome attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum 
d)
within the Golgi body
129.
A protein that will be modified with carbohydrates will pass through 
a)
the lysosome and the rough ER
b)
the rough ER and the Golgi body
c)
the rough ER and smooth ER
d)
the Golgi body and the smooth ER
130.
Which of the following cells would have the highest surface area to volume ratio?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
they are all the same
131.
Which of following correctly represents the packaging of a protein within a vesicle . 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
132.
An organism lives in the Arctic waters.  A researcher examines the cell membrane.  Which of the following represents the membrane that would be found. 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
133.
In the membrane section seen, which section would represent the non-polar section of a protein?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
134.
A muscle cell receives the signal from insulin to absorb more glucose.  Choose the statement that best describes the rapid response 
a)
The cell starts making more Glucose transporter (GLUT) proteins at the ribosomes
b)
Smooth ER enzymes start building the glucose transporters
c)
Vesicles storing GLUT proteins within their membrane are transported to the membrane and fuse. 
d)
GLUT proteins floating in the cytoplasm are directed to the membrane by kinesin molecules
135.
A researcher uses fluorescently labeled amino acids to track the proteins being produced in a cell.  The cell being studied secretes antibodies.  She notices that the fluorescence is outside the nucleus.  What will she notice next?
a)
The fluorescence moves into the nucleus
b)
The fluorescence moves to the smooth ER
c)
The fluorescence moves to the Golgi body
d)
The fluorescence moves directly to the mombrane
136.
Researchers inserted pieces of membrane with aquaporins into frog eggs and placed the eggs into a hypotonic solution.  What did they observe?
a)
The aquaporins started to pump out water
b)
The eggs started to pump out Na+ to draw out water
c)
The eggs started to swell rapidly as water diffused inside
d)
The aquaporins started to pump in water
137.
The area where Na+ ions are actively transported would be 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
138.
What area would have the lowest water potential?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
139.
A receptor protein on a membrane is thought to be a crucial part of a signaling system in normal cells.  A disease is thought to be caused by a problem in this receptor.  The researchers examine the genes in patients who have the disease but there are no differences in the protein.  Which of the following is a valid hypothesis?
a)
Lysosomes digested the protein after it was made
b)
Smooth ER enzymes aren't working properly and the receptor protein isn't made properly
c)
The receptor is made by ribosomes but isn't transported to the membrane
d)
There are no working ribosomes in the cell
140.
Active transport is happening in 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D nowhere in this pricture
141.
1.  If the water potential of a cell is higher than the surrounding solution.  The water will ____.
a)
Move into the cell.
b)
Move equally in and out of the cell.
c)
Move out of the cell.
142.
Pure water has a water potential of ___.
a)
1
b)
0
c)
-1
d)
100
143.
Carrot and potato cores were placed in various sucrose solutions for 24 hours and the % change in mass was recorded and graphed.  The temperature in the room was 24 degrees celcius.  Identify the approximate concentration of sucrose in the potato cells.
a)
0.13 M
b)
0.0 M
c)
0.4 M
d)
0.33 M
144.
Carrot and potato cores were placed in various sucrose solutions for 24 hours and the % change in mass was recorded and graphed.  The temperature in the room was 24 degrees celcius.  Sucrose is too large of a molecule to cross the membrane of potato and carrot cells.  Which molecule caused the change in mass?
a)
water
b)
sucrose
c)
salt
d)
glucose
145.
Carrot and potato cores were placed in various sucrose solutions for 24 hours and the % change in mass was recorded and graphed.  The temperature in the room was 24 degrees celcius.  Sucrose is too large of a molecule to cross the membrane of potato and carrot cells.  Calculate the water potential for the carrot cells.  The ionization constant for sucrose is 1.0 M.  The pressure potential is 0.
a)
-8.1 bars
b)
-8.1 M
c)
8.1 bars
d)
-3.5 bars
146.
Carrot and potato cores were placed in various sucrose solutions for 24 hours and the % change in mass was recorded and graphed.  The temperature in the room was 24 degrees celcius.  Sucrose is too large of a molecule to cross the membrane of potato and carrot cells.  Calculate the water potential for the carrot cells.  The ionization constant for sucrose is 1.0 M.  The pressure potential is 0.
a)
-8.1 bars
b)
-8.1 M
c)
8.1 bars
d)
-3.5 bars
147.
What is the approximate sucrose concentration in the potato core?
a)
.43 M
b)
.30 M
c)
0.0 M
d)
1.0 M
148.

A researcher observes a cell from a adrenal gland under an electron mictoscope. Adrenal glands produce several type of steroid hormones. What should the researcher expect to see in the cell?

a)

a high number of mitochondria

b)

large prominent rough ER

c)

large prominent smooth ER

d)

a high number of centrioles

149.

Certain diseases are found to be caused by a malfunction in the mitochondria. What is a likely result of these diseases?

a)

those cells with affected mitochondria struggle to produce the normal amounts of ATP

b)

those cells with affected mitochondria accumulated waste molecules because they caused breakdown material

c)

those cells with affected mitochondria cannot produce the normal levels of proteins

d)

the cells can make proteins but they are stuck within the cell and can't be secreted outside.

150.

In a slide from an intestinal lining, the histologist finds both bacteria and intestinal cells. Which of the following would be accurate?

a)

the histologist would notice a dark nucleus in the intestinal cell and the bacteria cell

b)

the histologist would only notice a nucleus in the intestinal cell

c)

Neither the intestinal cell nor the bacteria would have a nucleus

d)

both of them have a nucleus but the bacteria have only one chromosome

151.

Fluoresently labeled amino acids are used in an experiment in pancreas cells which secrete protein hormones. Which of the following correctly places the organelles using the amino acids in the right order?

a)

mitochondria , Rough ER, ribosomes, nucleus, smooth ER

b)

ribosomes, Rough ER, vesicle, Golgi body, outside the cell

c)

smooth ER , ribosomes, mitochondria, outside the cell

d)

ribosomes, smooth ER, lysosomes, outside the cell

152.

An intestinal virus infects and destroys cells lining the intestine. Normal intestinal cells have infoldings of the plasma membrane call microvilli where the cells absorb nutrients through the membrane. As cells regrow, the microvilli are short and incomplete. Affected cells are on the left. Which of the following would best describe the effect of the shorter microvilli

a)

it decreases the space for more Golgi bodies , which reduces production of proteins

b)

it decreases the number of mitochondria, which affects energy production

c)

shorter microvilli decrease the surface area of the membranes, which means less absorption of nurtients

d)

shorter microvilli reduces the amount of lipids, affecting the fluidity of the membrane

153.

Healthy intestinal cells absorb nutrients through their membrane. Above are measurements of 4 different cells. Which of the following would provide the most efficient absorption of nutrients?

a)

cell 1

b)

cell 2

c)

cell 3

d)

cell 4

154.

Oxygen is small and non polar. Which of the following would represent the pathway oxygen could take through the cell membrane?

a)

A

b)

B

155.

Glucose is large and polar. Which of the following would represent the pathway oxygen could take through the cell membrane?

a)

A

b)

B

156.

A molecule is known to block the production of ATP. Which would be affected?

a)

passive diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

osmosis

d)

active transport

157.

What happens to an enzyme when it denatures?

a)

The activation energy of the reaction is doubled.

b)

The activation energy of the reaction is lowered.

c)

It's optimal conditions for temperature of the enzyme are doubled.

d)

The shape of the enzyme molecule is changed.

158.

Most enzymes are composed of .....

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

159.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
160.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
161.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
162.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
163.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
164.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
165.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
166.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
167.
In an Exergonic reaction, heat is ________.
a)
Absorbed
b)
Created
c)
Destroyed
d)
Released
168.
In an Endergonic reaction, heat is ________.
a)
Released 
b)
Absorbed
c)
Created
d)
Destroyed
169.

The part of the enzyme that the non-competitive inhibitor binds to.

a)

Active site

b)

Allosteric site

c)

Construction site

d)

Binding site

170.

Which of the following Enzyme inhibition is irreversible towards its effect.

a)

Competitive inhibitor

b)

Non-Competitive inhibitor

c)

Irreversible inhibitor

171.

Refers to the process in which activation or inhibition of the first reaction in a reaction sequence is controlled by a product of of the reaction sequence.

a)

Feedback control

b)

Cascade control

c)

Case control

d)

In-Control

172.
The current model of enzyme action is referred to as the:
a)
Induced Fit Model
b)
Lock & Key Model
c)
Singer-Nicolson Model
d)
Davson-Danielli Model
173.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
174.
Molecules that bind to enzymes and enhance an enzyme's ability are called:
a)
CoFactors
b)
CoEnzymes
c)
Allosteric Inhibitors
d)
Allosteric Activators
175.
Organic molecules that temporarily bind to enzymes and enhance an enzyme's ability are called:
a)
CoFactors
b)
CoEnzymes
c)
Allosteric Inhibitors
d)
Allosteric Activators
176.

Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme. Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses?

a)

in or near the active site

b)

at an allosteric site

c)

at a cofactor binding site

d)

in regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid

177.

How might an amino acid change at a site distant from the active site of the enzyme alter the enzyme's substrate specificity?

a)

by changing the enzyme's stability

b)

by changing the enzyme's location in the cell

c)

by changing the shape of the protein

d)

by changing the enzyme's pH optimum

178.

In Figure 6.2, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher reactant concentrations?

a)

Feedback inhibition by product occurs at high reactant concentrations.

b)

Most enzyme molecules are occupied by substrate at high reactant concentrations.

c)

The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations.

d)

The activation energy for the reaction increases with reactant concentration.

179.

Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid.


Based on this information, which of the following is correct?

a)

Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate.

b)

Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonic acid is the substrate.

c)

Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product.

d)

Fumarate is the product, and malonic acid is a noncompetitive inhibitor.

180.

Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid.


What is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?

a)

It is a competitive inhibitor.

b)

It is a noncompetitive inhibitor.

c)

It is able to bind to succinate.

d)

It is an allosteric regulator.

181.

Competitive inhibitors of enzymes work by

a)

fitting into the active site.

b)

fitting into a site other than the active site.

c)

altering the shape of the enzyme.

d)

changing the enzyme into an inactive form.

e)

increasing the activation energy of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

182.

How do competitive and noncompetitive enzyme inhibitors differ?

a)

Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site, whereas noncompetitive inhibitors may change the shape of the active site.

b)

Competitive inhibitors have a higher energy of activation than noncompetitive inhibitors.

c)

Competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors function at different pH values.

d)

Noncompetitive inhibitors contain magnesium, whereas competitive inhibitors contain iron.

e)

Noncompetitive inhibitors are reversible, whereas competitive inhibitors are irreversible.

183.

In comparison to the pink line, the green plotted line shows the effect of adding what to an enzyme catalysed reaction?

a)

A Competitive inhibitor

b)

A Non-competitive inhibitor

c)

Increasing substrate concentration

d)

Increasing enzyme concentration

184.

Looking at the pink plotted line, why does the rate of reaction eventually plateau?

a)

The concentration of substrate is limiting

b)

A non competitive inhibitor is acting on the enzyme

c)

The concentration of enzyme is limiting

d)

A competitive inhibitor is acting on the enzyme

185.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited.


Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells.

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

186.
The diagram shows the series of a reactions that convert lactose into a usable form .
If enzyme 4 is denatured (stops working), the levels of which substance will increase?
a)
Lactose
b)
Galactose
c)
Glucose-1-Phosphate
187.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
188.
How does HIV cause damage to the body?
a)
infects nasal tissue,  making it more likely to catch a cold
b)
infects B cells, making it less likely to develop antibodies
c)
infects Helper T cells, making it difficult for the immune system to communicate
d)
infects the nervous tissue, making it hard to sense a stimulus
189.
A B cell is _____.
a)
 a cell responsible for removing foreign particles
b)
a large phagocytic cell 
c)
Eats foreign bodies
d)
the immune system cell type responsible for producing antibodies
190.
A substance or part of a substance (living or nonliving) that the immune system recognizes as foreign and activates the immune system and reacts with immune cells or their products, such as antibodies.
a)
pathogen
b)
allergen
c)
antigen
d)
antibody
191.
These cells are responsible for making antibodies
a)
B Cells
b)
Killer T Cells
c)
Helper T Cells
d)
Macrophages
192.

Which of the following antigens would bind to this B cell receptor?

a)
b)
c)
d)
193.

Which of the following best describes the actions of cytotoxic T cells?

a)

They secrete antibodies that are specific to the pathogen

b)

They secrete granzymes and perforins that destroy the pathogen

c)

They are involved in activating B cells

d)

They are the clean-up crew after the infection.

194.

Which part of the graph would represent a secondary response?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

none of them

195.

The response in “B” in the graph above could have been caused by which of the following?

a)

The person was given a vaccine as a baby and then was exposed to measles later in life

b)

The person was given their mom’s antibodies and they made antibodies from hers

c)

The person was given antibodies from someone else and the person made their own.

d)

“B” is the first response of the measles exposure.

196.

A person has lost the humoral/B cell activity in their immune system. What is one of the most detrimental results of this?

a)

Infected cells can't be killed

b)

antibodies can't be made

c)

pathogens can't be engulfed

d)

T cells can't be actviated

197.

Many new treatments for diseases are being created using antibodies, such as cancer, lupus, Crohns, and rheumatoid arthritis. Many of them work by attaching to a molecule causing inflammation and blocking its action. Which of the following characteristics of antibodies allows researchers to use antibodies so successfully?

a)

antibodies are proteins

b)

Millions of antibodies are made

c)

Antibodies are specific to their target

d)

Antibodies last for a long time.

198.

Regarding the antibodies as new medications,: The fact that these treatments usually involve a longterm treatment plan with the patient coming in every 6 – 8 weeks for an IV infusion means that this is

a)

a passive immune treatment

b)

an active immune treatment

c)

a natural immune treatment

d)

one that invokes memory cells

199.
What is occurring at point A?
a)
hydrogen ions are pumped into the thylakoid
b)
electrons are transported along molecules
c)
an electron in chlorophyll is absorbing energy from light wavelengths 
d)
ATP is being generated from ADP and a phosphate 
200.
What is occurring at part B?
a)
an electron is absorbing light energy
b)
hydrogen ions are being pumped into the thylakoid space
c)
water is being split by an enzyme
d)
ATP is generated from ADP and a phosphate 
201.
What is occurring at point D?
a)
electrons are being transported along a transport system
b)
ATP is being generated from ADP and a phosphate
c)
an electron is absorbing light energy 
d)
NADPH is being generated
202.
In which part would you find a high concentration of hydrogen ions?
a)
outside the thylakoid, in the beige area
b)
within the membrane, the orange area
c)
inside the thylakoid, the green area
d)
within the chlorophyll molecules
203.
Chlorophyll absorbs a higher percentage of _____ and _______ light.
a)
purple and green
b)
red and blue
c)
black and orange
d)
yellow and green
204.
What is 3 pointing to?
a)
Thylakoid space
b)
Thylakoid
c)
Stroma
d)
Stomata
205.
What is the first step in the Calvin cycle?
a)
light energy is absorbed by an electron in chlorophyll 
b)
carbon dioxide is fixed/attached to an RuBP molecule
c)
G3P (3 carbon sugar) is used by the plant
d)
ATP and NADPH are used to generate G3P
206.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
207.
What is the difference between the sugars found in DNA and RNA?
a)
RNA contains glucose
b)
RNA contains sucrose
c)
RNA contains deoxyribose
d)
RNA contains Ribose
208.
Which enzyme is responsible for making RNA?
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
RNA enzymase
c)
RNA polymerase
d)
RNA proliferase
209.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? 
Normal-
T-G-A-C-C-A
Mutant-
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
210.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
211.
An enzyme that links together the growing chain of RNA nucleotides during transcription, using a DNA strand as a template.
a)
RNA Splicing
b)
RNA polymerase
c)
Uracil
d)
mRNA
212.
What are the coding regions, the parts of a gene that are expressed, called? 
a)
Tail
b)
Intron
c)
Cap
d)
Exon
213.
Which of these help protect the RNA from being attacked by cellular enzymes and help ribosomes recognize the RNA as mRNA? 
a)
Cap & tail
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA polymerase 
214.
The removal of introns and joining of exons to produce an mRNA molecule with a continuous coding sequence.
a)
RNA polymerase 
b)
Anticodon
c)
RNA splicing
d)
tRNA
215.
What is the correct sequence?
a)
RNA --> DNA --> Protein
b)
Protein --> RNA --> DNA
c)
DNA --> RNA --> Protein
d)
DNA --> Protein --> RNA
216.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
217.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
218.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
219.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
220.
A distal control region that activators bind to are bent to contact mediator proteins and form the transcription initiation complex
a)
enhancers
b)
promoters
c)
repressors
d)
transcription factors
221.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
222.
Alternative RNA splicing ____.
a)
is a mechanism for increasing the rate of translation
b)
can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA
c)
can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs
d)
increases the rate of transcription
223.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
224.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
225.
The best explanation of the data above is:
a)
The genes required for the formation of mouse paws are regulated by multiple regions of DNA during development
b)
Pollution has a mutating effect on HOX genes, which regulate mouse paw development
c)
The deletion of regulatory regions for HOX genes is associated with a decrease in transcription of mRNA.
d)
The deletion of regulatory regions for HOX genes is associated with a decrease in translation of mRNA.
226.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
227.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
228.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
229.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
230.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
231.
Why do bone cells become bone cells, heart cells become heart cells, skin cells become skin cells, etc...?
a)
It just happens randomly
b)
Determined by the mother while in the womb
c)
The turning on/off of certain genes that are needed for that type of cell
d)
The zygote tells them what to become
232.

What is 2 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

233.

A mature eukaryotic mRNA is 420 bases long, but the immature mRNA just made is 740 bases. Which of the following would be the best explanation?

a)

the mRNA is starting to be broken down by enzymes.

b)

the immature mRNA has introns that are spliced out, creating a shorter mRNA strand

c)

enzymes in the nucleus have shortened the strand by mistake, creating a malfunctioning protein

d)

a nonsense mutation caused the mRNA to break apart.

234.

Researchers label RNA nucleotides in a particular mRNA. They find a large amount of the mRNA in the cell but very little of the protein being translated. When they examine the cytoplasm, they find the labeled mRNA's are still in the cytoplasm. What could be causing the low translation?

a)

an operon repressor has disabled the mRNA

b)

microRNA's have attached to the mRNA, blocking translation

c)

transcription factors are not present

d)

activators have been turned off

235.

During the development of the nervous system, certain genes are turned off while the genes for nerve cells are kept active. Which of the following would researchers predict?

a)

Genes that are turned off would be methylated, while nerve cell genes are acetylated

b)

Genes that are turned off would be acetylated, while nerve cells are methylated

c)

both sets of genes are methylated

d)

both sets of genes are acetylated

236.

In an experiment, researchers used fruit flies and mice who both have mutations that prevent eyes from developing. Fruit flies have compound eyes typical of insects, whereas mice have eyes typical of mammals. The researchers take a gene from a normal fruit fly and insert it into an eyeless mouse embryo and find that the mouse develops normal mouse eyes. Flies given the mouse gene develop normal insect eyes. This is most likely because?

a)

The gene corrected a mutation in the mice and fruit flies genes

b)

the gene is a corrected version of the gene

c)

the gene codes for a Hox transcription factor, which turns on both the mouse eye gene and the fruit fly gene.

d)

the gene codes for a Hox repressor, which blocks another protein

237.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
238.
This produces 2 identical cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
239.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
240.
Given the crossover frequency of each of the following genes, construct a chromosome map.  
Gene    Frequency of Crossover
A-C            30%
B-C            45%
B-D            40%
A-D            25%
a)
A - B - C - D
b)
B - D - A - C
c)
B - A - D - C
d)
C - A - D - B
241.

If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual III-3 have?

a)

XhX

b)

XhXh

c)

XhYh

d)

XhY

242.
Which significance level  
(column) do you look at when finding the critical value?
a)
.50
b)
.10
c)
.05
d)
.01

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