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Worksheets

Imaging/Physics Review

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The distance between the x-ray focal spot and the image receptor is the:

a)

OID

b)

SID

c)

MF

d)

SOD

2.

The inverse square law describes the relationship between __ and __.

a)

kVp and exposure

b)

mAs and exposure

c)

distance and beam intensity

d)

kVp and beam intensity

3.
Low kVp produces
a)
high contrast
b)
low contrast
4.

Higher kVp results in less absorption and more variation in the intensities of photons exiting the patient.

a)

True

b)

False

5.
High kVp produces ____________ scale radiographic contrast
a)
long scale
b)
short scale
6.
High kVp produces
a)
high contrast
b)
low contrast
7.

The distance between the object being imaged and the image receptor is the:

a)

OID

b)

SID

c)

MF

d)

SOD

8.

Focal spot size affects only:

a)

exposure

b)

contrast

c)

sharpness

d)

noise

9.

Which of the following is categorized as a geometric property?

a)

focal spot

b)

grid

c)

recorded detail

d)

​heat unit

10.
Low kVp produces ________ radiographic contrast.
a)
long scale
b)
short scale
11.

Reducing the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR results in:

a)

lower radiographic contrast

b)

higher radiographic contrast

c)

improved recorded detail

d)

reduced recorded detail

12.

Increasing the kVp by 15% has the same effect on exposure as

a)

increasing the mAs by 15%.

b)

doubling the mAs.

c)

decreasing the mAs by 15%.

d)

halving the mAs.

13.

Which of the following is the correct formula for the inverse square law?

a)

I1/I2 = D1/D2.

b)

I1/I2 = D2/D1.

c)

I1/I2 = (D1)2/(D2)2.

d)

I1/I2 = (D2)2/(D1)2.

14.

As the SID increases, the x-ray photons in the beam become less perpendicular to the object being imaged.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The relationship between kVp and the quantity of remnant radiation is known as the:

a)

kVp-exposure rule

b)

15% rule

c)

115% rule

d)

kVp-quantity rule

16.

As kVp is increased, more radiation energy is produced, resulting in more scattered radiation, which increases density to the film.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What type of relationship do mAs have with the quantity of x-rays produced?

a)

direct proportional

b)

direct but not proportional

c)

inverse proportional

d)

inverse but not proportional

18.

To maintain the same amount of radiation reaching the IR, if the kVp is increased by 15% the mAs needs to:

a)

remain the same

b)

be doubled

c)

be halved

d)

be decreased by a minimum of 30%

19.

Increasing the kVp:

a)

increases the energy of the x-ray photons

b)

increases the quantity of x-ray photons

c)

increases the penetrating power of x-ray photons

d)

all of these

20.

During a photoelectric interaction,

a)

an inner-shell electron is ejected

b)

an outer-shell electron is ejected

c)

no electrons are ejected

d)

electrons for all levels are ejected

21.

The distance between the x-ray focal spot and the object being imaged is the

a)

OID

b)

SID

c)

MF

d)

SOD

22.

What are density and contrast categorized as?

a)

​radiographic densities

b)

photographic densities

c)

mangification properties

d)

focal spots

23.

Air is considered:

a)

radiopaque

b)

hard to penetrate

c)

radiolucent

d)

more likely to absorb radiation

24.

The ability of the imaging system to distinguish between two structures is

a)

latitude

b)

resolution

c)

contrast

d)

distortion

25.

The degree of difference between adjacent densities or brightness levels is called

a)

density

b)

detail

c)

contrast

d)

magnification

26.

The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is termed the

a)

anode

b)

cathode

c)

glass envelope

d)

filament

27.

Beam filtration does not influence density and contrast.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following refers to the degree of information or definition that may be seen in the anatomy or the resolution or sharpness of lines that separates one structure from another?

a)

recorded detail

b)

distortion

c)

focal-spot size

d)

receptor distance

29.

____________ are the primary factor controlling recorded detail.

a)

focal spots

b)

intensifying screens

c)

SID receptor distance

d)

large focal spots

30.

_____________ can tolerate increased heat generated by longer exposure times.

a)

Large Focal Spots

b)

focal spots

c)

subject contrast

d)

Intensifying Screens

31.

Used to minimize the amount of scattered radiation that reaches the film

a)

object-to-image receptor distance (OID)

b)

cones

c)

grid

d)

beam filtration

32.

Pair production occurs when the incident photon interacts with

a)

an inner-shell electron

b)

an outer-shell electron

c)

inner- and outer-shell electrons

d)

the nucleus of the atom

33.

A positron is

a)

the same as an electron

b)

a positively charged electron

c)

the same as a proton

d)

a positively charged neutron

34.

Added to the radiation beam to eliminate nonuseful, soft, low-energy (long wavelengths) radiation

a)

cones

b)

grids

c)

beam filtration

d)

object-to-image receptor distance (OID)

35.

Radiation interacting with air is more likely to be __, resulting in that area of the image being darker.

a)

absorbed

b)

transmitted

c)

attenuated

d)

scatter

36.

The probability of Compton scattering depends on the energy level of the incident x-ray photon.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Photoelectric interactions are more likely to occur in

a)

air

b)

soft tissue

c)

bone

d)

they occur equally in all types of tissue

38.

All Compton scatter photons travel in the direction of the image receptor.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Without differential absorption, the image would be a single shade of gray.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The x-ray photons that are produced as a result of a characteristic cascade during a Compton interaction

a)

are characteristic x-ray photons

b)

are brems x-ray photons

c)

are Compton x-ray photons

d)

are “braking” x-ray photons

41.

Coherent scattering involves

a)

an x-ray photon with high energy

b)

an x-ray photon with low energy

c)

ionization

42.

The higher the atomic number of an atom, the greater the probability of a photoelectric interaction.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Excessive absorption is the result of

a)

using a mAs that is too low for the examination

b)

using a kVp that is too low for the examination

c)

using a kVp that is too high for the examination

44.

The major source of radiation exposure to technologists is due to

a)

coherent scattering

b)

classical scattering

c)

photoelectric interactions

d)

Compton interactions

45.

The energy of the photoelectron is equal to

a)

the binding energy of the orbital electron minus the energy of the incident photon

b)

the energy of the incident photon minus the binding energy of the orbital electron

c)

the binding energy of the orbital electron plus the energy of the incident photon

46.

The greater the absorption of radiation

a)

the greater the differential absorption

b)

the better the image quality

c)

the greater the patient dose

47.

The probability of Compton scattering depends on the atomic number of the atom.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following will step up or step down the current coming into an x-ray machine?

a)

Radiator

b)

Collimator

c)

Transformer

d)

Filter

49.

Which of the following removes the low-energy, long wavelength energy from the beam?

a)

Filter

b)

Collimator

c)

Transformer

d)

Radiator

50.

Which is the location where thermionic emission occurs?

a)

Positive cathode

b)

Positive anode

c)

Negative cathode

d)

Negative anode

51.

What is remnant radiation?

a)

Radiation striking the patient

b)

Radiation striking the target

c)

Radiation striking the IR

d)

Radiation leaving the patient

52.

When electrons strike the target what percentage of x-rays is produced?

a)

99%

b)

50%

c)

10%

d)

1%

53.

What is a grid?

a)

A device to monitor radiation dose

b)

Device used to control scatter

c)

The overall darkness on the image

d)

A device used to modify the radiation field

54.

Reducing the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR results in:

a)

lower radiographic contrast

b)

higher radiographic contrast

c)

improved recorded detail

d)

reduced recorded detail

55.

Which of the following is a phenomenon related to the structure of the x-ray tube’s target (anode) angle?

a)

contrast

b)

​fog

c)

​heel effect

d)

density

56.
An incident electron approaches the nucleus. This causes the electron to slow down and change direction, resulting in the loss of energy in the form of an x-ray photon. What interaction has taken place?
a)
Characteristic
b)
Bremstrahlung
c)
Photoelectric
d)
Compton Scatter
57.
An x-ray film is exposed to radiation.  It holds the image until further processing is done to make the image visible. What is this image known as? 
a)
latent image
b)
imagery
c)
invisible image
d)
sensor disk
58.
Which of the following describes the energy and wavelength of an x-ray photon?
a)
Monoenergetic and homogeneous
b)
Polyenergetic and homogeneous
c)
Monoenergetic and heterogeneous
d)
Polyenergetic and heterogeneous
59.
What is the most radiopaque type of tissue in the human body?
a)
air
b)
fat
c)
muscle
d)
bone
60.
What is the most radiolucent tissue in the human body?
a)
air
b)
fat
c)
muscle
d)
bone
61.
In matter, an incident photon removes an outer shell electron. The electron then changes direction, providing no useful information. What type of interaction has taken place?
a)
Characteristic
b)
Photoelectric
c)
Bremstrahlung
d)
Compton scatter
62.
How does a radiopaque substance appear on a radiograph?
a)
black
b)
gray
c)
white
63.

Which of the following would possess the highest L.E.T.?

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

x-ray

64.

The x-ray interaction that results in all the photon energy being transferred to tissue is:

a)

compton

b)

thompson

c)

classical

d)

photoelectric

65.

For an atom of tungsten, which would possess the greatest amount of binding energy

a)

k-shell electron

b)

m-shell electron

c)

n-shell electron

d)

l-shell electron

66.

The quality of an x-ray beam can be expressed as:

a)

inherent filtration

b)

half value layer

c)

output in mR per minute

d)

mAs

67.

Increasing the SID with compensation of mAs to maintain the exposure to the IR will increase

a)

contrast

b)

spatial resolution

c)

magnification

d)

kVp

68.

The anode heel effect is most evident when using a:

a)

large IR and long SID

b)

small IR and long SID

c)

large IR and short SID

d)

small IR and short SID

69.

What characteristic x-rays are useful for image production?

a)

n-shell

b)

p-shell

c)

k-shell

d)

o-shell

70.

The ability of a system to record detail, expressed in lines per mm

a)

quality assurance

b)

detail factor

c)

spatial resolution

d)

exposure indicator

71.

The portion of the rotating anode x-ray tube that doesn't move

a)

stator

b)

rotor

c)

stem

d)

target

72.

Which is true about SID

a)

Increasing SID decreases contrast

b)

Increasing SID increases spatial resolution

c)

Decreasing SID increases photoelectric absorption

d)

Decreasing SID decreases receptor exposure

73.

Which transformers work on self induction?

a)

step up transformers

b)

step down transformers

c)

autotransformers

d)

optimus prime

74.

The air-gap technique uses a ___ SID and a ___ OID

a)

short; short

b)

short; long

c)

long; short

d)

long; long

75.

As the patient size increases it produces an increase in receptor exposure.

a)

true

b)

false

76.

As the filtration increases the contrast becomes a:

a)

longer scale decreasing contrast

b)

longer scale increasing contrast

c)

shorter scale increasing contrast

d)

shorter scale decreasing contrast

77.

As tissue density decreases, the amount of scatter increases.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

As the patient size increases it produces a decrease in:

a)

size distortion

b)

scatter radiation

c)

shape distortion

d)

none of the above

79.

As tissue density decreases, the amount of scatter decreases.

a)

true

b)

false

80.

A destructive pathological condition will cause an increase in ________.

a)

spatial resolution

b)

distortion

c)

receptor exposure

d)

none of the above

81.

What is the unit of binding energy?

a)

amps

b)

volts

c)

kVp

d)

e-volt

82.

What is the distance between two similar points on two successive waves called?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Frequency

c)

Velocity

d)

Energy level

83.
the most penetrating beam produced at the target of the anode
a)
primary beam
b)
primary radiation
c)
secondary radiation
d)
scattered radiation
84.
x-radiation that is created when the primary beam interacts with matter
a)
primary radiation
b)
secondary radiation
c)
scattered radiation
85.
when an x-ray beam has been deflected from its path by interaction with matter
a)
scattered radiation
b)
primary radition
86.
penetrating power of the x-ray is controlled by the
a)
milliamperage
b)
kilovoltage
c)
exposure time
87.
the difference in degrees of blackness on a radiograph
a)
contrast
b)
density
c)
timer
d)
carabelli
88.
measurements for "dose equivalent"
a)
rem and Sievert
b)
rem and rad
c)
rem and gray
d)
rem and red
89.
measurement for "absorbed dose"
a)
Sievert and rem
b)
rad and gray
90.
milliamperage controls the 
a)
wavelength of the primary beam
b)
quantity of x-rays produced
c)
quality of x-rays produced
d)
the day of the week to expose a radiograph
91.
the positive electrode in the x-ray tube head
a)
anode (step-down)
b)
control panel
c)
cathode (step-up)
92.

Radiolucent refers to that portion of a processed radiograph that is:

a)

Black

b)

White

c)

Gray

d)

Coated with an emulsion

93.

With all other factors unchanged, if the OID is increased, overall exposure at the image receptor plate will:

a)

decrease as a direct result

b)

increase as a direct result

c)

not change at all

d)

may be affected indirectly, but is not directly controlled by it

94.

atom # or z # is

a)

an atom

b)

the process of adding and removing an electron

c)

x rays

d)

the number of protons located in the nucleus

95.

ionization is the

a)

process of adding or removing an electron from the atom

b)

oxidation of metal

c)

a chemical

d)

orbital shell

96.

binding energy is

a)

the amount of energy to remove the electron from the atom

b)

the orbital shell

c)

mass

97.

wavelength is

a)

the distance between any 2 successive points on a wave

b)

the intensity of the wave

c)

the number of waves that passes a particular point in a giving time frame

d)

the number of cycles per second

98.

amplitude is

a)

the intensity of the wave defined by its maximum height

b)

distance

c)

EM radiation

99.

which shell in the atom is the most important in the production of x rays?

a)

K

b)

L

c)

O

d)

Q

100.

Which electron shell in the electron has the greatest binding energy?

a)

K

b)

L

c)

M

d)

N

101.

the penetrating power of an x ray beam is determined by its energy as expressed in its

a)

quantity

b)

velocity

c)

wavelength

d)

atomic number

102.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
103.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
104.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
105.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
106.
High frequency waves have _________ wavelengths.
a)
varying
b)
long
c)
the same
d)
short
107.
The distance between two crests or two troughs of a wave is called:
a)
frequency
b)
amplitud
c)
wavelength
d)
hertz
108.
All electromagnetic waves have the same...
a)
frequency
b)
speed
c)
wavelength
d)
energy
109.

What is a beta particle made of?

a)

One proton

b)

A helium particle

c)

One electron

d)

One proton and one neutron

110.
Isotopes of the same element have different ____________. 
a)
 numbers of protons  
b)
numbers of electrons
c)
 symbols 
d)
numbers of neutrons
111.
What is the mass of an alpha particle?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
112.

The atomic number of a given element is

equivalent to which of the following?

a)

Proton number in the nucleus

b)

Neutron number in the nucleus

c)

Sum of the protons and neutrons in the

nucleus

d)

Sum of the protons, neutrons and electrons

113.
Alpha particles.....
a)
a) are positively charged.
b)
b) consist of two protons and four neutrons.
c)
c) can penetrate any thickness of matter
d)
d) All of the above 
114.
The type of radioactive particle that can be stopped by a sheet of paper is the ____.
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
gamma ray
d)
positron
115.
Negatively charged particles emitted from a nucleus at a high speed are ____.  
a)
alpha particle
b)
gamma rays
c)
beta particles
d)
X rays
116.
Two atoms of the same element but with different mass numbers are called________
a)
electrons
b)
isotopes
c)
ions
d)
reaction partners
117.
Positively charged particles that consist of two protons and two neutrons are called
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
gamma rays
d)
neutron emissions
118.
In order of most to least penetrating radiation we have
a)
Alpha , Beta,  Gamma
b)
Beta , Gamma , Alpha
c)
Gamma, Beta, Alpha
d)
Gamma, Alpha, Beta
119.
Which type of radiation is the most ionising?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
120.
_______________ is the process by which unstable atoms emit radiation until they become stable.
a)
Radiation
b)
Chemical Reaction
c)
Radioactive Decay
d)
Isotopes
121.
Name the most penetrating type of radiation.
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
lambda
122.
kVp mainly controls...
a)
Quality
b)
Quantity
c)
Time
d)
Tube current
123.
Which of the following is NOT synonymous with beam energy? 
a)
quantity
b)
quality
c)
penetrating power
d)
kVp
124.
The amount of energy absorbed per unit mass is called
a)
effective dose
b)
absorption
c)
absorbed dose
d)
a super fun dance party
125.
The x-rays that emerge from the glass window of the x-ray tube are called....
a)
Compton radiation
b)
Coherent radiation
c)
Primary radiation
d)
Scatter radiation
126.
During a Compton interaction, an incoming x-ray photon interacts with...
a)
the nucleus of an atom
b)
a K-shell electron
c)
an outer shell electron
d)
a free electron
127.
As kVp increases, photoelectric absorption...
a)
increases
b)
decreases
128.
As mass density of human tissue increases, absorption...
a)
decreases
b)
increases
129.

A charged atom is called a(n) __________.

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

ion

130.

Electric current is measured in ____________.

a)

Newtons (N)

b)

Amperes (A)

c)

Hertz (Hz)

131.

A _____________ transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy.

a)

generator

b)

electromagnet

c)

circuit

d)

magnetic field

132.
A device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
a)
A. electromagnet
b)
B. electromagnetic induction
c)
C. electric motor
d)
D. electromagnetism
133.
A device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
a)
A. electric generator
b)
B. electric motor
c)
C. electromagnetic induction
d)
D. electric generator
134.
According to the Right Hand Rule, where is the magnetic field generated around a current-carrying wire?
a)
Perpendicular to the wire
b)
Parallel to the wire
135.
In a parallel circuit the current
a)
makes one circle
b)
stays in one path
c)
splits and goes through two components
136.
what kind of circuit is this?
a)
parallel
b)
series
c)
chris barton
d)
open
137.
As the resistance in a circuit increases, the electric current __________.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
138.
What is the unit for resistance?
a)
Volts
b)
Amperes
c)
Ohms
139.
Which way do electrons flow?
a)
Positive to Negative
b)
Negative to Positive
140.
What it the formula to find voltage. 
a)
I= V/R
b)
R=V/I
c)
V= I x R 
141.
The groups of atoms which can align to create a magnet are called ________.
a)
domains
b)
magnetic units
c)
molecules
d)
electrons
142.

One Ampere equals

a)

one volt

b)

one milliamp

c)

C/sec

d)

all of them equal an Ampere

143.

Which of the following is the unit for electric potential?

a)

ohms

b)

voltage

c)

Joule/Coulomb

d)

Both voltage and Joule/Coulomb

144.

Electrons flow from _______ to _________.

a)

negative to negative

b)

negative to positive

c)

positive to positive

d)

positive to negative

145.

The ratio of electric potential across a circuit element to the current flowing through it is called:

a)

voltage

b)

current

c)

resistance

d)

power

146.

Electric fields point ______ a positive charge, and _____ a negative charge.

a)

from, from

b)

toward, toward

c)

from, toward

d)

toward, from

147.

What is the fundamental unit of an electric charge?

a)

volt

b)

Joule

c)

Coulomb

d)

Ampere

148.

In Coulombs Law for electromotive force of charges, the product of the charges has a(n) ________ relationship to the square of the distance between them.

a)

direct

b)

indirect

c)

equal

d)

inverse

149.

Magnetic fields are directed _____ north poles, and _______ south poles.

a)

towards, away from

b)

towards, towards

c)

away from, away from

d)

away from, towards

150.

Magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet travel from _____ pole to ____ pole.

a)

south, north

b)

north, south

c)

positive, negative

d)

negative, positive

151.

When two coils are used, the first coil is referred to as a _____ coil, and the second is referred to as a ______ coil.

a)

main, secondary

b)

primary, secondary

c)

input, output

d)

both 2 and 3 are correct

152.

Step-Up Transformers:

a)

are also called filament transformers

b)

are also called high voltage transformers

c)

have a variable turns ratio

d)

used to supply high currents to the tube filament

153.

1 Tesla equals:

a)

1,000 G

b)

10,000 G

c)

100,000 G

d)

100 G

154.

1C equals

a)

9 x 108 m/s

b)

6.18 x 1018 J/C

c)

6.3 x 1018 electron charges

d)

9,54 x 1015 electron charges

155.

1 ampere equals

a)

one Joule/kg

b)

one Joule/coulomb

c)

one coulomb/kg

d)

one coulomb/sec

156.

Current flows:

a)

from north to south

b)

from positive to negative

c)

from south to north

d)

from negative to positive

157.

Electric fields point:

a)

into positive charges and outward from negative charges

b)

into negative charges and outward from positive charges

c)

into the south pole and out of the north pole

d)

into the north pole and out of the south pole

158.

When grid ratio increases, contrast:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

no change

d)

both

159.

As collimation increases, field size

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

160.

1. As the volume of tissue ___________, the amount of scatter production ___________.

a)

decreases, increases

b)

increases, decreases

c)

decreases, decreases

d)

decreases, remains the same

161.

A factor that affects the amount of scatter produced is ___________.

a)

kilovoltage

b)

grid

c)

air gap technique

d)

all of hte above

162.

1. Which grid would most effectively reduce scatter?

a)

6:1

b)

8:1

c)

12:1

d)

15:1

163.

When filtration is ____, technical factors must be ____ to maintain the same density.

a)

increased; decreased

b)

decreased; increased

c)

increased; increased

d)

decreased; remain the same

164.

Patient dose decreases as:

a)

SID decreases

b)

SID inreases

c)

SOD decreases

d)

OID increases

165.

A radiographer can reduce the amount of scatter radiation from reaching the receptor by

a)

collimating

b)

beam restriction

c)

utilizing a grid

d)

all of the above

166.

The AFS is always larger than the EFS.

a)

True

b)

False

167.

An increase in x-ray beam filtration:

a)

increases the scale of contrast

b)

reduces contrast

c)

increases the average photon energy

d)

all of the above

168.

What is the grid conversion factor for a 12:1 ratio grid?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

3

d)

5

169.

As wavelength increases:

a)

velocity increases

b)

frequency deceases

c)

frequency increases

d)

energy increases

170.

Matter that allows x-ray photons to pass through easily is:

a)

Low anatomic density, high radiographic density, radiolucent

b)

High anatomic density, low radiographic density, radiolucent

c)

High anatomic density, low radiographic density, radiopaque

d)

Low anatomic density, high radiographic density, radiopaque

171.

In the diagnostic range, the majority of the x-ray photons produced during the x-ray production process are termed:

a)

Compton

b)

Characteristic

c)

Brems

d)

Photoelectric

172.

Protective housing of an x-ray tube reduces the intensity of leakage radiation to less than:

a)

100 R/hr@1m

b)

100 mR/hr@10m

c)

10 mR/hr@10m

d)

100 mR/hr@1m

173.

A radiograph that demonstrates considerable differences between densities is referred to as:

a)

short scale

b)

long scale

c)

high contrast

d)

a and c are correct

174.

What is the relationship between receptor exposure and SID?

a)

directly proportional

b)

inversely proportional

c)

directly proportional to the square of the distance

d)

inversely proportional to the square of the distance

175.

The ratio of electric potential across a circuit element to the current flowing through it is called:

a)

voltage

b)

resistance

c)

current

d)

power

176.

In electrodynamics, which of the following is the correct expression?

a)

I=QT

b)

I=R/V

c)

R=I2V

d)

R=V/I

177.

Coulomb’s Law states that electrostatic force is:

a)

inversely proportional to the square of the distance between charges

b)

directly proportional to the square of the distance between charges

c)

inversely proportional to the product of charges

d)

directly proportional to the square of the product of charges

178.

The force of attraction or repulsion is referred to as:

a)

electric potential

b)

electromagnetic force

c)

electrostatic force

d)

electromotive force

179.

Which of the following accurately represents the transformer law for current?

a)

Is/Ip=Np/Ns

b)

Ip/Is=Ns/Np

c)

Is/Ip=Vs/Vp

d)

both a and b

180.

The _______ operates on the principle of self-induction.

a)

autotransformer

b)

step up transformer

c)

step down transformer

d)

both b and c

181.

The output current of a step-up transformer is:

a)

the same as the input current

b)

higher than the input current

c)

lower than the input current

d)

independent of the input current

182.

As shown in Coulomb’s Law, the electrostatic force is given in the unit of:

a)

coulombs

b)

newtons

c)

volts

d)

amps

183.

Frequency is:

a)

the rate of the rise and fall of a sine wave

b)

measured in wavelengths per minute

c)

measured as the distance from one crest to another

d)

none of the above

184.

A transformer functions mainly to change or transform electric:

a)

energy

b)

amperage

c)

voltage

d)

resistance

185.

Diamagnetic materials:

a)

have a north and south pole

b)

cannot be broken down into smallest units

c)

cannot be artificially magnetized

d)

have slight attractions to magnets

186.

Current always flows in one direction, which is:

a)

positive to negative

b)

negative to positive

c)

north to south

d)

south to north

187.

72. Magnets that are produced by charging them in the field of an electromagnet are referred to as:

a)

naturally occurring

b)

electromagnets

c)

artificially induced permanent magnets

d)

solenoid

188.

In a step-down transformer, which of the following is true?

a)

the secondary voltage is higher than the primary voltage

b)

the output voltage is higher than the primary voltage

c)

the primary voltage is lower than that secondary voltage.

d)

the secondary current is higher than the primary current.

189.

In a transformer with a turns ration greater than one, which of the following is true?

a)

the primary voltage is higher than the secondary voltage

b)

the secondary current is lower than the primary current

c)

the input voltage is greater than the output voltage

d)

the primary current is lower than the secondary current

190.

In a series circuit:

a)

The total current is the sum of the individual currents

b)

The voltage across each circuit element is the

same

c)

The total resistance is the sum of the

individual resistances

d)

Only three circuit elements are allowed

191.

Which of the following is not true regarding parallel circuits?

a)

IT = I1 + I2 + I3

b)

VT = V1 = V2 = V3

c)

RT = R1 + R2 + R3

d)

Contains elements that bridge conductors

192.

If there is a decrease in outgoing amperage, what type of transformer is it?

a)

step up transformer

b)

step down transformer

c)

neither of the above is correct

193.

All of the following are correct except:

a)

Vs/Vp=Ns/Np

b)

Is/Ip=Vp/Vs

c)

Is/Ip=Np/Ns

d)

Vp/Vs=Ns/Np

194.

Iron would be classified as a:

a)

diamagnetic

b)

paramagnetic

c)

non-magnetic

d)

ferromagnetic

195.

The term electromagnetic induction refers to the induction of:

a)

electromagnetic radiation

b)

a magnetic field

c)

an electric curent

d)

a static charge

196.

A substance that exhibits no resistance below a critical temperature is known as a:

a)

insulator

b)

conductor

c)

semiconductor

d)

superconductor

197.

The fundamental unit of the electric charge is

a)

electron charges

b)

coulomb

c)

voltage

d)

ampere

198.

Any charged particle in motion creates a magnetic field.

a)

true

b)

false

199.

A _____ relationship exists between the voltages across the primary and secondary coils and the number of turns of wire on the primary and secondary coils.

a)

direct

b)

inverse

200.

Which of the following would describe the volt?

a)

amps x resistance

b)

potential difference

c)

one amp transmitted through one ohm of resistance

d)

all of the above

201.

Which of the following does not increase contrast?

a)

increasing grid ratio

b)

increasing FOV

c)

decreasing filtration

d)

decreasing kVp

202.

For every ____ of part thickness, the radiographer should adjust the mAs by a factor of two:

a)

8 to 9 cm

b)

6 to 7 cm

c)

4 to 5 cm

d)

2 to 3 cm

203.

In a stationary anode tube, the target is embedded in an anode made of:

a)

tungsten

b)

molybdenum

c)

copper

d)

rhenium

204.

The two bi-products of a Compton interaction are ______.

a)

compton electron and compton secondary electron

b)

compton electron and compton recoil electron

c)

compton electron and compton scattered photon

d)

recoil electron and recoil photon

205.

The energy of characteristic x-rays increases with:

a)

incresing kVp

b)

increasing the atomic mass of filament material

c)

increasing the atomic number of the target material

d)

increasing added filtration

206.

Tube filaments are made of:

a)

molybdenum

b)

thoriated tungsten

c)

copper rhenium

d)

rhenium tungsten

207.

As the angle of the anode increases and the incident electron beam size remains the same, the effective focal spot size ____.

a)

increases

b)

remains the same

c)

decreases

d)

cannot be determined

208.

X-ray intensity is higher

on the cathode side than on the anode side because of which of the

following?

a)

the focusing cup

b)

the line focus principle

c)

the space charge effect

d)

anode heel effect

209.

As the angle of the anode increases, ____________________________.

a)

EFS increases, AHE incresases

b)

EFS decreases, AHE decreases

c)

EFS increases, AHE decreases

d)

EFS decreases, AHE increases

210.

The wavelength of an x-ray photon has a(n) _________ relationship with its penetrability.

a)

direct

b)

inverse

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