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WorksheetsChallenge 4
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
A patient arrives at the emergency department with symptomatic narrow complex tachycardia. The patient is hemodynamically stable. The decision is made to administer intravenous (IV) adenosine. Under which of the following circumstances should the dosage of adenosine be reduced?
The patient is taking theophylline.
The patient is taking dipyridamole.
The patient has significant valvular regurgitation.
The patient has a significant left-to-right shunt.
A 28-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome presents for an offce visit. Her echocardiogram shows mitral valve prolapse, an aortic root diameter of 4.5 cm, and mild aortic regurgitation. Each of the following statements regarding cardiovascular disease in patients with Marfan syndrome is true EXCEPT
Sixty percent to 80 percent of patients with Marfan syndrome have mitral valve prolapse on echocardiography
The development of aortic regurgitation correlates with
the aortic root diameter
Patients with Marfan syndrome should be considered for
elective aortic root replacement once the aortic root diameter exceeds 5.5 cm
Beta-blockers should be administered to all patients with
Marfan syndrome unless a contraindication exists
The risk of aortic dissection during pregnancy in patients with Marfan syndrome is increased if the diameter of the aortic root exceeds 4 cm
A 66-year-old man with a history of atrial fbrillation successfully suppressed by amiodarone presents with tremors and recent weight loss. His physician suspects amiodaroneinduced thyroid dysfunction. Each of the following statements about amiodarone and thyroid function is correct EXCEPT
Amiodarone inhibits the peripheral conversion of thyroxine (T4) to triiodothyronine (T3)
During initial therapy, amiodarone decreases thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) levels
Amiodarone contains 30% iodine by weight
Amiodarone’s iodine content inhibits synthesis and release of T4 from the thyroid gland
Glucocorticoid therapy is benefcial for patients with amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism who have elevated circulating levels of interleukin-6
Of the following patients, who is the most likely to carry the diagnosis of sick sinus syndrome (SSS)?
A 65-year-old woman with a resting sinus arrhythmia varying from 70 to 85 bpm
A 73-year-old man with persistent AFib and a ventricular rate of 40 bpm during peak treadmill test
A 30-year-old with sinus pauses 1.5 seconds in duration
A 70-year-old with sinus bradycardia and AV block secondary to a β-blocker overdose
A 20-year-old athletic man with sinus bradycardia at 25 bpm while sleeping
A 50-year-old woman presents to you for evaluation. She complains of easy fatigability, as well as abdominal fullness and right upper quadrant pain. She also notes marked swelling in her legs. She has recently been diagnosed with asthma and is also undergoing evaluation for recurrent diarrhea. On examination, she has a BP of 100/60 mmHg. Heart rate is 96 bpm. There is elevation in jugular
venous pressure, with a large a wave and a prominent v wave. Lungs are clear. Cardiac examination reveals a nondisplaced PMI. Rhythm is regular. S1 and S2 (including P2) are normal. A diastolic murmur is heard along the sternal border, which increases with inspiration. A pansystolic murmur is also heard in this area. Hepatomegaly is present, along with ascites and peripheral edema.
Rheumatic heart disease
Primary pulmonary hypertension
Carcinoid
Cirrhosis of the liver secondary to chronic hepatitis
A 76-year-old woman is referred to your clinic with recent onset of exertional chest pain. She has a long-standing history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation. On examination, her body surface area is 2.0 m2, BP is 150/100 mmHg, and heart rate is 80 to 90 bpm and irregular. The carotid upstroke is delayed and diminished. The apex beat is nondisplaced but sustained. S1 is normal, and S2 is soft and paradoxically split. There is a grade II/VI ejection systolic murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border that radiates to the carotids. An echocardiogram reports normal ejection fraction with a stroke volume of 55 mL. The peak and mean gradients across the aortic valve are 44/28 mmHg. The dimensionless index is 0.21 and the calculated aortic valve area is 0.83 cm2. You review the echocardiogram (Fig. 2.6) and confirm the accuracy of the left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) diameter and are satisfied that multiple windows were used to obtain the gradients.
The echocardiogram shows inconsistent data and should be repeated
This is a definite contraindication to AVR.
The rate of mortality, for a patient with these findings, is higher compared with patients with severe AS and high gradients across the aortic valve, but aortic valve surgery has resulted in better outcomes in these patients.
The patient has moderate AS confirmed by gradients across the valve and should be followed up in 6 months with a repeat echocardiogram.
An 80-year-old women with a history of hypertension
and type 2 diabetes is hospitalized because of progressive exertional dyspnea and orthopnea. Her examination
is notable for an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP)
to the angle of the jaw, pitting peripheral edema with
warm extremities, normal blood pressure, and clear
mental status. After 4 days of treatment with a loop
diuretic she appears clinically euvolemic with a JVP of
7 cm H2O. However, the serum creatinine value has risen
from 1.6 mg/dL at the time of admission to 2.3 mg/dL.
Each of the following statements about this patient’s condition is correct EXCEPT
Diabetes and hypertension predispose to the development of cardiorenal syndrome
Worsening renal function during hospitalization for acute heart failure is an important predictor of early hospital readmission and mortality
Decreased renal venous pressure contributes to the cardiorenal syndrome
High-dose loop diuretic therapy activates neurohormones that contribute to the cardiorenal syndrome
A disproportionate rise in blood urea nitrogen compared
with serum creatinine is a sign of renal hypoperfusion
A 78-year-old nursing home resident is admitted via the
emergency department because of fever and disorientation. His physical examination demonstrates minimal bibasilar rales and no jugular venous distention, abnormal heart sounds, or peripheral edema. The ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Notable laboratory results include an elevated white blood cell count, low platelet count, and prolonged prothrombin time. The urine sediment contains numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes. A cardiology consultation is obtained for evaluation of the chest radiograph shown in Figure 2-1. The most likely explanation for the accompanying chest radiographic fndings is:
Left ventricular failure
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Gram-negative pneumonia
Posterior wall myocardial infarction
True statements about the syndrome of circulatory shock include all of the following EXCEPT
The clinical signs of shock reflect a decrease in blood
flow to multiple organs
Electrocardiographic signs of myocardial ischemia may appear in patients with apparently normal hearts owing to a reduction in regional coronary blood flow
Vasodilatory shock is associated with an excess level of
circulating vasopressin
Vasodilatory shock is the fnal common pathway for
long-lasting and severe shock of any cause
During circulatory shock, cerebral blood flow is often protected at the expense of splanchnic and renal perfusion
A 72-year-old presents with sudden-onset chest pain at a local emergency department. He has a past medical history significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and gastroesophageal reflux disease. On examination his BP is 95/60 mmHg and heart rate is 90 beats per minute and he is breathing at 90% on ambient air. He reports this is the first time he has had any episode of chest pain. His electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST elevation in V1 to V4. The nearest hospital with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) capability is 3 hours away. What is the next step in management?
Perform fibrinolysis; administer unfractionated heparin, aspirin, and clopidogrel; and admit to hospital.
Perform fibrinolysis; low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), aspirin, and clopidogrel; and transfer to the hospital for possible PCI
Administer unfractionated heparin, aspirin, and clopidogrel and admit to hospital
Administer unfractionated heparin, aspirin, and clopidogrel followed by transfer to PCIcapable hospital.
Computed tomography (CT) of the chest with intravenous contrast.
An 82-year-old woman calls 911 after developing sudden-onset chest pain, nausea, and lightheadedness. An ECG done by emergency medical service (EMS) reveals 3-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The nearest catheterization laboratory is activated and the patient undergoes PCI to the right coronary artery (RCA) with drug-eluting stent. She is transferred to the intensive care unit (ICU) in stable condition after the procedure. Two days later, the patient
develops sudden-onset lightheadedness and left-sided chest pain. Her vitals reveal BP of 115/60 mmHg, heart rate of 90 per minute and SaO2 of 92% on ambient air. Physical examination reveals new systolic murmur at the left sternal border that radiates to the apex. An ECG done immediately reveals Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF. No new ST-T changes are noted. A stat bedside echocardiogram reveals basal septal VSR with left-to-right shunt and moderate mitral regurgitation. A pulmonary artery (PA) catheter is placed and shunt fraction ( Qp/Qs) is calculated at 1.3. What is the next best step in management?
Left heart catheterization with ventriculography for better assessment of septum
Cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to better assess the size of septal rupture
Urgent surgical repair
Intravenous nitroprusside for afterload reduction
Intra-aortic balloon pulsation (IABP) placement
A 66-year-old man with stable angina at low exertion level was investigated with coronary angiography that showed an isolated significant lesion (70%) of the ostium and mid-portion of the left main coronary artery in the presence of a normal left ventricular function. What is the correct statement regarding the recommended approach?
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is the recommended approach for all patients with left main disease.
A calculation of the Society of Thoracic Surgeons (STS) and SYNTAX (Synergy between PCI with TAXUS and Cardiac Surgery) scores is not recommended at this stage.
Heart team discussion between the interventional cardiologist and the cardiac surgeon to select the best treatment option is the recommended approach.
PCI is the recommended approach for all patients with left main disease.
The choice of treatment is independent of the clinical presentations (stable angina or acute coronary syndromes [ACSs]).
A 62-year-old man was hospitalized for an NSTEMI and underwent invasive strategy with DESbased PCI. Which of the following statements about antiplatelet therapy is wrong?
After PCI, use of aspirin should be continued indefinitely.
Additional aspirin (81 to 325 mg) is recommended in all patients on chronic aspirin therapy before PCI.
Patients not on aspirin should be given nonenteric aspirin 325 mg before PCI.
In patients receiving a stent (BMS or DES) during PCI for ACS, P2Y12 receptor inhibitor should be given for 12 months.
A loading dose of a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor should be given to patients undergoing PCI with stenting at the latest after completion of PCI (e.g., clopidogrel 600 mg, prasugrel 60 mg, and ticagrelor 180 mg).
Which of the following statements is true with regard to ACE inhibitors?
ACE inhibitor dose is negligible in HF with regard to mortality benefit
ACE inhibitor–associated potassium retention is related to the increase in feedback that leads to aldosterone release.
Mortality benefit in heart failure (HF) patients is a class effect with ACE inhibitors, and all are Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved for this indicati
Sodium depletion is an important factor in the development of renal insufficiency associated with ACE inhibitors.
The patient above is going to be electively cardioverted. What is the timing of PO anticoagulant therapy?
Warfarin with a target INR of 3.5 for 3 weeks before cardioversion and continued for 6 weeks after cardioversion
Warfarin with a target INR of 2.5 for 3 weeks before cardioversion and continued for 4 weeks after cardioversion
Warfarin with a target INR of 3.5 for 4 weeks before cardioversion and continued for 6 weeks after cardioversion
Warfarin with a target INR of 2.5 for 6 weeks before cardioversion and continued for 6 weeks after cardioversion
A 66-year-old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presents for evaluation of exertional dyspnea. He denies associated chest discomfort but frequently awakens from sleep with shortness of breath. On examination, he has prominent jugular venous distention, a regular heart rhythm with an apical S4 gallop, bibasilar rales, hepatomegaly, and mild bilateral pedal edema. Electrocardiography reveals sinus rhythm at a rate of 94 beats/min without ST-segment deviations or pathologic Q waves. Echocardiography is notable for a left ventricular ejection fraction of 25% and akinesis of the anterior wall. Subsequent coronary angiography reveals severe three-vessel coronary artery disease with distal targets suitable for surgical revascularization. Which of the following statements about this patient’s ischemic cardiomyopathy is correct?
Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is superior to
medical therapy only if angina is present
In this patient’s case, dobutamine echocardiography
could be used to differentiate anterior wall infarction
from hibernating myocardium
CABG improves quality of life and survival more than
medical therapy only if >50% of the myocardium is
shown to be viable
Stunned myocardium refers to persistent contractile dysfunction caused by chronically reduced coronary blood
flow
Surgical ventricular reconstruction should be performed
along with CABG because the anterior wall is akinetic
Each of the following conditions is associated with the
development of pulmonary edema EXCEPT
Increased pulmonary venous pressure
High altitude
Increased plasma oncotic pressure
Eclampsia
Heroin overdose
A 52-year-old businessman presents to the offce complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath. He has also recently noticed that he is more comfortable sleeping on three pillows. He denies chest discomfort or pleuritic pain. His only medications are hydrochlorothiazide, 25 mg daily, and atenolol, 50 mg daily, for hypertension of 10 years’ duration, with good control. His past medical history includes an appendectomy. He smokes 12 pack of cigarettes per day. He drinks whiskey socially and admits to two martinis at lunchtime each day. There is no family history of heart disease. On examination, his heart rate is 104 beats/min, respirations are 20 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 134/84 mm Hg. There are no hypertensive changes in the fundi. There are bibasilar rales over the lower third of the lung felds; the carotid upstrokes are normal. The apical impulse is laterally displaced and sustained. S1 and S2 are normal. There is a loud S4 and a moderately loud S3. There is a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla. The remainder of the examination fndings are normal except for a trace of pedal edema. The chest radiograph shows left ventricular (LV) enlargement. The ECG is consistent with LV hypertrophy. The most likely cause for this man’s heart failure is
Hypertension
Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
Coronary atherosclerosis
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Excessive beta-blocker dosage
True statements about permanent pacemakers include all
of the following EXCEPT
AAIR pacing is appropriate for patients with sinus node
dysfunction and intact atrioventricular (AV) conduction
Symptomatic Wenckebach AV block is an indication for
permanent pacing
Pacemaker syndrome can be manifest in any pacing
mode in which there is AV dissociation
Medically refractory hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a class I indication for the placement of a permanent dualchamber pacemaker
A pacemaker mode-switching option is benefcial for patients with paroxysmal supraventricular rhythm disturbances
Each of the following statements regarding the antiarrhythmic drug dronedarone is true, EXCEPT
Its electrophysiologic properties are similar to amiodarone
It is safe for use in patients with heart failure symptoms
The prevalence of thyroid toxicity is low
The prevalence of thyroid toxicity is low
Acute hepatic failure is a potential complication
A 67-year-old man with long-standing HTN presents to the emergency room (ER) with sudden-onset chest pain described as ripping in quality, subsiding since its onset. He underwent a cardiac catheterization 6 months previously that showed a 40% lesion in the mid-left anterior descending coronary artery. His medications include aspirin, gemfibrozil, and nifedipine.
Physical Examination
He appears diaphoretic. HR—110 bpm; BP—106/54 mmHg (right arm); 72/35 mmHg (left arm). Jugular venous pressure—12 cm H2O. Heart sounds are soft and there is no audible systolic or diastolic murmur. Left radial and brachial pulses are weak. ECG on presentation shows ST elevations in the inferior leads and low voltage. Chest X-ray (CXR) shows cardiomegaly with a globular-shaped heart and interstitial edema. Which of the following is the first diagnostic test that should be performed?
Cardiac enzymes
TTE
MRA of the aorta
Cardiac catheterization
A 45-year-old woman presents with discomfort in her left leg with walking, dizziness, headaches, and a cold right hand. She has no chest pain or shortness of breath. There is no significant past medical history and she does not smoke.
Physical Examination
BP—170/82 mmHg (left arm) and 140/68 mmHg (right arm). Lung sounds are clear. Cardiac examination is notable for a normal S1 and S2 and II/VI diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border. The right brachial pulse is diminished and lower extremity pulses are diminished. A bruit is heard over the left carotid artery and right subclavian artery. What test would be most useful for diagnosing the patient’s condition?
TEE
Angiography
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head
Carotid duplex ultrasound
A 65-year-old man presents with progressive, short-distance, intermittent claudication in his right leg and a declining ABI. He undergoes an abdominal aortic angiogram with runoff demonstrating a discrete 90% stenotic lesion of the superficial femoral artery. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty followed by placement of a self-expanding nitinol mesh stent is performed with good post-procedural angiographic results. Which of the following is the most appropriate postprocedure surveillance program for this patient?
Regular visits with assessment for interval change in symptoms, vascular examination, and arterial duplex at 1 month, 3 months, and at month 12
Regular visits with assessment for interval change in symptoms, vascular examination, and ABI measurement at 3 months, 6 months, 9 months, and at month 12
Regular visits with assessment for interval change in symptoms, vascular examination, and ABI measurement beginning in the immediate post-procedure period and at intervals for at least 2 years
Regular visits with assessment for interval change in symptoms, vascular examination, and arterial duplex at 3 months, 6 months, 12 months, and 2 years
Annual visits with assessment for interval change in symptoms, vascular examination, ABI measurement, and arterial duplex
A 68-year-old gentleman underwent coronary artery bypass surgery using the saphenous vein harvested from his left leg. He has done well postoperatively except for failure of the left leg incision to heal completely. Four months after surgery, his leg is still not fully healed and a periincisional ulcer is now present. He has significant edema in his leg, which was present prior to surgery. There are no symptoms or physical findings suggestive of infection. His ABI is 0.94 on the right and 0.89 on the left. You order an ultrasound, which is negative for acute thrombus but does reveal significant venous valvular incompetence in the deep veins. Which of the following is most likely to improve this patient’s wound healing?
Whirlpool therapy
Antibiotics and topical steroids
Compression stockings
Plastic surgery consult
Revascularization
True statements about digitalis-induced arrhythmias include all of the following EXCEPT
Ventricular bigeminy with varying morphology and regular coupling is a sign of digitalis toxicity
Nonparoxysmal junctional tachycardia is a common digitalis-induced arrhythmia
Atrial tachycardia with block is diagnostic of digitalis toxicity
The development of atrioventricular dissociation in a patient taking digitalis is a likely indication of digitalis toxicity
Ventricular premature beats are common but are not highly specifc for the presence of digitalis toxicity
A 25-year-old asymptomatic man presents for routine physical examination with his new primary care physician. The physician notes that the patient is tall with unusually long limbs and pectus excavatum. There is no family history of Marfan syndrome. Which of the following is among the
“major criteria” for the diagnosis of Marfan syndrome?
Mitral valve prolapse
Mild pectus excavatum
Joint hypermobility
Descending aortic aneurysm
Ectopia lentis
Which of the following statements regarding bare metal
stents (BMS) is correct?
BMSs have a 5% to 10% rate of angiographic in-stent
restenosis
BMS in-stent restenosis is more likely to occur in
diabetics
Direct coronary atherectomy and rotational atherectomy
are the preferred therapies for in-stent restenosis
Brachytherapy is more effective than placement of a
drug-eluting stent for BMS in-stent restenosis
A 63-year-old man with long-standing insulin-requiring
diabetes presented to his physician’s offce 2 weeks ago for management of hypertension. His blood pressure was 160/94 mm Hg. The serum creatinine was 1.6 mg/dL and
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) was 30 mg/dL, with otherwise
normal serum chemistries. A potassium-sparing diuretic (triamterene plus hydrochlorothiazide) was prescribed. When he returns 2 weeks later, the serum potassium level
is 6.8 mmol/L with no signifcant change in BUN or creatinine level. The most likely contributing mechanism is
Excessive consumption of tomatoes and bananas
A recent urinary tract infection
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
Cushing syndrome
You are taking care of a 65-year-old man with history of coronary artery disease and prior bypass surgery. He is currently taking carvedilol and lisinopril at maximum doses. He was recently hospitalized for heart failure 3 months ago. Which of the following criteria would make it reasonable to add eplerenone to his regimen?
EF of 20% and dyspnea while doing chores at home (New York Heart Association [NYHA] class II symptoms)
Ejection fraction (EF) of 15% with creatinine clearance of 20 mL/min/1.73 m2
EF of 35% with QRS >130 milliseconds
EF of 45% and dyspnea with walking
A 72-year-old woman is transferred from another hospital. She was initially admitted with palpitation, diagnosed with AFib, and treated with amiodarone. A transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) showed an EF of 10% with a regional wall motion abnormality. She underwent cardiac
catheterization and was found to have a heavily calcified 80% lesion in the mid–left anterior descending artery (LAD), a 40% lesion in a nondominant circumflex, and an 80% lesion in the posterior descending artery. Her children want to know what you plan to do for her. What should you recommend?
She has terrible EF and should be on medication only because CABG would be of too high risk
She should have a positron emission tomography (PET) scan to assess the area of viability before proceeding with CABG or PCI
She should undergo PCI because she is too high risk for CABG
She should undergo CABG because this is the definitive treatment
An 86-year-old woman is transferred from a nursing home in respiratory distress. She was found to be short of breath. On examination, she has labored breathing, and her BP is 62/34 mmHg with an HR of 60 bpm. She is intubated in the ER and admitted to the CCU. She is started on norepinephrine and dopamine at high doses without significant effect. Her ECG shows sinus bradycardia but is otherwise unremarkable. Her chest X-ray (CXR) shows pulmonary edema. The nursing home calls and says that she has mistakenly received 100 mg IV metoprolol tartrate.
Which of the following should be your next step
Glucagon and dobutamine
IABP
Glucagon and milrinone
Fluid resuscitation
Transvenous pacemaker
A 61-year-old woman with CHF and an EF of 25% is admitted with CHF exacerbation to your partner’s service. On the day of discharge, your partner is sick, and you must explain her discharge medications. You explain to her the benefits of lisinopril, simvastatin, aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide. Finally, you want to explain the benefit of spironolactone (Aldactone) to her. What is your explanation?
Spironolactone in addition to standard therapy (ACE inhibitor, diuretic) does not decrease mortality or morbidity
Spironolactone in addition to standard therapy decreases mortality and rehospitalization.
Spironolactone in addition to standard therapy only decreases rehospitalization—it does not improve NYHA functional class.
Spironolactone only benefits those not on standard therapy.
For which of the following conditions is IE prophylaxis not required prior to extensive dental procedures (more than one option may be correct)?
4 weeks following percutaneous closure of a secundum atrial septal defect (ASD)
Mechanical aortic valve replacement (AVR) for bicuspid aortic valve disease
Ebstein anomaly without prior intervention
Eisenmenger syndrome
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) with residual VSD at the site of prior surgical repair
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to pregnancy?
Ebstein anomaly
Congenitally corrected transposition of g
Eisenmenger syndrome
Status post Fontan operation
Surgically corrected transposition of great arteries
The final common pathway of platelet aggregation is mediated through
adenosine diphosphate (ADP) binding
glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa receptor.
αvβ3 receptor
thrombin.
collagen.
The following are endothelium-independent vasodilators except
adenosine.
acetylcholine (ACh).
papaverine
nitroglycerin
verapamil
Each of the following statements concerning the utility of
cardiac biomarkers in patients with acute coronary syndromes is correct EXCEPT
Levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) are greatly elevated in patients with an acute coronary syndrome (ACS) compared with patients with stable coronary disease
CRP and cardiac-specifc troponin levels offer complementary information in the prognosis of patients with
ACS
In patients with unstable angina, an elevated myeloperoxidase level is associated with increased risk of death
Patients with elevated levels of B-type natriuretic peptide have a twofold to threefold increased risk of adverse events
Patients with non–ST-elevation MI and elevated white blood cell (WBC) counts have similar mortality rates as those with normal WBC counts
True statements regarding the use of fbrinolytic therapy in acute myocardial infarction (MI) include all of the following EXCEPT
Fibrinolytic therapy reduces the mortality of ST-segment
elevation MI by 15% to 20% at 1 month
Compared with patients with anterior ST-segment elevation, those who present with a bundle branch block have a similar risk reduction with fbrinolytic therapy
Compared with patients with anterior ST-segment elevation, patients with inferior ST-segment elevation demonstrate a greater risk reduction with fbrinolytic therapy
Clinical trial data demonstrate no mortality beneft of fbrinolysis administered more than 12 hours after the onset of symptoms
Patients older than age 75 years experience an absolute reduction in mortality similar to that of patients younger than 55 years
True statements about right ventricular infarction (RVI)
include all of the following EXCEPT
RVI may result in the Kussmaul sign
ST-segment elevation in lead V4 is commonly present
Echocardiography typically demonstrates right ventricular enlargement and hypokinesis
A marked hypotensive response to nitroglycerin administration is consistent with this diagnosis
Atrioventricular sequential pacing offers greater hemodynamic beneft than single-chamber ventricular pacing in patients with RVI
A newly diagnosed diabetic patient presents with multiple blood pressure (BP) readings that are 155/95 mm Hg or higher. All of the following statements about treatment of this patient’s hypertension are correct EXCEPT
Current guidelines recommend a BP target of <140/90 in
diabetics
Control of BP reduces cardiovascular event rates more
in diabetics than in nondiabetics
Pharmacologic blockade of the renin-angiotensin system reduces the risk of both microvascular and macrovascular events
Antihypertensive therapy with dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers reduces cardiovascular event rates
Aggressive BP control (target systolic BP <120 mm Hg) in diabetics has been shown to reduce cardiovascular event rates more than a target systolic BP <140 mm Hg
An 83-year-old woman presents to cardiology clinic for follow-up of her hypertension and coronary artery disease. Her only current symptom is dizziness on standing from a sitting position. The dizziness caused her to lose balance and fall on two occasions. Her current resting blood pressure is 144/90 mmHg with pulse 60 beats per minute (bpm). Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily, doxazosin 2 mg daily, metoprolol XL 50 mg daily, simvastatin 40 mg daily, and aspirin 81 mg daily. What changes in medication therapy would you
recommend?
Discontinue doxazosin and start lisinopril 5 mg daily.
Discontinue atenolol and increase hydrochlorothiazide to 50 mg daily.
Discontinue hydrochlorothiazide and start lisinopril 20 mg daily.
Discontinue doxazosin and initiate clonidine 0.4 mg twice daily.
Discontinue doxazosin and increase metoprolol to 100 mg daily.
A 58-year-old obese man with hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and recent myocardial infarction presents for his annual physical examination. He is currently prescribed atenolol, hydrochlorothiazide, amlodipine, and quinapril. His blood pressure is at target values. His HbA1c is at goal. However, he has noted increasing lower extremity edema over the past few months and had a near-fatal car accident after falling asleep while driving. His echocardiogram reveals an ejection fraction of 65% with no evidence of diastolic dysfunction. Which of the following management decisions would be most appropriate at this time?
Addition of loop diuretic
Maintain current regimen with advisement that his symptoms are typical with aging
Discontinue calcium channel blocker
Polysomnography
Which of the following statements regarding FH is NOT true?
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) indications for LDL apheresis after maximal tolerated pharmacologic therapy include (a) homozygous FH patients and (b) heterozygous FH in the absence of CHD when LDL-C ≥300 mg/dL and in the presence of CHD when LDLC ≥200 mg/dL.
Mipomersen (which inhibits the translation of apoB100 mRNA, thus blocking the production of apoB100 and formation of very low-density lipoprotein [VLDL] and LDL particles) lowers LDL-C by 28% to 36% in individuals with homozygous and heterozygous FH
TC levels are generally >600 mg/dL with LDL-C levels 6- to eightfold higher than average in individuals with homozygous FH
Simon Broome Register Group criteria for definite FH requires (a) TC >290 mg/dL in adults or TC >260 mg/dL in children under 16 years OR LDL-C >190 mg/dL in adults or >155 mg/dL in children PLUS (b) tendon xanthomas in the patient, or first- or second-degree relative OR DNA-based evidence of mutations such as LDL-R mutation or familial defective apoB100.
Lomitapide has been approved to treat homozygous and heterozygous FH
A 53-year-old obese, sedentary woman undergoes lipid screening, revealing TC of 310, TG of 720, HDL-C of 41. LDL-C was not calculated due to elevated TG. HbA1c is 5.9 and thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) is normal. NCEP ATP III guideline recommendations for TGs and HDL-C management include all but which of the following:
In patients attaining LDL-C goals, those with TG ≥200 mg/dL have an increased cholesterol content of TG-rich, atherogenic lipoprotein particles. Non–HDL-C takes into account cholesterol in these and LDL particles and is a secondary target for therapy.
If TGs are ≥500 mg/dL, then TG is the primary target with use of therapeutic options to prevent pancreatitis including fibrates or niacin before LDL-lowering therapy, than treat LDL-C to goal.
Non–HDL-C goal equals the LDL-C goal +30 mg/dL.
HDL-C <40 mg/dL is defined as low and is a risk factor for CVD
Therapeutic goal for TG is <150 mg/dL and for HDL-C is >40 in men and >50 in women.
A 62-year-old man with cardiac risk factors of tobacco use, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus returns for follow-up after late-presenting mid-left anterior descending artery (LAD) STelevation myocardial infarction (MI). He had an occluded mid-LAD, which was successfully aspirated and stented with a single drug-eluting stent; no significant disease elsewhere is noted. The next day he reports progressive chest discomfort and mild fever and has developed a twocomponent pericardial friction rub on physical examination. His ECG is concerning for pericarditis (Dressler syndrome) and an echo is performed showing no interval change from discharge other than the presence of a small pericardial effusion. Which of the following regimens would be the most appropriate therapy in this patient?
Aspirin 325 daily for 2 weeks, then taper to 81 mg daily + ibuprofen 600 mg TID for 3 months
Aspirin 650 TID for 2 weeks with taper to 81 mg daily + colchicine 0.5 mg BID for 3 months
Ibuprofen 600 mg TID for 2 weeks with taper + colchicine 0.5 mg BID for 3 months
Indomethacin 50 mg TID for 3 months as well as aspirin 650 mg TID for 3 months with taper to 81 mg
A 32-year-old white man presented initially with low-grade fever, cough, and pleuritic chest pain. He was found on ECG to have diffuse ST-segment elevation. A transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) revealed a large pericardial effusion, and serologies were positive for coxsackievirus B infection. He was diagnosed with acute viral pericarditis and treated with indomethacin. He returns 4 weeks later for follow-up and states that he no longer has any pain, but he notes some mild ankle swelling. His ECG is normal. A repeat TTE shows resolution of the effusion but new findings consistent with mild constriction. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Obtain cardiac MRI to better assess the pericardium.
Reassure the patient and observe him over the next 3 months for worsening of symptoms
Have a cardiothoracic surgical consultation for pericardiectomy.
Start a course of steroids.
The images in Figure 14.3A–C belong to a 65-year-old woman with lung cancer and a central venous catheter for chemotherapy. The structure seen on these images is most likely to be
prominent Chiari network.
implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) wire.
right atrial (RA) thrombus or thrombus on central venous catheter.
RA myxoma.
The images in Figure 14.6A and B are from a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) from a patient who is a 57-year-old woman with lung cancer who presents with chest pain (CP) and SOB. The most likely cause of her CP and SOB based on these images is
myocardial infarction (MI)
aortic dissection.
pericardial effusion with pericarditis/tamponade.
pulmonary embolus.
pneumonia.
Each of the following statements about pharmacologic
therapy for secondary prevention of coronary artery disease is correct EXCEPT
Long-term aspirin use after myocardial infarction (MI) reduces cardiovascular mortality, re-infarction, and stroke rates
After MI, beta-blocker therapy signifcantly reduces mortality over the next 2 to 3 years
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors administered after MI confer an early mortality reduction only in patients with left ventricular dysfunction
Administration of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors reduces cardiovascular deaths after MI in patients with average cholesterol levels
After an acute MI, intensive lipid lowering with a high-dose statin confers improved clinical outcomes compared with only moderate lipid lowering
A 70-year-old businessman presented to the emergency
department (ED) of a university medical center with multiple episodes of anterior substernal chest discomfort over the prior 2 days, each lasting 5-10 minutes in duration. He has a history of hypertension, elevated LDL-cholesterol and had been a regular cigarette smoker until stopping 4 months ago. He experienced a single transient ischemic attack 1 year ago. His home medications included aspirin 81 mg daily, atorvastatin 10 mg daily, and lisinopril 10 mg daily. The initial ECG was unremarkable, but while being evaluated in the ED he experienced another 5-minute episode of chest discomfort, during which the ECG demonstrated transient 1-mm ST depression in leads II, III, aVF, V5, and V6. The initial cardiac troponin T was 0.06 ng/mL (reference range <0.01). He received aspirin, IV unfractionated heparin, beta-blocker, and high-dose (80 mg) atorvastatin therapies and suffered no further episodes of chest discomfort. On examination, the blood pressure is 116/82, heart rate 72 bpm, jugular venous pressure 6 cm water, the chest is clear, cardiac examination shows an apical S4 and no murmur, the abdomen is benign, and there is no peripheral edema. No arrhythmias are observed on telemetry. Three hours after presentation, the cardiac troponin T is 0.08 ng/mL. The serum creatinine is 1.11 mg/dL. Of the following approaches, which would be most appropriate?
Add prasugrel and pursue an ischemia-guided (i.e., “conservative”) strategy
Add clopidogrel and pursue an ischemia-guided strategy
Add either ticagrelor or clopidogrel and pursue an early
invasive strategy
Add prasugrel and pursue an early invasive strategy
Do not add additional antiplatelet therapy at this time
and pursue an ischemia-guided strategy
