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WorksheetsState Assessment Review 2020
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 9hrs 5mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which is NOT an example of a functional test after an ankle sprain?
a)
Run Figure 8
b)
Hop on the injured foot
c)
Walk on the toes
d)
Walk on the lateral borders of the feet
2.
Which of the following modalities can be used to modulate pain acutely?
a)
Exercise
b)
Ice
c)
Heat
d)
Massage
3.
The mechanism of injury that leaves the PCL at greatest risk for injury is:
a)
Falling with knee bent and ankle dorsiflexed
b)
Hyperextension of the knee
c)
Landing on the anterior aspect of the knee
d)
Valgus stress with the knee fully extended
4.
Severe point tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox may indicate a fracture of the:
a)
Lunate
b)
Hamate
c)
Scaphoid
d)
Trapezoid
5.
If an athlete steps in a hole and the ankle is forced into dorsiflexion, which ligament is hurt
a)
calcaneofibular
b)
anterior talofibular
c)
Interosseous membrane
d)
anterior tibiofibular
6.
Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit HIV?
a)
Saliva
b)
Blood
c)
Semen
d)
Vaginal Fluid
7.
If you are wanting to help re-educate a muscle, which modality would you choose?
a)
Heating pad
b)
Cold whirlpool
c)
Ultrasound
d)
Electrical Stimulation
8.
An injury in which a bone partially comes out of its normal location and goes right back is:
a)
Stress fracture
b)
Dislocation
c)
Subluxation
d)
Avulsion Fracture
9.
Treating a suspected phalanx fracture includes all of the following except:
a)
Splinting the finger in extension
b)
application of ice
c)
Splinting the finger in flexion
d)
Referral to a physician
10.
What is a blood borne pathogen?
a)
fluid contaminated with blood
b)
a microorganism that can cause disease
c)
an organism only found in human blood
d)
a disease characterized by the inflammation of the liver
11.
Lateral epicondylitis results from:
a)
chronic fatigue of the biceps
b)
repeated trauma to the olecranon
c)
repetitive extension of the wrist
d)
repeated forceful flexion of the elbow
12.
Fractures of the shoulder complex should be immobilized using:
a)
sam splint
b)
air splint
c)
sling and swathe
d)
swathe
13.
Which of the following modalities is best used for deep tissue heating?
a)
heating pad
b)
warm whirlpool
c)
ultrasound
d)
electrical stimuation
14.
all of the following are the greatest risk for HIV transmission except:
a)
Football
b)
boxing
c)
wrestling
d)
rugby
15.
A sprain that involves total tearing of tissue is classified as
a)
first degree
b)
second degree
c)
third degree
d)
fourth degree
16.
the motions of the elbow joint are:
a)
pronation and supination
b)
flexion and extension
c)
radial and ulnar deviation
d)
inversion and eversion
17.
a condition in which the nerves are entrapped between the metatarsal heads with swelling is:
a)
mortons syndrome
b)
mortons neuroma
c)
hammer toes
d)
hallux neuritis
18.
eversion ankle sprains are associated with which of the following
a)
tearing of the deltoid ligament
b)
tearing of the calcaneofibular ligament
c)
ligament contusion
d)
fracture of the tibia
19.
After an injury, acute management should be done for how many hours?
a)
24-48
b)
48-72
c)
72-69
d)
at least a week
20.
Which of the following is NOT one of the arches of the foot
a)
transverse arch
b)
medial longitudinal arch
c)
tarsal arch
d)
metatarsal arch
21.
Management of an avulsed tooth includes all of the following except:
a)
scrubbing the tooth with a sterile gauze pad to get the dirt
b)
attempting to re-implant the tooth
c)
referring immediately to dentist
d)
placing the tooth in saline solution if unable to reimplant
22.
A painful condition involving partial or complete separation of piece of articular cartilage is
a)
Osteochondritis Dissecans
b)
Joint mice
c)
osgood-schlatter disease
d)
larsen-johansson disease
23.
Which of the following wounds results from the skin being torn from the body?
a)
Incision
b)
Avulsion
c)
laceration
d)
abrasion
24.
When does the rehabilitation process start?
a)
When the athlete is strong enough to do exercise
b)
after the swelling has gone down
c)
immediately after the injury
d)
when the athlete feels comfortable
25.
What is the first step when evaluating an injury?
a)
History
b)
Observation
c)
Palpation
d)
Special Tests/Stress Test
26.
Which of the following sites can have osteoarthiritis?
a)
Lumbar spine
b)
knees
c)
hips
d)
all answers listed
27.
After a quick onsite injury inspection/evaluation which of the following decisions need to be:
a)
immediate referral to doctor
b)
seriousness of the injury
c)
manner of transportation from injury site
d)
all answers listed
28.
pain and discomfort during and right after exercise describes:
a)
neuritis
b)
acute onset muscle soreness
c)
delayed onset muscle soreness
d)
myositis ossificans
29.
Which of the followins endpoints indicates a first degree sprain?
a)
soft with some instability and moderate pain
b)
firm with little to no instability and some pain
c)
soft with marked instability with mild pain
d)
abrupt with no pain
30.
Which of the following is key to treating tendonitis?
a)
injection with a steriod
b)
resting
c)
stretching
d)
taking anti-inflammatory medicine
31.
In transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal or pelvic injury you should
a)
Use ambulatory aide
b)
carry the athlete with help from 3 other people
c)
Manual conveyance
d)
use a spineboard and move under the direction of a dr
32.
If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken?
a)
Blood should be rinsed with water
b)
nothing
c)
uniform should be changed immediately
d)
uniform changed at half time
33.
The lachmans test is used to evaluate the stability of the
a)
ACL
b)
PCL
c)
LCL
d)
MCL
34.
If exposed to a blood borne pathogen which one should you NOT do?
a)
completion of a medical form
b)
notify the coach
c)
Perform a blood test
d)
meet with a counselor
35.
most elbow dislocations result in the ulna and radius dislocating:
a)
anteriorly
b)
posteriorly
c)
laterally
d)
medially
36.
The most common mechanism of injury of the ankle complex is:
a)
Plantarflexion/eversion
b)
Plantarflexion/inversion
c)
dorsiflexion/eversion
d)
dosiflexion/inversion
37.
When one is controlling external bleeding what is the SECOND thing you must do?
a)
apply gloves
b)
apply direct pressure over wound
c)
apply pressure over the artery
d)
apply pressure over pressure point
38.
All of the following modalities can be used by a non healthcare provider except
a)
Electrical stimulation
b)
ice
c)
heat
d)
massage
39.
The main shaft of the bone is known as the
a)
Periosteum
b)
Diaphysis
c)
epiphysis
d)
articular cartilage
40.
Pain on the anterior medial heel that occurs with the first steps in the morning is indicative:
a)
Plantar Fascitis
b)
Calcaneal Fractures
c)
calcaneal apophysitis
d)
Cuboid subluxation
41.
Which of the following eye injuries is painless and results in flecks and flashes of lights
a)
conjuctivitis
b)
hyphema
c)
corneal abrasion
d)
detached retina
42.
Which of the following is the single most important consideration in preventing head injuries?
a)
Correct tackling technique
b)
wearing a helmet
c)
wearing a mouthpiece
d)
warning labels on helmets
43.
An athlete sustained a concussion, what must occur FIRST before RTP?
a)
being symptom free for 24 hours
b)
passed impact test
c)
completed his RTP protocol
d)
never return to participation
44.
An athlete who has immediate, significant swelling has an injury to what structure?
a)
Capsule
b)
Cartilage
c)
meniscus
d)
ligament
45.
A general term applied to a variety of overuse leg conditions
a)
compartment syndrome
b)
tibial periositis
c)
medial tibial stress syndrome
d)
exertional syndrome
46.
all of the following are chronic injuries EXCEPT
a)
shoulder subluxation
b)
peroneal longus tenosynovitis
c)
patellar tendonitis
d)
hip osteoarthritis
47.
Which nerve can become irritated secondary to cubitus valgus
a)
Musculocutaneous
b)
Median
c)
ulnar
d)
radial
48.
What is the normal pulse rate and respiratory rate for an adult?
a)
60-100BPM/15 breaths/min
b)
60-100BPM/ 20 breaths/min
c)
60-80BPM/12 breaths/min
d)
60-80/BPM 20 Breaths/min
49.
the first step to establish unresponsiveness of an athlete is to
a)
roll the upper eyelid back and check for pupil dialation
b)
determine whether he/she is breathing normally
c)
Gently tap their shoulder and shout "are you ok?"
d)
Check the carotid
50.
The ligament that protects the knee from valgus stress and external rotational forces is the:
a)
PCL
b)
ACL
c)
MCL
d)
LCL
51.
Which type of wound is tetanus associated with?
a)
Abrasion
b)
Laceration
c)
Puncture
d)
Avulsion
52.
Which of the following regions contain spinal fluid?
a)
Arachnoid Space
b)
Dura Mater
c)
Pia Mater
d)
Subarachnoid Space
53.
A bunion is usually associated with a bone growth on:
a)
Any of the toes
b)
The first toe
c)
The internal malleolus
d)
The ball of the foot
54.
A stress fx of the 2nd metatarsal is known as a:
a)
Colles Fracture
b)
Jones Fracture
c)
Runners Fracture
d)
March's Fracture
55.
A deformity caused by a rupture of the extensor tendon over the distal phalanx is called:
a)
Mallet Finger
b)
Games Keepers Thumb
c)
Jersey Finger
d)
Boutonniere Deformity
56.
How far must the sternum be depressed in an adult to perform CPR effectively?
a)
1 - 1.5 inches
b)
.5 - 1 inch
c)
1.5 - 2 inches
d)
at least 2 inches
57.
Treatment of a hamstring strain commonly takes:
a)
2 - 3 weeks
b)
3 - 4 weeks
c)
1-2 weeks
d)
4 -8 weeks
58.
Which condition occurs 12 hours after injury and is most intense after about 24 to 48 hours?
a)
Neuritis
b)
Myositis Ossificans
c)
DOMS
d)
Crepitis
59.
Cold application has been shown to do all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
Slow nerve transmission
b)
Decrease cell metabolic rate
c)
Increase the amount of exudate
d)
Decrease blood flow to the injured area
60.
What is the first steps you should take when caring for all minor skin wounds?
a)
Apply gloves
b)
apply a sterile dressing to the wound
c)
Clean the wound is hydrogen peroxide
d)
Apply antibiotic ointment
61.
which of the following ice treatments should not be applied directly to the skin?
a)
Ice Packs
b)
Ice Towels
c)
Ice Cups
d)
Frozen Gel Packs
62.
When wanting to treat hands/fingers with heat, which modality would be BEST
a)
Heating Pad
b)
Warm Whirlpool
c)
Parafin Bath
d)
Contrast Bath
63.
When evaluating an unconscious athlete you would first
a)
look for the possibility of impaired breathing
b)
call a physician
c)
Remove any protective equipment
d)
Roll the athlete face up
64.
which of the following complication is a result of repeated blows to an area?
a)
Neuritis
b)
Myositis Ossificans
c)
DOMS
d)
Crepitis
65.
This injury occurs when RTP too soon following a concussion and receiving a SECOND concussion
a)
Post Concussion Syndrome
b)
Migraine Headaches
c)
Cerebral Hyperemia
d)
Second Impact syndrom
66.
The heel is also known as the:
a)
Talus
b)
Navicular
c)
Cuboid
d)
Calcaneous
67.
Which of the following structures provide the main source of stability in the knee?
a)
Ligaments
b)
Menisci
c)
Bones
d)
Cartilage
68.
Which of the following muscles is not on the anterior surface of the arm?
a)
Brachiali
b)
Biceps
c)
Triceps
d)
Brachioradialis
69.
A wrist ganglion is often seen in sports and most frequently appears:
a)
On the dorsal surface of the wrist
b)
Over the Navicular bone
c)
On the palmar side of the wrist
d)
At the ligamentous point the wrist
70.
Which of the following is not a sign of anterior compartment syndrome
a)
Weakness in the gastrocnemius
b)
Deep aching pain
c)
Increased compartment pressure due to swelling
d)
Reduced sensation in the foot
71.
athlete complains of burning, tingling, paresthesia to the 4/5 fingers what is damaged?
a)
Interosseous muscles
b)
Flexor digiti minimi
c)
Medial Nerve
d)
Ulnar Nerve
72.
Neuromuscular control of the ankle specifically uses ___ exercises to prevent injuries
a)
Endurance
b)
Flexibility
c)
Balance
d)
Strength
73.
Feelings of locking are associated with injury to which structure?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Bone
c)
Ligament
d)
Muscle
74.
this is common to runners and cyclists s/s: pain; irritation over the lateral femoral condyle
a)
Jumpers Knee
b)
Pes Anserinus Tendonitis
c)
Illiotibial Band
d)
Biceps Femoris Tendonitis
75.
type of dressing is MOST beneficial in providing a barrier against disease transmission & moist
a)
Occlusive dressing
b)
Bandaid with antibiotic ointment
c)
Non-adhesive gauze
d)
Gauze with antibiotic ointment
76.
In the subacute phase of rehabilitation, which modality is BEST to use?
a)
Cold Whirlpool
b)
Warm Whirlpool
c)
Electrical Stimulation
d)
Contrast Bath
77.
Third degree inversion ankle sprains are often associated with (the)
a)
tearing of a few supportive ligaments
b)
tearing of all medial ligaments
c)
Tenderness over entire medial aspect
d)
Total Rupture of lateral ligaments
78.
Another name for flat feet is
a)
Pes Equina
b)
Pes Planus
c)
Pes Cavus
d)
Hallus Rigidis
79.
In the lower leg there are ___ separate compartments containing muscles, tendons, nerves...
a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Five
80.
The most frequently injured aspect of the ankle is the _____ aspect.
a)
Lateral
b)
Medial
c)
Anterior
d)
Posterior
81.
The fallen medial longitudinal arch is associated with a(n)
a)
Pes Planus
b)
Fallen Metatarsal Heads
c)
Tight Achilles Tendon
d)
Pes Cavus
82.
Which of the following is the most important with regards to controlling swelling?
a)
Rest
b)
Ice
c)
Compression
d)
Elevation
83.
A general term used to describe pain in the ball of the foot is:
a)
Metatarsalgia
b)
Bursitis
c)
Mortons Syndomr
d)
Exostoses
84.
Which of the following symptoms are not indicative of a serious eye injury?
a)
excessive watering of the eye
b)
blurry vision
c)
Diplopia
d)
Partial loss of the visual field
85.
Which part of the eye is responsible for the production of tears?
a)
The lacrimal gland
b)
The inner conjunctiva
c)
The Sclera
d)
The Choroid Layer
86.
common foot inj. s/s: sudden onset of pn in the arch region;relieved by NWB presents p.t @ heel
a)
Stress fracture
b)
plantar fascia strain
c)
Bruised instep
d)
Plantar Neuroma
87.
Running, cutting, and figure 8's are all examples of ____ tests
a)
Stress
b)
Strength
c)
Functional
d)
Range of Motion
88.
Trauma to ear causes tearing of overlying tissue from cartilage plate; results in fluid accumu.
a)
Cauliflower ear
b)
Retinal detachment
c)
Hyphema
d)
Lobular Swelling
89.
To protect athletes from disease transmission, the USOC recommends that:
a)
They wear protective equipment such as gloves
b)
They shower immediately after practice
c)
Decline HIV testing
d)
There is a reduction of mouthpiece use in high risk sports
90.
Which is NOT an example of a functional test after an ankle sprain?
a)
Run Figure 8
b)
Hop on the injured foot
c)
Walk on the toes
d)
Walk on the lateral borders of the feet
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