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WorksheetsAUBF REMOVAL EXAM
Total questions: 80
Worksheet time: 18mins
Which of the following reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?
Greiss Reactiom
Sodium nitroferricyanide
P-dichloroaniline
P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
Reagent/s used in the leukocyte esterase reagent strip?
Indoxylcarbonic acid ester
P-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
Diazonium salt
Both A and C
All of the following can cause a positive leukocyte esterase reaction EXCEPT
Neutrophils
Basophils
Red blood cells
Eosinophils
Microscopic analysis of urine specimen yields a moderate amount of RBC in spite a negative result for occult blood testing using a reagent strip. The technologist should determine if this patient has taken what?
Vitamin C
Antihypertensive drugs
Diuretics
Antibiotics
This type of microsopic technique is used to enhance visualization of hyaline casts, mucus threads and Trichomonas.
Bright field microscopy
Phase Contrast microscopy
Polarizing microscopy
Electron microscopy
Oval fat bodies are
Squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids
Renal tubular cells that contain lipids
Free floating droplets
WBC with phagocytized lipids
Ghost cells are microsopic finding of?
RBC in hypertonic urine
RBC in hypotonic urine
WBC in hypertonic urine
WBC in hypotonic urine
Glitter cells are microsopic finding of?
RBC in hypertonic urine
RBC in hypotonic urine
WBC in hypertonic urine
WBC in hypotonic urine
The presence of dysmorphic RBC and RBC casts are associated with
Damage to the glomerulus
Vascular injury along the genitourinary tract
Drug-induced interstitial nephritis
All of the above
An eosinophil count may be requested on urine from a patient with suspected case of?
Acute Glomerulonephritis
Cystitis
Renal Lithiasis
Acute Interstitial Nephritis
Increased transitional epithelial cells are indicative of?
Catheterization
Malignancy
All of the above
All cast typically contain?
Tamm Horsfall protein
Albumin
IgG and IgM
Globulin
All cast typically contain?
Tamm Horsfall protein
Albumin
IgG and IgM
Globulin
Uric acid crystals are seen in the following conditions EXCEPT
Gout
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Ethylene glycol poisoning
All of the above
The finding of increased hyaline and granular casts in the urine of an otherwise healthy person may be a result of?
Fecal contamination
Strenuous exercise
Renal diseases
UTI
All of the following contribute to the formation of urinary crystals BUT ONE
Protein concentration
pH
Temperature
Solute concentration
What is the sequence of cast formation starting from the least significant?
Waxy, hyaline, cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular
Cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, hyaline, waxy
Hyaline, cellular, finely granular, coarsely granular, waxy
Hyaline, coarsely granular, finely granular, cellular, waxy
It is considered as the most common cause of glomerulonephritis following infection and frequently seen in children and young adults
Acute Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
Good Pasture's Syndrome
Henoch Schonlein Purpura
IgA Nephropathy
The following renal disorders are characterized by heavy proteinuria EXCEPT
Membranous Glomerulonephritis
Minimal Change Disease
Focal Segmental Glomerulonephritis
None of the above
What is the sequence of cast formation starting from the least significant?
Waxy, hyaline, cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular
Cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, hyaline, waxy
Hyaline, cellular, finely granular, coarsely granular, waxy
Hyaline, coarsely granular, finely granular, cellular, waxy
An inherited disorder affecting the glomerular basement membrane common among males. The glomerular basement membrane has a lamellated appearance with areas THINNING. No evidence of glomerular antibodies present.
Alport Syndrome
Diabetic Nephropathy
Membranous glomerulonephritis
Wegener's granulomatosis
This is characterized by the appearance of cytotoxic antibody against the glomerular and alveolar basement membrane.
Good Pasture's Syndrome
Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis
Nephrotic Syndrome
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
The presence of WBCs and WBC casts with no bacteria seen is indicative of?
Acute interstitial nephritis
Chronic pyelonephritis
Acute tubular necrosis
Both A and C
5-HIAA is a degradation product of
Heme
Indole
Serotonin
Melanin
Which of the following mucopolysaccharide disorders exhibit mental retardation as the only abnormality?
Hurler Syndrome
Hunter Syndrome
San Filippo Syndrome
None of the above
A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be
Diluted 1:20
Diluted 1:100
Diluted 1:1000
Not diluted
CSF Lactate level of >25 or >35 mg/dL is seen in the following conditions EXCEPT
Viral meningitis
Bacterial meningitis
Fungal meningitis
Tubercular meningitis
The NFPA classification symbol contains information on all the following EXCEPT
Fire hazard
Reactivity hazard
Biohazard
Health hazard
The classification of fire that can be extinguished with sand or dry powder is?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
A health hazard of 2 indicates
Normal material
Hazardous
Slightly hazardous
Extremely hazardous
This is the most critical phase in drug testing wherein the specimen collection and identification is concerned
Pre-analytical phase
Analytical phase
Post-analytical phase
None of the above
The type of nephron responsible for removal of waste products and reabsorption of nutrients
Cortical nephron
Juxtamedullary nephron
Both A and B
None of the above
Based on the average body size of 1.73 m of surface, the total PLASMA FLOW ranges?
1,000- 1,200 mL/min
400-500 mL/min
600-700 mL/min
900-1,000 mL/min
The classification of fire that can be extinguished with sand or dry powder is?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
All of the following are reabsorbed by passive transport in the tubules EXCEPT
Water
Urea
Sodium
Glucose
All of the following are reabsorbed by passive transport in the tubules EXCEPT
Water
Urea
Sodium
Glucose
The following are inorganic solids dissolved in urine EXCEPT
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
Urea
A person consuming alcohol will exhibit
Oliguria
Anuria
Polyuria
None of the above
To consider a three glass collection sample for prostatitis
1st sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 3rd sample
1st sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 2nd sample
3rd sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 2nd sample
1st sample should have 10x greater WBCs and bacteria than 1st sample
What is the purpose of adding bluing agent to the toilet water reservoir in drug specimen collection procedure?
To check for urine temperature
To prevent specimen adulteration
To prevent false positive results
To avoid bacterial contamination
All of the following changes occur in unpreserved urine EXCEPT
1.. Dec. Glucose
2. Dec. pH
3. Inc. ketones
4. Inc. clarity
5. Inc.urobilinogen
6. Inc. bacteria
1,2
2,3,4,5
6
All of the above
The yellow color of urine is cause by the presence of this pigment
Urochrome
Urobilin
Uroerythrin
None of the above
A Brown to Black FRESHLY VOIDED URINE secondary to glomerular bleeding contains
Melanin
Homogentisic acid
Porphyrin
Methemoglobin
The following are common causes of turbidity in fresh urine specimen EXCEPT
Amorphous phosphate
WBC
RBC
Bacteria
Common causes of sweet or fruity urine odor are due to the following EXCEPT
Diabetes mellitus
Ketonuria
Vomiting
UTi
A Brown to Black FRESHLY VOIDED URINE secondary to glomerular bleeding contains
Melanin
Homogentisic acid
Porphyrin
Methemoglobin
What department is the 3rd CSF tube sent to?
Chemistry
Serology
Hematology
Microbiology
The major component of seminal fluids is
Glucose
Fructose
Acid phosphatase
Citric acid
The major component of seminal fluids is
Glucose
Fructose
Acid phosphatase
Citric acid
The purpose of the acrosomal cap is to
Penetrate ovum
Protect the nucleus
Create energy for tail movement
Protect the neckpiece
A black tarry stool is indicative of
Upper GIT Bleeding
Lower GIT Bleeding
Excess fat
Excess carbohydrates
Fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen
Fecal occult blood
APT test
Elastase I
Quantitative fecal fat testing
Fecal test that requires a 3-day specimen
Fecal occult blood
APT test
Elastase I
Quantitative fecal fat testing
Test that differentiates a malabsorption cause from a maldigestion cause in steatorrhea.
APT Test
D-xylose test
Lactose intolerance test
FOB test
Possible spontaneous clotting
Transudate
Exudate
Predominant cells in CSF of neonates
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is
Total Protein
Uric acid
Calcium
Glucose
The most frequently performed chemical test on synovial fluid is
Total Protein
Uric acid
Calcium
Glucose
Ketonuria in a newborn is indicative of?
MSUD
Isovaleric acidemia
Methionic acidemia
All of the above
The advantage of using phase contrast microscopy is to
Enhance constituents with a low refractive index
Provide higher magnification
Provide a larger field of view
Allow constituents to stain more clearly
Which of the following glomerulus filtration tests has been shown to be more sensitive indicator of a decrease GFR than Creatinine clearance?
Beta-2 Microglobulin
Inulin clearance
Cystatin C
None of the above
The first function affected in renal disease is
Glomerular filtration
Tubular Reabsorption
Tubular Secretion
The recommended capacity of urine container is
50 mL
60 mL
70 mL
The following urine specimens are ideal for diabetic monitoring EXCEPT
First morning specimen
Second morning specimen
2 hr. Postprandial specimen
Glucose tolerance specimen
In the urine drug specimen collection procedure, the ideal temperature on the specimen should read
20-25 deg C
32.5-37.7 deg C
25-30 deg C
38-40 deg C
In the urine drug specimen collection procedure, the ideal temperature on the specimen should read
20-25 deg C
32.5-37.7 deg C
25-30 deg C
38-40 deg C
The primary chemical affected by the RAAS is
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
Hydrogen
Print cannot be seen through urine.
Urine Clarity Interpretation is
Clear
Hazy
Cloudy
Turbid
Which of the following is reported as number per LPF?
RBC
Hyaline cast
T.vaginalis
All of the above
The following are true about Fanconi's Syndrome EXCEPT
Assoc. with dysfunction in the PCT tubular reabsorption
Maybe inherited in association with cystinosis and Hartnup disease
It affects the reabsorption of electrolytes, glucose and amino acids
None of the above
Which of the following test for Fetal Lung Maturity (FLM) is least affected by contamination with hemoglobin and meconium?
Amniostat FLM
Foam stability
Lamellar bodies count
TDx-FLM II
A red urine with a negative chemical test for blood is due to the presence of
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Porphyrin
RBCs
Low urine urobilinogen level is indicative of
Hemolysis
Biliary obstruction
Hepatic disease
Most common cause of male infertility
Smoking
Drugs
Variocele
None of the above
The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the
Bilirubin
Blood
Leukocyte esterase
Glucosd
A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for:
Diabetes mellitus
Renal disease
Gestational diabetes
Pancreatitis
The first morning specimen of urine is requested often because the
Patient rested all night
Urine remains in the bladder for a longer time
Urine is more concentrated
Specimen is easier to collect
Infection of the bladder is termed
Pyelonephritis
Nephritis
Cystitis
Pyuria
Most common compound used in Fecal Occult Blood testing
Benzene
Guaiac
Orthotoluidine
Ultrafiltrate of the plasma formed in the choroid plexus
Serous fluid
Cerebrospinal fluid
Pericardial fluid
