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Information Storage & Management Assessment (Set A)

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?

a)

Low Watermark (LWM)

b)

High Watermark (HWM)

c)

Least Recently Used (LRU)

d)

Most Recently Used (MRU)

2.

What does the area ID of the FC address identify?

a)

An individual port within a fabric

b)

Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric

c)

Location of the name server within the fabric

d)

Group of ports within a switch

3.

An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?

a)

Source devices must be healthy

b)

Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices

c)

Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices

d)

All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts

4.

Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications?

a)

TCP Offload Engine NIC

b)

FCIP bridging adapter

c)

Converged network adapter

d)

iSCSI host bus adapter

5.

What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?

a)

Defining cloud service attributes

b)

Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers

c)

Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer

d)

Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services

6.

Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?

a)

RecoverPoint

b)

NetWorker

c)

Avamar

d)

Data Domain

7.

What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?

a)

Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine

b)

Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume

c)

Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration

d)

Both hypervisors must have the same IP address

8.

Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?

a)

EUI

b)

WWNN

c)

WWPN

d)

IQN

9.

Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it wasreceived?

a)

Availability

b)

Security

c)

Integrity

d)

Performance

10.

What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?

a)

Area where the read/write head lands to access data

b)

Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters

c)

Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk

d)

Area on which the read/write head rests

11.

What is a characteristic of unified storage?

a)

Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface

b)

Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface

c)

Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution

d)

Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface

12.

What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement in a disk drive?

a)

Data transfer time

b)

Seek time

c)

Rotational latency

d)

Service time

13.

What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?

a)

Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications

b)

Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure

c)

Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources

d)

Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in

14.

Which statement describes a denial of service attack?

a)

Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services

b)

Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services

c)

Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack

d)

Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone's identity

15.

What is a key benefit of virtualization?

a)

Improved performance

b)

Enhanced interoperability

c)

Unlimited resource scaling

d)

Improved resource utilization

16.

What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?

a)

NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects

b)

NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments

c)

NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa

d)

Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically

17.

Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for resources

dynamically?

a)

Resource pooling

b)

Measured service

c)

On-demand self-service

d)

Rapid elasticity

18.

Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?

a)

Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated

b)

Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM

c)

Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot

d)

Create a "Gold" copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk

19.

Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?

a)

Pooling

b)

Metering

c)

Self-service requesting

d)

Publishing

20.

In the context of protecting the FC SAN infrastructure, what is an example of infrastructure integrity?

a)

Implementing iSNS discovery domains

b)

Implementing an FSPF algorithm to create a virtual SAN

c)

Preventing node login to the fabric without proper authorization

d)

Not permitting physical segmentation of nodes

21.

What is true about parity-based RAID?

a)

Parity is updated each time a write is performed

b)

Parity is read each time a read is performed

c)

Parity is updated only when writes fill a stripe

d)

Parity is updated each time when both reads and writes are performed

22.

What is an accurate statement about a gateway NAS solution?

a)

Consolidates file-level and block-level access on a single storage platform

b)

Provides integrated management for both NAS head and storage

c)

Creates a single file system that runs on all NAS heads

d)

NAS head and storage are managed independently

23.

What is prevented using RAID technology?

a)

Host Bus Adapter failures

b)

Data loss

c)

Security breach

d)

Switch failure

24.

Which process minimizes the exposure to a loss of uncommitted cached data when there is a power failure?

a)

Cache vaulting

b)

Cache mirroring

c)

Low watermarking

d)

Prefetching

25.

What are the three elements of the risk triad from an information security perspective?

a)

Actions, threats, and vulnerabilities

b)

Assets, threats, and countermeasures

c)

Assets, threats, and vulnerabilities

d)

Assets, countermeasures, and vulnerabilities

26.

Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to request resources using a service catalog through a web-based user interface?

a)

On-demand self-service

b)

Broad network access

c)

Metered services

d)

Catalog management

27.

What is a purpose for distributing Switch Registered State Change Notifications (SW-RSCNs) in a fabric?

a)

Stops or slows down transmissions from other switches in the fabric

b)

Distributes configuration values and congestion notifications across the fabric

c)

Exchanges requests for change notifications among distributed management servers

d)

Updates the name server on all switches in the fabric

28.

In the Fibre Channel protocol, what are functions of the FC-1 layer?

a)

Encoding and decoding

b)

Routing and flow control

c)

Interface mapping and flow control

d)

Transmission of raw bits and encoding

29.

What is a security implementation in NAS environments?

a)

S_ID Lockdown

b)

Port binding

c)

Kerberos

d)

FC-SP

30.

In an FC SAN environment, what is a benefit of zoning?

a)

Isolates fabric services

b)

Enables online volume expansion

c)

Provides non-disruptive data migration

d)

Restricts RSCN traffic

31.

What is the RAID 5 write penalty for random, small write I/Os?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

32.

Which EMC block-level storage virtualization product enables hosts from two different data centers to access a single copy of data?

a)

VPLEX

b)

VMAX

c)

VNX

d)

Vblock

33.

Which EMC product enables VNX array-based remote replication from a primary volume to a secondary volume residing on a different VNX storage system?

a)

MirrorView

b)

SnapView

c)

RepliStor

d)

SRDF

34.

A customer has a requirement to perform a backup each night. However, the customer has a limited amount of time for backups to run on week nights, Monday through Friday evenings.

Which backup granularity type is recommended to meet the backup window for those nights?

a)

Cumulative

b)

Full

c)

Incremental

d)

Differential

35.

What is a characteristic of a scale-out NAS?

a)

Distinct file systems are created on each node in the cluster

b)

File system grows dynamically as nodes are added in the cluster

c)

Up to four file systems can be created across the cluster

d)

Different file systems can be mixed on each node in a single cluster

36.

In a Microsoft Windows file sharing environment, what is a function of system access control lists (SACL)?

a)

Provides information on system access troubleshooting

b)

Uniquely identifies objects, users, and user groups

c)

Provides path name to access both inbound and outbound traffic

d)

Determines object access information that needs to be audited

37.

What is an advantage of synchronous remote replication compared to other remote replication methods?

a)

Near zero RTO

b)

No distance limitation

c)

Near zero RPO

d)

Faster response time

38.

What is an advantage of sub-LUN tiering?

a)

Improved performance

b)

Enhanced reliability and availability

c)

Dynamic expansion of storage capacity

d)

Faster provisioning of thin LUNs

39.

Which fabric service is responsible for managing and distributing Registered State Change Notifications

(RSCNs) to attached node ports?

a)

Name server

b)

Fabric login server

c)

Fabric controller

d)

Management server

40.

Which SAN security mechanism will prevent a switch port from being enabled even after a switch reboot?

a)

Port Binding

b)

Port Lockdown

c)

Persistent Switch Disable

d)

Persistent Port Disable

41.

What describes a full mesh topology?

a)

Consists of core and edge switch tiers

b)

Requires four switches

c)

All switches are directly connected to each other

d)

Requires two ISL hops for host to storage traffic

42.

What is a characteristic of pointer-based virtual replication?

a)

Replica is immediately available after activation of a replication session

b)

Replica device is at least as large as the source device

c)

Replica is available only after detachment from the source

d)

Source does not need to be healthy for the restore

43.

When using the image-based backup approach to backup a virtual machine, where does the backup client run?

a)

Hypervisor

b)

Virtual machine

c)

Backup device

d)

Proxy server

44.

Which NAS implementation consolidates file-based and block-based access on a single storage platform?

a)

Scale-out

b)

Gateway

c)

Unified

d)

Integrated

45.

Which data deduplication method increases the chance of identifying duplicate data even when there is only a minor difference between two documents?

a)

File level

b)

Fixed-block

c)

Variable-length segment

d)

Single-instance

46.

What is a key advantage of data striping across multiple disks as compared to a single disk?

a)

Space utilization

b)

Protection

c)

Performance

d)

Capacity

47.

Which EMC product is a disk-based backup and recovery solution and provides source-based data

deduplication?

a)

Data Domain

b)

Avamar

c)

NetWorker

d)

SourceOne

48.

When a service is described as "three 9s available", what is the approximate amount of downtime allowed per week?

a)

10 seconds

b)

10 minutes

c)

10 hours

d)

10 days

49.

What is a characteristic of an FC-SW implementation?

a)

Provides a dedicated path between nodes

b)

Nodes arbitrate to gain control of the data path to transfer data

c)

Only one node can perform an I/O operation at a time

d)

Supports up to 126 nodes

50.

What are the key components of an intelligent storage system?

a)

Front-end, cache, back-end, and physical disks

b)

Host, connectivity, back-end, and storage array

c)

Switch, ports, back-end, and physical disks

d)

Host, LUNs, cache, and physical disks