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AUBF REMOVAL EXAM

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

a)

Greiss Reactiom

b)

Sodium nitroferricyanide

c)

P-dichloroaniline

d)

P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

2.

Reagent/s used in the leukocyte esterase reagent strip?

a)

Indoxylcarbonic acid ester

b)

P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

c)

Diazonium salt

d)

Both A and C

3.

All of the following can cause a positive leukocyte esterase reaction EXCEPT

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Basophils

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Eosinophils

4.

Microscopic analysis of urine specimen yields a moderate amount of RBC in spite a negative result for occult blood testing using a reagent strip. The technologist should determine if this patient has taken what?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Antihypertensive drugs

c)

Diuretics

d)

Antibiotics

5.

This type of microsopic technique is used to enhance visualization of hyaline casts, mucus threads and Trichomonas.

a)

Bright field microscopy

b)

Phase Contrast microscopy

c)

Polarizing microscopy

d)

Electron microscopy

6.

Oval fat bodies are

a)

Squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids

b)

Renal tubular cells that contain lipids

c)

Free floating droplets

d)

WBC with phagocytized lipids

7.

Ghost cells are microsopic finding of?

a)

RBC in hypertonic urine

b)

RBC in hypotonic urine

c)

WBC in hypertonic urine

d)

WBC in hypotonic urine

8.

Glitter cells are microsopic finding of?

a)

RBC in hypertonic urine

b)

RBC in hypotonic urine

c)

WBC in hypertonic urine

d)

WBC in hypotonic urine

9.

The presence of dysmorphic RBC and RBC casts are associated with

a)

Damage to the glomerulus

b)

Vascular injury along the genitourinary tract

c)

Drug-induced interstitial nephritis

d)

All of the above

10.

An eosinophil count may be requested on urine from a patient with suspected case of?

a)

Acute Glomerulonephritis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Renal Lithiasis

d)

Acute Interstitial Nephritis

11.

Increased transitional epithelial cells are indicative of?

a)

Catheterization

b)

Malignancy

c)

All of the above

12.

All cast typically contain?

a)

Tamm Horsfall protein

b)

Albumin

c)

IgG and IgM

d)

Globulin

13.

All cast typically contain?

a)

Tamm Horsfall protein

b)

Albumin

c)

IgG and IgM

d)

Globulin

14.

Uric acid crystals are seen in the following conditions EXCEPT

a)

Gout

b)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

c)

Ethylene glycol poisoning

d)

All of the above

15.

The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be a result of?

a)

Fecal contamination

b)

Strenuous exercise

c)

Renal diseases

d)

UTI

16.

All of the following contribute to the formation of urinary crystals BUT ONE

a)

Protein concentration

b)

pH

c)

Temperature

d)

Solute concentration

17.

What is the sequence of cast formation starting from the least significant?

a)

Waxy, hyaline, cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular

b)

Cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, hyaline, waxy

c)

Hyaline, cellular, finely granular, coarsely granular, waxy

d)

Hyaline, coarsely granular, finely granular, cellular, waxy

18.

It is considered as the most common cause of glomerulonephritis following infection and frequently seen in children and young adults

a)

Acute Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

b)

Good Pasture's Syndrome

c)

Henoch Schonlein Purpura

d)

IgA Nephropathy

19.

The following renal disorders are characterized by heavy proteinuria EXCEPT

a)

Membranous Glomerulonephritis

b)

Minimal Change Disease

c)

Focal Segmental Glomerulonephritis

d)

None of the above

20.

What is the sequence of cast formation starting from the least significant?

a)

Waxy, hyaline, cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular

b)

Cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, hyaline, waxy

c)

Hyaline, cellular, finely granular, coarsely granular, waxy

d)

Hyaline, coarsely granular, finely granular, cellular, waxy

21.

An inherited disorder affecting the glomerular basement membrane common among males. The glomerular basement membrane has a lamellated appearance with areas THINNING. No evidence of glomerular antibodies present.

a)

Alport Syndrome

b)

Diabetic Nephropathy

c)

Membranous glomerulonephritis

d)

Wegener's granulomatosis

22.

This is characterized by the appearance of cytotoxic antibody against the glomerular and alveolar basement membrane.

a)

Good Pasture's Syndrome

b)

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

c)

Nephrotic Syndrome

d)

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

23.

The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no bacteria seen is indicative of?

a)

Acute interstitial nephritis

b)

Chronic pyelonephritis

c)

Acute tubular necrosis

d)

Both A and C

24.

5-HIAA is a degradation product of

a)

Heme

b)

Indole

c)

Serotonin

d)

Melanin

25.

Which of the following mucopolysaccharide disorders exhibit mental retardation as the only abnormality?

a)

Hurler Syndrome

b)

Hunter Syndrome

c)

San Filippo Syndrome

d)

None of the above

26.

A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be

a)

Diluted 1:20

b)

Diluted 1:100

c)

Diluted 1:1000

d)

Not diluted

27.

CSF Lactate level of >25 or >35 mg/dL is seen in the following conditions EXCEPT

a)

Viral meningitis

b)

Bacterial meningitis

c)

Fungal meningitis

d)

Tubercular meningitis

28.

The NFPA classification symbol contains information on all the following EXCEPT

a)

Fire hazard

b)

Reactivity hazard

c)

Biohazard

d)

Health hazard

29.

The classification of fire that can be extinguished with sand or dry powder is?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

30.

A health hazard of 2 indicates

a)

Normal material

b)

Hazardous

c)

Slightly hazardous

d)

Extremely hazardous

31.

This is the most critical phase in drug testing wherein the specimen collection and identification is concerned

a)

Pre-analytical phase

b)

Analytical phase

c)

Post-analytical phase

d)

None of the above

32.

The type of nephron responsible for removal of waste products and reabsorption of nutrients

a)

Cortical nephron

b)

Juxtamedullary nephron

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

33.

Based on the average body size of 1.73 m of surface, the total PLASMA FLOW ranges?

a)

1,000- 1,200 mL/min

b)

400-500 mL/min

c)

600-700 mL/min

d)

900-1,000 mL/min

34.

The classification of fire that can be extinguished with sand or dry powder is?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

35.

All of the following are reabsorbed by passive transport in the tubules EXCEPT

a)

Water

b)

Urea

c)

Sodium

d)

Glucose

36.

All of the following are reabsorbed by passive transport in the tubules EXCEPT

a)

Water

b)

Urea

c)

Sodium

d)

Glucose

37.

The following are inorganic solids dissolved in urine EXCEPT

a)

Chloride

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Urea

38.

A person consuming alcohol will exhibit

a)

Oliguria

b)

Anuria

c)

Polyuria

d)

None of the above

39.

To consider a three glass collection sample for prostatitis

a)

1st sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 3rd sample

b)

1st sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 2nd sample

c)

3rd sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 2nd sample

d)

1st sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 1st sample

40.

What is the purpose of adding bluing agent to the toilet water reservoir in drug specimen collection procedure?

a)

To check for urine temperature

b)

To prevent specimen adulteration

c)

To prevent false positive results

d)

To avoid bacterial contamination

41.

All of the following changes occur in unpreserved urine EXCEPT

1.. Dec. Glucose

2. Dec. pH

3. Inc. ketones

4. Inc. clarity

5. Inc.urobilinogen

6. Inc. bacteria

a)

1,2

b)

2,3,4,5

c)

6

d)

All of the above

42.

The yellow color of urine is cause by the presence of this pigment

a)

Urochrome

b)

Urobilin

c)

Uroerythrin

d)

None of the above

43.

A Brown to Black FRESHLY VOIDED URINE secondary to glomerular bleeding contains

a)

Melanin

b)

Homogentisic acid

c)

Porphyrin

d)

Methemoglobin

44.

The following are common causes of turbidity in fresh urine specimen EXCEPT

a)

Amorphous phosphate

b)

WBC

c)

RBC

d)

Bacteria

45.

Common causes of sweet or fruity urine odor are due to the following EXCEPT

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Ketonuria

c)

Vomiting

d)

UTi

46.

A Brown to Black FRESHLY VOIDED URINE secondary to glomerular bleeding contains

a)

Melanin

b)

Homogentisic acid

c)

Porphyrin

d)

Methemoglobin

47.

What department is the 3rd CSF tube sent to?

a)

Chemistry

b)

Serology

c)

Hematology

d)

Microbiology

48.

The major component of seminal fluids is

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Acid phosphatase

d)

Citric acid

49.

The major component of seminal fluids is

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Acid phosphatase

d)

Citric acid

50.

The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to

a)

Penetrate ovum

b)

Protect the nucleus

c)

Create energy for tail movement

d)

Protect the neckpiece

51.

A black tarry stool is indicative of

a)

Upper GIT Bleeding

b)

Lower GIT Bleeding

c)

Excess fat

d)

Excess carbohydrates

52.

Fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen

a)

Fecal occult blood

b)

APT test

c)

Elastase I

d)

Quantitative fecal fat testing

53.

Fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen

a)

Fecal occult blood

b)

APT test

c)

Elastase I

d)

Quantitative fecal fat testing

54.

Test that differentiates a malabsorption cause from a maldigestion cause in steatorrhea.

a)

APT Test

b)

D-xylose test

c)

Lactose intolerance test

d)

FOB test

55.

Possible spontaneous clotting

a)

Transudate

b)

Exudate

56.

Predominant cells in CSF of neonates

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

57.

The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is

a)

Total Protein

b)

Uric acid

c)

Calcium

d)

Glucose

58.

The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is

a)

Total Protein

b)

Uric acid

c)

Calcium

d)

Glucose

59.

Ketonuria in a newborn is indicative of?

a)

MSUD

b)

Isovaleric acidemia

c)

Methionic acidemia

d)

All of the above

60.

The advantage of using phase contrast microscopy is to

a)

Enhance constituents with a low refractive index

b)

Provide higher magnification

c)

Provide a larger field of view

d)

Allow constituents to stain more clearly

61.

Which of the following glomerulus filtration tests has been shown to be more sensitive indicator of a decrease GFR than Creatinine clearance?

a)

Beta-2 Microglobulin

b)

Inulin clearance

c)

Cystatin C

d)

None of the above

62.

The first function affected in renal disease is

a)

Glomerular filtration

b)

Tubular Reabsorption

c)

Tubular Secretion

63.

The recommended capacity of urine container is

a)

50 mL

b)

60 mL

c)

70 mL

64.

The following urine specimens are ideal for diabetic monitoring EXCEPT

a)

First morning specimen

b)

Second morning specimen

c)

2 hr. Postprandial specimen

d)

Glucose tolerance specimen

65.

In the urine drug specimen collection procedure, the ideal temperature on the specimen should read

a)

20-25 deg C

b)

32.5-37.7 deg C

c)

25-30 deg C

d)

38-40 deg C

66.

In the urine drug specimen collection procedure, the ideal temperature on the specimen should read

a)

20-25 deg C

b)

32.5-37.7 deg C

c)

25-30 deg C

d)

38-40 deg C

67.

The primary chemical affected by the RAAS is

a)

Chloride

b)

Sodium

c)

Potassium

d)

Hydrogen

68.

Print cannot be seen through urine.

Urine Clarity Interpretation is

a)

Clear

b)

Hazy

c)

Cloudy

d)

Turbid

69.

Which of the following is reported as number per LPF?

a)

RBC

b)

Hyaline cast

c)

T.vaginalis

d)

All of the above

70.

The following are true about Fanconi's Syndrome EXCEPT

a)

Assoc. with dysfunction in the PCT tubular reabsorption

b)

Maybe inherited in association with cystinosis and Hartnup disease

c)

It affects the reabsorption of electrolytes, glucose and amino acids

d)

None of the above

71.

Which of the following test for Fetal Lung Maturity (FLM) is least affected by contamination with hemoglobin and meconium?

a)

Amniostat FLM

b)

Foam stability

c)

Lamellar bodies count

d)

TDx-FLM II

72.

A red urine with a negative chemical test for blood is due to the presence of

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Porphyrin

d)

RBCs

73.

Low urine urobilinogen level is indicative of

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Biliary obstruction

c)

Hepatic disease

74.

Most common cause of male infertility

a)

Smoking

b)

Drugs

c)

Variocele

d)

None of the above

75.

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Blood

c)

Leukocyte esterase

d)

Glucosd

76.

A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for:

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Renal disease

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Pancreatitis

77.

The first morning specimen of urine is requested often because the

a)

Patient rested all night

b)

Urine remains in the bladder for a longer time

c)

Urine is more concentrated

d)

Specimen is easier to collect

78.

Infection of the bladder is termed

a)

Pyelonephritis

b)

Nephritis

c)

Cystitis

d)

Pyuria

79.

Most common compound used in Fecal Occult Blood testing

a)

Benzene

b)

Guaiac

c)

Orthotoluidine

80.

Ultrafiltrate of the plasma formed in the choroid plexus

a)

Serous fluid

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid

c)

Pericardial fluid