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CST Prep Exam A&P #2

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name this muscle

a)

Tricep

b)

Bicep

c)

Deltoid

d)

Trapezius

2.

Name this muscles

a)

Hamstrings

b)

Thighs

c)

Quads

d)

Glutes

3.

Name this muscle

a)

pectoralis major

b)

quadratus femoris

c)

trapezius

d)

triceps

4.

Name this muscle

a)

Biceps

b)

triceps

c)

Deltoids

d)

Trapezius

5.

Name this muscle

a)

Adominals

b)

Obliques

c)

Glutes

d)

Quads

6.

Name this bone

a)

Tibia

b)

Femur

c)

Fibula

d)

Radius

7.
a)

Femur

b)

Tibia

c)

Fibula

d)

Ulna

8.

Name this bone

a)

Ulna

b)

radius

c)

Humerus

d)

Scapula

9.

Name this bone

a)

Scapula

b)

Sternum

c)

Clavicle

d)

Mandible

10.

Name this bone

a)

radius

b)

Humerus

c)

Tibia

d)

Ulna

11.

What is this action?

a)

Flexion

b)

Rotation

c)

Abduction

d)

Extension

12.

What is this action?

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Circumduction

d)

plantar flexion

13.

What is the name of this joint?

a)

Hinge

b)

ball and socket

c)

condyloid

d)

Pivot

14.

What is the name of this joint at the elbow?

a)

Pivot

b)

Ball and socket

c)

Hinge

d)

Partially movable

15.
What are the two types of cells?
a)
Eukaryotic & Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic & Fungal
c)
Plant & Animal
d)
Prokaryotic & Bacterial
16.

What is another term for the GI Tract?

a)

Alimentary canal

b)

Integumentary system

c)

Biliary system

d)

urinary system

17.

The small intestine begins and ends in these places.

a)

pylorus,ileocecal valve

b)

jejunem, sigmoid

c)

appendix, duodenum

d)

cecum, duodenum

18.

Select all that apply: Advantages of Laparoscopic surgery

a)

minimal blood loss

b)

less capacity for intraabdominal inspection

c)

rapid return to function

d)

less risk for hernia

19.

A pneumoperitoneum takes place with

a)

CO2 insufflation

b)

O2 insufflation

c)

hemorrhage

d)

IV infiltration

20.

Which vessel carries venous blood to the liver?

a)

Hepatic artery

b)

Portal vein

c)

Common hepatic duct

d)

Vena cava

21.

Which vessel carries blood to the liver containing the digested nutrients from the GI tract, and also from the spleen and pancreas?

a)

aorta

b)

hepatic artery

c)

portal vein

d)

vena cava

22.

What type of clamping instrument is used to stop bleeding by collapsing the lumen to the blood vessel?

a)

tissue forceps

b)

hemostatic forceps

c)

towel clamp

d)

hand-held retractor

23.

armpit area

a)

antebrachial

b)

axillary

c)

acromial

d)

antecubital

24.

This cavity protects the central nervous system

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Dorsal

25.

What does it mean when a doctor says he/she is about to dissect the distal end of the popliteal artery?

a)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the front of the knee at the end closer to the hip

b)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the front of the knee at the end that is farther away from the hip

c)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the back of the knee at the end closer to the hip.

d)

The doctor is going to dissect an artery at the back of the knee at the end that is farther away from the hip.

26.

Identify the surface region of the body

a)

antecubital

b)

axilary

c)

bracial

d)

fermoral

27.
The mouth contains _____________ that make the enzymes in saliva? 
a)
Salivary glands
b)
esophagus
c)
mouth
d)
Peristalsis
28.
What type of acid is in the stomach?
a)
HCl (Hydrochloric acid)
b)
NaCl (Table salt)
c)
NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide)
29.
The Pancreas is responsible for?
a)
Creating enzymes for digestion
b)
Regulating the sugar levels in your body
c)
Both A & B
d)
Neither A & B
30.
What is responsible for delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body?
a)
cell nucleus
b)
excretory system
c)
nervous tissue
d)
respiratory system
31.
Connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain
a)
Cerebellum
b)
Hypothalamus
c)
Medulla  Oblongata
d)
Corpus Callosum
32.
The brain's "sensory switchboard":  directs sensory messages to proper area of the brain
a)
thalamus
b)
hypothalamus
c)
hippocampus
d)
reticular formation
33.
Thinking, problem solving, "executive functioning," happen here. 
a)
cerebellum
b)
cerebrum
c)
amygdala
d)
hypothalamus
34.
Controls motivational behaviors, including: feeding, fight-flight response
a)
Hippocampus
b)
Amygdala
c)
Reticular Formation
d)
Hypothalamus
35.

Which is the Superior Vena Cava?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

P

36.

Which is the Inferior Vena Cava?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

P

37.

Which is the Aortic Arch?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

P

38.

Which is the Descending Aorta?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

P

39.
The smaller bone in the forearm on the same side as the thumb is the radius.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
The largest and strongest bone of the face that forms the lower jaw is the maxillae.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
The elastic, bony cage that acts as a protective framework for the heart and lungs is the?
a)
ribs
b)
thorax
c)
scapula
d)
clavicle
42.
The muscle of the scalp that raises the eyebrows, draws the scalp forward, and causes wrinkles across the forehead is the?
a)
occipitalis
b)
masseter
c)
temporalis
d)
frontalis
43.
The muscle of the neck that lowers and rotates the head is the?
a)
sternocleidomastoideus
b)
aponeurosis
c)
temporalis
d)
masseter
44.
The ring muscle of the eye socket that enables you to close your eyes is the:
a)
temporal oculi
b)
corrugator muscle
c)
latissimus dorsi
d)
orbicularis oculi
45.
The muscle that draws the eyebrow down and wrinkles the forehead vertically is the?
a)
corrugator muscle
b)
epicranius muscle
c)
orbicularis oculi muscle
d)
masseter muscle
46.
The muscle that covers the back of the neck and upper and middle region of the back is the?
a)
corrugator muscle
b)
pectoralis minor
c)
latissimus dorsi
d)
trapezius
47.
Extensor muscles that turn the hand inward so the palm faces downward are?
a)
flexors
b)
supinators
c)
pronators
d)
extensors
48.
Muscles that separate the fingers are?
a)
abductors
b)
pronators
c)
adductors
d)
extensors
49.
What do you call the ends of your fingers and toes?
a)
Tarsals
b)
Carpals
c)
Phalanges 
d)
Metaphalanges 
50.
What do you call the chest bone?
a)
Breastbone 
b)
Sternum
c)
Scapula
d)
Sacrum 
51.
Peristalsis is when?
a)
muscle contractions move the food along
b)
digestion begins
c)
stomach digests food
d)
muscle does nothing
52.

What are the functions of eyelids and eyelashes

a)

to protect and rehydrate the eyes

b)

keep dirt out of the eyes

c)

keep debris out of the eys

d)

all of the above

53.

The human eye is surrounded by how many muscles?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

5

54.

The optic nerve has a covering that helps protect and insulate it called the

a)

muscle fiber

b)

fat layer

c)

myelin sheath

d)

trash bag

55.
a)
metatarsals
b)
carpals
c)
tarsals
d)
metacarpals
56.
a)
metacarpals
b)
phelanges
c)
tarsals
d)
metatarsals
57.
Name the bone
a)
Patella
b)
Femur
c)
Radius
d)
Tibia
58.
Name the bones
a)
phalanges
b)
carpals
c)
fingers
d)
sternum
59.
Name the bone
a)
sternum
b)
scapula
c)
radius
d)
clavicle
60.
What bones are these?
a)
Carpals
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Phalanges
d)
Metatarsals
61.

Blood is example of __ tissue.

a)

Nervous

b)

muscle

c)

epithelial

d)

connective

62.

Most of your respiratory tract is lined with ___ tissue.

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

ciliated pseudostratied columnar epithelium

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

transitional epithelium

63.

Which of these is another way to say Smooth Muscle?

a)

striated voluntary

b)

striated involuntary

c)

Nonstriated voluntary

d)

nonstriated involuntary

64.

This type of tissue has an extensive amount of collagen fibers?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Nervous

d)

Muscular

65.
What type of Joint allows for the greatest ROM?
a)
Hinge
b)
Girdle
c)
Pivot 
d)
Ball and Socket
66.
What bone(s) is not apart of the appendicular Skeleton?
a)
Ribs
b)
Pelvis
c)
Radial
d)
Tibia
67.
The Sacral section of the spine has how many segments?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
4 fused
68.
Plasma makes up what % of the bloods volume?
a)
74
b)
80
c)
55
d)
52
69.
What is considered the "Master Gland" of the Endocrine system?
a)
Pituitary
b)
Thyroid
c)
Hypothalamus
d)
Gonads
70.
The ovaries produce which of these hormones?
a)
Estrone
b)
Estradiol
c)
Estriol
d)
All of the Above
71.

What is the name for the cavity inside the diaphysis of a long bone?

a)

Epiphyseal Plate

b)

Medullary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Haversian Canal

72.

What do you find at the end of long bones that helps joints glide smoothly?

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Cartilage

c)

Blood Vessels

d)

Periosteum

73.

An implant will be used during Knee Arthroplasty. Which sterilization method was most likely used to sterilize the implant?

a)

Peracetic Acid without a biological monitor

b)

Hydrogen peroxide plasma with a biological monitor

c)

Ionizing radiation with a biological monitor

d)

Dry heat without a biological monitor

74.

During splenectomy, the surgeon requests a Harrington retractor. How was the Harrington retractor prepared for use in the sterile field?

a)

It was wrapped in a peel pack and sterilized using parecetic acid sterilization

b)

It was wrapped in a peel pack and sterilized using hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilization

c)

It was wrapped in a 140 count muslin wrapper and sterilized using steam under pressure- prevacuum sterilization.

d)

It was wrapped in a disposable nonwoven wrapper and sterilized using ionizing radiation sterilization

75.

The surgical technologist needs an instrument that is peel packed and stored in the instrument room. When the peel pack is obtained, the chemical indicator shows that the item did not successfully complete the sterilization process. What should be done?

a)

The circulator should open the peel pack and set the instrument aside for reprocessing

b)

Place the peel pack with the instrument inside the IUSS sterilizer and reprocess it

c)

Use the instrument if the integrity of the package is intact

d)

Rewrap the instrument with a disposable nonwoven wrapper and sterilize it using paracetic acid sterilization

76.

During a splenectomy, a bloody sponge fell on the OR floor. When and how will this area be cleaned.

a)

Concurrent disinfection will be performed using sodium hypochlorite solution

b)

Concurrent disinfection will be performed using a paracetic acid solution

c)

Terminal disinfection will be performed using 70% isopropyl alcohol

d)

Terminal disinfection will be performed using Ortho-Phthalaldehyde

77.

During exploratory Laparoscopy, a 30 degree telescope will be used to visualize the pelvic organs in the peritoneal cavity. Which of the following sterilization methods will most likely be used to prepare the scope for use?

a)

Steam under pressure - gravity

b)

Peracetic Acid

c)

Activated glutaraldehyde

d)

Hydrogen peroxide plasma

78.

Which of the following sterilization methods was used to prepare the drape pack for the Exploratory Laparoscopy?

a)

Ionizing Radiation

b)

Steris

c)

Sterrad

d)

Ethylene oxide

79.

Control of bleeding is called:

a)

homeostasis

b)

granulation

c)

granuloma

d)

hemostasis

80.

During which phase of wound healing is the strength of the wound limited to the suture holding it together?

a)

Granulation

b)

Lag Phase (inflammatory)

c)

Epithelization (proliferation)

d)

Remolding (maturation)

81.

All of the following factors would delay wound healing, except:

a)

Cigarette Smoking

b)

steroid or cancer drugs

c)

emotional stress

d)

adequate circulation

82.

Which of the following wound drains is associated with an increased risk of postoperative wound infection due to microbial contamination?

a)

Sump drain

b)

Closed vacuum drain

c)

Penrose Drain

d)

Gravity drain

83.

Which of the following is a thermal method of hemostasis?

a)

Gelfoam

b)

Thrombin

c)

Esmarch

d)

Electrocautery

84.

During a Pilonidal Cystectomy, the patient will be placed in the __________ position.

a)

supine (dorsal recumbent)

b)

jacknife (Kraske)

c)

Fowler's (sitting)

d)

lateral (kidney)

85.

Which of the following solutions is electrolytic and would not be used with a fulguration or transurethral resection of the prostate?

a)

Normal Saline

b)

Sterile Distilled Water

c)

Glycine

d)

Sorbitol

86.

Inability to control urination is:

a)

uremia

b)

cystitis

c)

nocturia

d)

urinary incontinence

87.

X-ray visualization of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder following an intravenous injection of dye is a diagnostic test called:

a)

Retrograde pyelogram

b)

Intravenous Urogram

c)

KUB

d)

Cystometrogram

88.

The most commonly used self-retaining urethral catheter is a:

a)

Pezzer

b)

Malecot

c)

Robinson

d)

Foley

89.

During an open pelvic procedure, the surgeon asks for the bladder stitch. Of the following sutures on your field, which one would you give the surgeon?

a)

2-0 Chromic

b)

3-0 Silk

c)

4-0 Prolene

d)

#1 Vicryl

90.

Which of the following instruments could be used to dilate a male urethra?

a)

Hegar Dilator

b)

Van Buren sound

c)

Lithotrite

d)

Urethrotome

91.

Which of the following is a urinary diversion procedure?

a)

Pyelolithotomy

b)

Ileal Conduit

c)

Lithopaxy

d)

Retrograde Pyelogram

92.

Vesicourethral suspension, such as the RAZ procedure and the Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz procedure, is performed to correct:

a)

hypospadias

b)

spermatocele

c)

cryptorchidism

d)

female urinary incontinence

93.

The most common surgical management for BPH is:

a)

TURP

b)

Suprapubic Prostatectomy

c)

Retropubic Prostatectomy

d)

Perineal Prostatectomy

94.

What does BPH stand for?

a)

Blood Pressure/Hour

b)

Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

c)

Bulging Prostate Hypertension

d)

Brachial Perineal Hypertension

95.

Possible complications of a Nephrectomy include all of the following except:

a)

hemorrhage

b)

impotence

c)

accidental entry into the pleural space

d)

damage to the spleen or duodenum

96.

The most common incision for a Unilateral Nephrectomy is:

a)

transabdominal transperitoneal

b)

transthoracic transdiaphragmatic

c)

Pfannenstiel

d)

flank or lumbar

97.

Rib instruments should be available for which of the following procedures?

a)

Ureteroneocystostomy

b)

Varicocelectomy

c)

Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy

d)

Adrenalectomy

98.

Which of the following procedures is designed to remove waste products of urine from the blood of a patient with end-stage renal disease?

a)

Peritoneal dialysis

b)

Nephroscopy

c)

Nephrolithotripsy

d)

Pyeloplasty

99.

A special sterilization permit may be needed for which of the following procedures?

a)

Hydrocelectomy

b)

Vasectomy

c)

Bilateral Adrenalectomy

d)

Ileal Conduit

100.

The syringe used for evacuation of bladder debris, such as prostatic chips or stone fragments is a/an:

a)

Iglesias

b)

Ellik

c)

van Buren

d)

luer-lock syringe

101.

Common tips found on ureteral catheters include all of the following except:

a)

spiral

b)

olive

c)

dovetail

d)

whistle

102.

Clinical indications for performing Cystoscopy include all of the following except:

a)

urinary tract infection, indicated by WBC's in urine upon urinalysis

b)

glomerulonephritis, indicated by a urine specific gravity of 1.020

c)

hematuria, indicated by the presence of RBC's in urine upon urinalysis

d)

acute urinary retention, indicated by voiding 100cc of urine in 24 hours

103.

Circumcision involves removal of what structure?

a)

Glans Paenis

b)

Prepuce

c)

Corona

d)

Vas Deferens

104.

Methods for urinary tract calculus removal include which of the following?

a)

ESWL

b)

Nephrectomy

c)

Varicocelectomy

d)

Ureteral Diversion

105.

The instrument(s) used to bypass severe strictures of the urethra is called:

a)

Mason-Judd

b)

Bougies

c)

filiforms and followers

d)

toomey

106.

Common urinary drainage catheters found in the OR would include:

a)

a 34 fr, 2-way, 5-cc latex Foley catheter

b)

a 26 fr, 3-way, 5-cc latex Foley catheter

c)

a 22 fr, 2-way, 30-cc latex Foley catheter

d)

a 20 fr, 4-way, 30-cc red rubber indwelling catheter

107.

The three common positions for genitourinary procedures include all of the following except:

a)

supine

b)

modified dorsal recumbent with knees bent (frog-legged)

c)

jackknife

d)

lithotomy

108.

During Nephrectomy, instrumentation commonly used would include:

a)

a nephroscope

b)

pedicle clamps

c)

Army-Navy retractors

d)

Potts scissors

109.

The procedure of choice to treat irreparable hydronephrosis is:

a)

Ileal Conduit

b)

Hydrocelectomy

c)

Ureteroneocystostomy

d)

Nephroureterectomy

110.

The most common telescopes used for cystoscopy include:

a)

20- and 30-degree scopes

b)

15- and 30-degree scopes

c)

15- and 70-degree scopes

d)

30- and 70-degree scopes

111.

Ureterolithotomy is performed with all of the following instruments except:

a)

Potts scissors

b)

#11 blade on a #7 handle

c)

Randall Forceps

d)

#10 blade on a #4 handle

112.

An Ileal Conduit involves:

a)

implanting the ureters into the sigmoid colon

b)

implanting the ureters into an isolated segment of ileum

c)

reimplanting the ureters into the bladder

d)

implanting the ureters into a connected segment of the jejunum

113.

Which of the following is the procedure for removal of an enlargement of the venous plexus in the scrotum?

a)

Hydrocelectomy

b)

Varicocelectomy

c)

Spermatocelectomy

d)

Orchiectomy

114.

Suture used to close the ureter would include:

a)

0 Silk

b)

3-0 Nylon

c)

4-0 Silk

d)

4-0 Dexon

115.

Which of the following laboratory tests is used to assess kidney function?

a)

CBC

b)

BUN

c)

AST/ALT

d)

PSA

116.

Which of the following plastic surgery procedures is performed to change the urethral meatus from the ventral surface of the penis to it's normal position at the tip of the penis?

a)

Hypospadius Repair

b)

Varicocelectomy

c)

Hydrocelectomy

d)

Epispadius Repair

117.

Which of the following procedures treats cryptorchidism?

a)

Nephrectomy

b)

Hydrocelectomy

c)

Orchiopexy

d)

Vasectomy

118.

Which of the following incisions is used to perform TURP?

a)

Midline

b)

Pfannenstiel

c)

McBurney

d)

No incision is used; it is performed through the urethra

119.

Positioning aides used during Nephrectomy would include all of the following except:

a)

axillary roll

b)

kidney rests

c)

pillows between the legs

d)

stirrups

120.

The procedure performed for the treatment of Wilm's tumor is:

a)

Orchiectomy

b)

Radical Nephrectomy

c)

Marshall-Marcetti-Kranz Procedure

d)

Ureteroneocystostomy

121.

The term for the surgical crushing of a stone is:

a)

lithectomy

b)

lithopaxy

c)

lithotomy

d)

lithiasis

122.

Which organ or structure cannot be seen on a KUB?

a)

Bladder

b)

Ureter

c)

Urethra

d)

Kidney

123.

The tissue of choice used to replace the urinary bladder following Cystectomy is the:

a)

ileum

b)

sigmoid

c)

colon

d)

jejunum

124.

Which of the following Foley catheters would be used for routine monitoring of urine output during surgery?

a)

16 fr, 2-way, 5cc

b)

16 fr, 2-way, 30cc

c)

24 fr, 3-way, 30cc

d)

24 fr, 2-way, 5cc

125.

What is the medical term for a "twisted" spermatic cord and testicle?

a)

Volvulus

b)

Intussusception

c)

Torsion

d)

Hematuria

126.

What is the name of the tissue that lines the inside of the scrotum?

a)

Tunica Albuginea

b)

Scarpa's Fascia

c)

Tunica Vaginalis

d)

Visceral Peritoneum

127.

What is the name of the procedure that will be performed if the blood supply to the testicle can be restored?

a)

Orchidectomy

b)

Spermatocelectomy

c)

Vasovasorrhaphy

d)

Orchiopexy

128.

The patient is given general anesthesia. Which of the following agents is an inhalation agent used for general anesthesia?

a)

Sevoflurane

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Bupivicaine

d)

Pitressin

129.

When tissue is taken from one part of the body and grafted to another it is called a/an:

a)

xenograft

b)

autograft

c)

allograft

d)

heterograft

130.

The scab or slough produced by a thermal burn is called:

a)

contracture

b)

plume

c)

paresthesia

d)

eschar

131.

The medical term for a facelift is:

a)

Rhytidectomy

b)

Lipectomy

c)

Mentoplasty

d)

Rhizotomy

132.

All of the following are hand procedures except:

a)

Release of Depuytren's Contracture

b)

Carpal Tunnel Release

c)

Palmar Fasciotomy

d)

Le Fort III

133.

Homografts or heterografts used as temporary coverings for denuded skin are called:

a)

biological dressings

b)

stent dressings

c)

hand dressings

d)

flaps

134.

The removal of devitalized tissue is:

a)

Dermabrasion

b)

Escharotomy

c)

Fasciotomy

d)

Debridement

135.

A burn patient is brought to the OR with an arm greatly charred and distended with cyanotic fingers. Which of the following procedures would you anticipate?

a)

Full-thickness skin graft

b)

Escharotomy

c)

Dermabrasion

d)

Conization

136.

Tissue transfer from one part of the body with the graft tissue's blood supply left intact is called a:

a)

split-thickness skin graft

b)

pedicle graft

c)

full-thickness skin graft

d)

xenograft

137.

Blepharoplasty would be indicated for a patient with:

a)

microtia

b)

macromastia

c)

hypertophy of the orbicularis oculi

d)

strabismus

138.

Special fine-tipped forceps used in plastic surgery include:

a)

Senn

b)

Bishop-Harmon

c)

Webster

d)

Stevens

139.

Which of the following skin closure materials would be most appropriate for use in hand surgery?

a)

Staples

b)

0 chromic gut on a cutting needle

c)

5-0 Nylon on a cutting needle

d)

2-0 Vicryl on a taper needle

140.

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine for which a stabilization procedure may be done is:

a)

scoliosis

b)

osteoporosis

c)

exostosis

d)

herniated nucleus pulposa

141.

Death of bone tissue due to lack of circulation is:

a)

arthritis

b)

avascular necrosis

c)

malunion

d)

osteomyelitis

142.

Equipment used to debride and clean infected wounds and joints is:

a)

periosteal elevator

b)

drill/reamer

c)

suction irrigator

d)

impactor

143.

The most likely donor site for an autogenous bone graft is the:

a)

femur

b)

ischium

c)

scapula

d)

ilium

144.

In orthopedic surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on:

a)

tendons

b)

periostium

c)

ligaments

d)

bone

145.

The patient would be placed in the prone position for which of the following procedures?

a)

excision of a Baker's Cyst

b)

AK Amputation

c)

Knee Arthroscopy

d)

Triple Arthrodesis of the Ankle

146.

The type of fracture that includes splintered or crushed bone is:

a)

Colles'

b)

greenstick

c)

compound

d)

comminuted

147.

The general term for joint reconstruction is:

a)

osteotomy

b)

arthrodesis

c)

osteoarthritis

d)

arthroplasty

148.

All of the following are guides to be followed when using polymethylmethacrylate (bone cement) except:

a)

mix immediately before use

b)

use a fume evacuator

c)

mix with a gloved hand

d)

supply to the surgeon in a syringe for injection

149.

Heavy suture is used to reattach a weakened anterior capsule to the glenoid fossa to correct recurrent dislocation of the shoulder during which of the following procedures?

a)

Transposition of the Ulna Nerve

b)

Keller Procedure

c)

Bankhart Procedure

d)

Kyphoplasty

150.

Removal of a fluid-filled synovial sac protruding between wrist joints performed for cosmesis or discomfort describes which of the following procedures?

a)

Excision of Ganglion

b)

Patellectomy

c)

McBride Procedure

d)

Metacarpal Arthroplasty

151.

The use of a prosthesis to replace arthritic joints in the hand is referred to as a:

a)

Triple Arthrodesis

b)

Carpal Tunnel Release

c)

Bankart Procedure

d)

Metacarpal Arthroplasty

152.

The excision of the kneecap for degenerative arthritis is called a:

a)

Bristow Procedure

b)

Patellectomy

c)

Putti-Platt Procedure

d)

Rotator Cuff Repair

153.

Bone retrieved from the patient for use as a bone graft is called ________ bone.

a)

cadaveric

b)

autogenic

c)

xenogenic

d)

allogenic

154.

The placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site, which are then connected to stabilizing bars, is called:

a)

external fixation

b)

skeletal fixation

c)

internal fixation

d)

compression fixation

155.

The fixation device(s) most commonly used for an intertrochanteric fracture of the femur include(s):

a)

compression plates and screws

b)

hinged replacement prosthesis

c)

rods/nails

d)

Kirschner wires

156.

When a tourniquet is inflated during surgery, the surgeon is notified at which of the following recommended time intervals?

a)

At the half hour, and every 15 minutes thereafter

b)

At the half hour, and every half hour thereafter

c)

At the hour, and every 15 minutes thereafter

d)

At the hour, and every half hour thereafter

157.

Screws come in which of the following types?

a)

Cortical and trochanteric

b)

Cortical and Kirschner

c)

Cancellous and cortical

d)

Trochanteric and cancellous

158.

The implant used to stabilize small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction is called:

a)

cancellous screws

b)

Steinmann pin

c)

Rush rod

d)

Enders nail

159.

When performing skin preparation for surgery on the shaft of the tibia, the skin prep would extend:

a)

from the hip joint to the toes

b)

from above the knee joint to below the ankle

c)

from the hip joint to below the ankle

d)

from above the knee joint to above the ankle joint

160.

The dressing material applied at the end of an orthopedic procedure which gives compression to the wound is a/an:

a)

Kerlix fluff

b)

Xeroform

c)

ace or elastic bandage

d)

fiberglass or plaster cast

161.

An open fracture, where bone protrudes through the skin, is also referred to as a ________ fracture.

a)

greenstick

b)

closed traumatic

c)

comminuted

d)

compound

162.

A fracture where the tendonous attachments of the bone are torn away is called a/an:

a)

subluxation

b)

epiphyseal separation

c)

avulsion

d)

compound fracture

163.

The X-ray views usually obtained during orthopedic surgery include all of the following except:

a)

sagittal

b)

oblique

c)

anterior/posterior

d)

lateral

164.

The patient position for a Bristow Procedure is:

a)

semi-Fowler's

b)

prone

c)

Sims

d)

lithotomy

165.

A Colles' fracture occurs in which of the following bone(s)?

a)

radius

b)

humerus

c)

tibia/fibula

d)

clavicle/acromion

166.

The bony process that can be involved in an ankle fracture is the:

a)

medial malleolus

b)

medial meniscus

c)

lateral trochanter

d)

calcaneous

167.

Which of the following patient positions is used for an Anterior Cervical Discectomy and Fusion?

a)

supine

b)

prone

c)

Sims

d)

Kraske

168.

A potential complication of ischemia,of the femoral head is:

a)

intermittent claudication

b)

intussusception

c)

avascular necrosis

d)

chondromalacia

169.

A fracture commonly found in children is a:

a)

comminuted

b)

greenstick

c)

Colles'

d)

longitudinal

170.

A fracture requiring debridement and closure prior to casting would be a:

a)

comminuted

b)

greenstick

c)

compound

d)

spiral

171.

A surgical procedure designed to stiffen or fuse a joint is called:

a)

arthropexy

b)

arthroplasty

c)

arthrotomy

d)

arthrodesis

172.

A tear in the lateral or medial knee cartilage is repaired by performing a/an:

a)

synovectomy

b)

menisectomy

c)

patellectomy

d)

arthrodesis

173.

Baker's cysts are found in the:

a)

popliteal fossa

b)

glenoid fossa

c)

iliac fossa

d)

supraspinous fossa

174.

Which of the following would not be used to control bleeding from an open bone is:

a)

webril

b)

felt

c)

Esmarch bandage

d)

stockinette

175.

A hemostatic agent used to control bleeding from an open bone is:

a)

heparin sodium

b)

protamine sulfate

c)

methylene blue

d)

bone wax