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GNSS Ground Course

Total questions: 32

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select the correct statement:

a)

GPS is one example of a GNSS

b)

GNSS is a different name for GPS

c)

GNSS is the military version of GPS

d)

GNSS is a type of GPS

2.

GPS has the following three major segments:

a)

GPS, GNSS and User

b)

Airborne, Ground and User

c)

Space, Control and User

d)

Civil, Military and Space

3.

The satellite segment consists of a constellation of:

a)

At least 24 Satellites plus 1 operational spare, in 6 orbital planes

b)

At least 24 Satellites plus 3 as operational spares, in 6 orbital planes

c)

At least 24 Satellites including 3 operational spares, in 8 orbital planes

d)

At least 24 Satellites including 3 operational spares, in 8 orbital planes

4.

Every satellite transmits continuously: (select all that apply)

a)

Using the same two L-Band frequencies as other GPS satellites

b)

On different frequencies from other satellites

c)

On L1 for coarse/acquisition codes (civilian) and L2 for precision ranging codes (military)

5.

Every satellite transmission includes the following navigation message data: (select all that apply)

a)

Satellite Ephemeris and Almanac data

b)

System maintenance/health status

c)

GPS time reference and clock corrections

6.

GPS receivers can distinguish between individual satellites using:

a)

Different frequencies for each satellite

b)

Almanac data of the satellites position in space

c)

Directional modulation

d)

Identifying the pseudo-random code unique to each satellite

7.

The function of the control segment in Colorado Springs, USA is:

a)

To track, monitor and manage all GNSS satellites

b)

To track, monitor and manage all GPS satellites

c)

For military use only

d)

For civilian use only

8.

The User segment consists of:

a)

An airborne receiver measuring the distance to the satellites

b)

A two-way UHF receiver

c)

A two-way UHF receiver

d)

Equipment receiving, decoding and processing the GPS satellite codes and message data

9.

In order to provide a 3D navigation solution an aircraft’s GPS receiver must have:

a)

A minimum of four satellites in view

b)

A minimum of five, or if barometric aiding is available four satellites in view

c)

A minimum of two satellites in view

d)

Three satellites in view for a three dimensional solution

10.

Select the correct statement: (select all that apply)

a)

Each GPS receiver contains a very accurate atomic clock

b)

A signal transmitted from the aircraft unit triggers a return signal from the satellites

c)

Triangulation is the basis of GPS navigation

11.

Select all correct statements:

a)

GPS measures distance by measuring travel time of a radio signal from the satellite to the receiver

b)

Each satellite contains its own highly accurate atomic clock

c)

The GPS signal is affected by the earths ionosphere and troposphere

12.

Each satellite transmits data as to its position relative to the centre of the earth, this is called:

a)

Selective availability

b)

Pseudo random code

c)

Ephemeris data

d)

Almanac data

13.

Almanac data provides the following information:

a)

The same as Ephemeris data

b)

Pseudo Random code

c)

Position and orbit information of each satellite within the entire Nav Star constellation

d)

Coefficient for calculating ionospheric delay and UTC

14.

GPS satellite signals are:

a)

High power digital transmission, not susceptible to static interference

b)

Low power digital transmission, susceptible to static interference

c)

High power analogue transmission, not susceptible to static interference

d)

Low power analogue transmission, susceptible to static interference

15.

The GPS uses triangulation to determine position:

a)

A minimum of two satellites are required for a two dimensional fix

b)

A minimum of three satellites are required for a three dimensional fix

c)

A minimum of three satellites are required for a two dimensional fix

d)

A minimum of four satellites are required for a two dimensional fix

16.

The mathematical model of the earth which GPS uses is known as:

a)

Satellite ranging

b)

Worldwide geodetic system 1972 (WGS-72)

c)

Worldwide geodetic system 1984 (WGS-84)

d)

TSO C129

17.

What Civil Aviation Rules contain GPS requirements?

a)

CAR Part 91 & AC Part 91

b)

CAR part 19 Subpart D

c)

AIP RAC 44.1, Subpart D

d)

TSO C-129 Class 1 and 2

18.

For IFR flights using GPS as a primary means of navigation:

a)

The make and model of GPS unit shall be entered in item 10 (nav equipment) of an ICAO flight plan

b)

An ICAO flight plan is not required

c)

“G” shall be entered in item 10 (nav equipment) on an ICAO flight plan

d)

No special entry needs to be made on the ICAO flight plan

19.

When must a RAIM prediction be performed?

a)

Prior to departure for all GPS flights

b)

During flight when a RAIM warning is displayed

c)

Prior to departure if a GPS approach is to be conducted

d)

Prior to commencement of a GPS approach

20.

If a GPS approach is planned at the destination, what must be considered with regards to an alternate?

a)

An alternate must be carried if standby power for runway lighting is not available for the GPS approach

b)

An alternate must be carried if at time of departure a RAIM outage is predicted

c)

If an alternate is required, a suitable GPS approach must be available at the alternate

d)

If an alternate is required, a suitable non-GPS approach must be available at the alternate

21.

Can GPS be used as a sole means navigation system?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Yes, but only within the NZ FIR

d)

Yes, but only within the Auckland Oceanic FIR

22.

What situation would result in a low PDOP?

a)

Many satellites in view, situated close together

b)

Few satellites in view, situated close together

c)

Many satellites in view, spaced far apart

d)

Few satellites in view, spaced far apart

23.

What does RAIM stand for?

a)

Receiver Automatic Identity Monitoring

b)

Receiver Assisted Integrity Monitoring

c)

Receiver Autonomous Identity Monitoring

d)

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

24.

What is clock error and how can it be minimised?

a)

Satellite clock is fast or slow, eliminated via corrections sent by master control station in Colorado Springs, USA

b)

Time delays due ionospheric and tropospheric propagation. The receiver compensates for this based on satellite position

c)

Receiver clock is fast or slow. The receiver automatically begins a trimming process until the error is minimized

d)

Satellite and receiver clocks are slightly out of sync. Cannot be eliminated due to unavoidable factors of relativity

25.

If a receiver’s clock is fast, will the distance of the aircraft from the satellite initially be calculated as further or closer than it actually is?

a)

Closer

b)

Further

c)

The same

d)

It depends on the position of the aircraft relative to the satellite

26.

What is the purpose of a masking angle and what is it typically set to?

a)

To ignore satellites in the cone of confusion directly overhead an aircraft, typically set to 7.5°

b)

To ignore satellites low on the horizon because their signals have greater atmosphere to pass through. Typically set to 7.5°

c)

To ignore satellites spaced too closely together. Typically set to 15°

d)

To ignore satellites low on the horizon due to higher relativity and clock errors. Typically set to 7.5°

27.

When might a RAIM warning be displayed?

a)

When there is poor satellite geometry or there aren’t enough satellites in view

b)

When the satellites in view are too low on the horizon and PDOP is too small

c)

When the pilot has failed to obtain a RAIM prediction before departure

d)

When the clock error or Ephemeris error has exceeded limits

28.

What is DGPS and how does it work?

a)

Digital GPS, works as an enhanced version of conventional analogue GPS

b)

Digital GPS, uses a series of ground reference stations to obtain accuracy data which is uploaded to the master control station

c)

Differential GPS, uses a series of ground reference stations to broadcast accuracy corrections to any nearby receivers

d)

Differential GPS, uses a series of additional satellites to improve satellite geometry

29.

What is the expected error of a GNSS system using C/A (civilian) code, with selective availability (SA) turned off?

a)

Max error of 3-5m

b)

Max error of 15-18m, less if SA were turned on

c)

Max error of 1-2 NM

d)

Max error of 15-18m. The US Government still has the option of exercising ‘selective deniability’ or the ‘jamming’ of civilian GPS use

30.

What is the relationship between PBN, RNP and RNAV?

a)

PBN and RNAV are types of RNP. PBN requires on-board integrity monitoring whereas RNAV does not

b)

RNP and RNAV are types of PBN. RNAV requires on-board integrity monitoring whereas RNP does not

c)

PBN and RNAV are types of RNP. RNAV requires on-board integrity monitoring whereas PBN does not

d)

RNP and RNAV are types of PBN. RNP requires on-board integrity monitoring whereas RNAV does not

31.

If an aircraft in NZ is following an RNAV 2 route, what is the tracking accuracy required?

a)

Within 1NM either side of track 90% of the time

b)

Within 2NM either side of track 95% of the time.

c)

Within 1NM either side of track 95% of the time.

d)

Within 2NM either side of track 90% of the time.

32.

If the GPS unit loses integrity, what action must the pilot take? (select all that apply)

a)

Notify ATC and verify position, if RAIM warning displays for more than 10 minutes

b)

Notify ATC and verify position, if GPS operates in DR mode for more than 1 minute

c)

Make a PAN PAN call and operate under VFR if conditions permit