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Final test on Propaedeutics of Internal Diseases

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. In aortic valve stenosis the face is characterized by:

a)

icteritiousness

b)

expressed paleness

c)

cyanotic ruddiness

d)

edema

2.

The appearance of negative apex impulse is detected in:

a)

mitral stenosis

b)

hypertensive disease

c)

adhesive pericarditis

d)

myocardial infarction

e)

cardiosclerosis

3.

What is the name of the part of the heart not covered with the lung?

a)

relative dullness

b)

absolute dullness

4.

Specify the location for auscultation of the aortic valve:

a)

apex

b)

2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

c)

2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum

5.

How is the III sound formed?

a)

atrial systole

b)

closure of atrioventricular valves

c)

myocardial oscillation with rapid ventricular filling

6.

Double Traube sound is characteristic for:

a)

mitral valve insufficiency

b)

mitral stenosis

c)

aortic valve insufficiency

d)

stenosis of the aortic orifice

e)

tricuspid valve insufficiency

7.

Name the characteristic auscultatory syndrome in mitral stenosis?

a)

gallop rhythm

b)

quail rhythm

c)

attenuation of S1, accentuation of S2 on the aorta

8.

What diseases are characterised by the absence of the fifth phase of Korotkov’s sounds?

a)

mitral stenosis

b)

aortic insufficiency

c)

thyrotoxicosis

d)

pregnancy

e)

hypothyroidism

9.

What is thready pulse?

a)

frequent

b)

small

c)

soft

d)

small and soft

10.

How to understand which sound in the recorded phonocardiogram is SII?

a)

Coincides with Q wave in the ECG

b)

Coincides with P wave in the ECG

c)

Coincides with the end of T wave

11.

What phenomena in the heart are studied by ECG?

a)

electric

b)

sound

c)

phase structure of the cardiac cycle

d)

blood supply to organs

12.

Depolarization and excitation of the atria are shown by this wave:

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

S

e)

T

13.

Which is NOT an ECG sign of horizontal electrical cardiac axis:

a)

approximately equal amplitude of R in the II and III leads; R in the I lead is small, but bigger than S

b)

R-waves in the I and II leads are maximal and approximately equal, S-wave prevails in the III lead

c)

R wave prevails over S in all standard leads, R is maximal in the II lead

d)

R wave is maximal in the III lead, S prevails in the I lead

e)

R wave is maximal in the І lead, S wave is maximal in the ІІІ lead

14.

ECG registers regular tachycardia with a rate of 170 per minute, wide equal QRS ≥ 0.12 sec, P waves are not visible. It is:

a)

atrial fibrillation

b)

atrial flutter

c)

ventricular tachycardia

d)

ventricular fibrillation/flutter

e)

sinus tachycardia

15.

Left ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by:

a)

expansion of the left border of relative dullness to the left

b)

high, strong, resistant apical impulse

c)

high, strong, resistant apical impulse

d)

dome-shaped apical impulse

e)

negative apical impulse

16.

Aortic stenosis is characterized by:

a)

skin pallor

b)

"carotid shudder"

c)

positive venous pulse

d)

pulsus differens

e)

"quail rhythm"

17.

The cause of acute right ventricular failure is:

a)

pulmonary thromboembolism

b)

chronic lung diseases

c)

mitral stenosis

d)

pulmonary valve insufficiency

e)

left ventricular myocardial infarction

18.

Second degree of arterial hypertension is characterized by the following levels of systolic and diastolic blood pressure (mmHg):

a)

160-179 over 100-109

b)

higher than 180 over 110

c)

140-159 over 90-99

d)

higher than 140 over lower than 90

19.

Progressive angina pectoris can be characterized by:

a)

ineffectiveness of nitroglycerin

b)

intensified and more frequent angina attacks

c)

angina attacks lasting more than 30 minutes

d)

occurrence of attacks at rest or in less physical exertion

20.

The early complications of myocardial infarction include:

a)

Dressler syndrome

b)

cardiogenic shock

c)

pulmonary edema

d)

chronic post-infarction aneurysm

21.

The most typical localization of pain in gastric diseases is:

a)

epigastrium

b)

left hypochondrium

c)

behind the sternum

d)

right hypochondrium

e)

spine

22.

A patient complains of nagging pain, occurring 1.5 to 2 hours after eating, especially spicy, rough food, as well as "hunger" night pain in the epigastric region. Assume the localization of pain:

a)

Extra-bulbous portion of the duodenum

b)

pyloric canal

c)

duodenal bulb

d)

antrum

e)

cardial and subcardial portion of the stomach

23.

The examination verifying ulcers in the stomach and duodenum is:

a)

X-ray examination

b)

endoscopic examination

c)

pH test

d)

study of gastric secretion by aspiration-titration method

24.

Disturbed passage of food through the esophagus is called:

a)

dyspepsia

b)

dysphagia

c)

sialorrhea

d)

constipation

e)

salivation

25.

In diseases of the pancreas, pain is:

a)

engirdling (belt-like)

b)

local

c)

localized in the left hypochondrium

d)

localized in the right hypochondrium

26.

The most valuable instrumental methods for examining the pancreas are:

a)

computed tomography

b)

ultrasound

c)

EGDS

d)

colonoscopy

e)

cholangiopancreatography

27.

Determine the type of jaundice in a patient with the following symptoms: skin and visible mucosae are saffron-yellow. On the skin of the upper half of the body there are telangiectasias, there is palmar erythema. The patient mentions constant pain in the right hypochondrium not associated with eating, intensifying when shaking while driving/riding. On palpation, the edge of the liver is dense, smooth, sharp, painful. The sizes of the liver by Kurlov: 18x14x12 cm. The spleen is not palpable. Laboratory examination: total bilirubin 104 μmol/l, conjugated bilirubin 40 μmol/l; ALT 124 U/l, AST 93 U/l. Choose the correct answer:

a)

hemolytic jaundice (suprahepatic)

b)

obstructive jaundice (subhepatic)

c)

hepatocellular jaundice (hepatic)

28.

The leading clinical symptom of hepatorenal syndrome is:

a)

pain in the right hypochondrium

b)

oligo – anuria

c)

xanthomas, xanthelasmas

d)

loss of appetite, weight loss

e)

dark urine

29.

Pancreatic endocrine insufficiency is diagnosed on the basis of determining the level of:

a)

ɣ-glutamyltranspeptidase

b)

alanine and aspartate transaminases

c)

blood glucose

d)

alkaline phosphatase

30.

Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome include:

a)

flatulence

b)

abdominal pain subsiding after defecation

c)

diarrhea

d)

constipation