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WorksheetsIE_Pre GTU 2
Total questions: 83
Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Name (As per GTU)
4 lines
2.
Enrollment Number
4 lines
3.
Email Address
4 lines
4.
Producion is relative term while productivity is absolute rerm
a)
true
b)
false
5.
To determine the most efficient method of performing a job is the aim of _____
a)
work study
b)
work measurement
c)
method study
d)
time study
6.
The main objective of work measurement is to
a)
(a) plan and schedule of production
b)
(b) formulate a proper incentive scheme
c)
(c) estimate the selling prices and delivery dates
d)
(d) all of the above
7.
_______ is the systematic recording and critical examination of ways of doing things in order to make improvements
a)
Method study
b)
Work Study
c)
Time Study
d)
Work Measurement
8.
FPC records
a)
sets out sequence of flow (of a procedure or product)
b)
records all the events in sequence using process chart symbols
c)
marks distances travelled and time taken for completing an activity
d)
all of the above
9.
Which chart surveys and records an overall picture of the process and states only main events sequence-wise
a)
OPC
b)
FPC
c)
PPC
d)
MAC
10.
attempt to find an object using eyes or hand is fall under which therbling?
a)
search
b)
find
c)
select
d)
None of the above
11.
Which therblings are ineffective therblings?
a)
Search, Reach, Move
b)
Select, Search, Hold
c)
Position, Use, Reach
d)
Assemble, Search
12.
to find Standard time, aloowance is always added in normal time
a)
true
b)
false
13.
Tool Sharpening time is the which type of allowance?
a)
Contingency
b)
Relaxation
c)
special
d)
policy
14.
Power failure for small duration time is the which type of allowance?
a)
Contingency
b)
Relaxation
c)
special
d)
policy
15.
Fatigue allowance is 4% for men and women both
a)
true
b)
false
16.
An _______ does not occur in each work cycle of the job, but which may occur at regular or irregular intervals
a)
repetitive element
b)
occasional element
c)
constant element
d)
variable element
17.
the element occupies a longer time than any of the other elements which are being performed concurrently is known as?
a)
governing element
b)
foreign element
c)
repetitive element
d)
occasional element
18.
String diagram is used
a)
(a) for checking the relative values of various layouts
b)
(b) when a group of workers are working at a place
c)
(c) where processes require the operator to be moved from one work place to another
d)
(d) all of the above
19.
Time study is carried out
a)
(a) by finding all the significant informations regarding the job, work place and machine tool etc.
b)
(b) by breaking up each operation into small elements which are measurable with the help of the measuring device accurately
c)
(c) by observing and recording the time taken by the operator for an operation
d)
(d) all of the above
20.
In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine
a)
(a) standard time of a job
b)
(b) merit rating of the worker
c)
(c) fixation of incentive rate
d)
(d) normal time of a worker
21.
Standard time is equal to
a)
(a) normal time minus allowances
b)
(b) normal time plus allowances ,
c)
(c) representative time multiplied by rating factor
d)
(d) normal time taken by an operation
22.
Representative time is the average of times recorded by work study man for an operation.
a)
(a) Agree
b)
(b) Disagree
23.
Performance rating is equal to
a)
(a) observed performance + normal performance
b)
(b) observed performance - normal performance
c)
(c) observed performance x normal performance
d)
(d) none of the above
24.
Time study is used to
a)
(a) determine standard costs
b)
(b) determine the number of machines a person may run
c)
(c) provide a basis for setting piece price or incentive wages
d)
(d) all of the above
25.
Micromotion study is
a)
(a) analysis of one stage of motion chart
b)
(b) motion study, when seen on a time chart
c)
(c) subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
d)
(d) enlarged view of motion study
26.
P.M.T.S. (Predetermined Motion Time Systems) include
a)
(a) M.T.M. (Method Time Measurement)
b)
(b) W.F.S. (Work Factor Systems)
c)
(c) B.M.T.S. (Basic Motion Time Study)
d)
(d) all of these
27.
Abbreviated work factor data is applied for
a)
(a) material handling operation
b)
(b) maintenance operation
c)
(c) packing and shipping operation
d)
(d) all of these
28.
Which of the following wage incentive plan guarantees minimum wage to a worker and bonus is paid for the fixed percentage of time saved?
a)
(a) Halsey plan
b)
(b) Gantt plan
c)
(c) Rowan plan
d)
(d) Emerson’s efficiency plan
29.
According to Rowan plan of wage incentive system, bonus is paid to a worker
a)
(a) whose output exceeds 67% efficiency
b)
(b) on the percentage of time saved
c)
(c) on the percentage of time worked
d)
(d) on the percentage of standard time
30.
Which of the following wage incentive plan is applied to all workers?
a)
(a) Halsey plan
b)
(b) Gantt plan
c)
(c) Emerson’s efficiency plan
d)
(d) Rowan plan
31.
The most suitable incentive plan for the maintenance section of an industry will be
a)
(a) piece rate system
b)
(b) group incfentive plan
c)
(c) profit sharing plans
d)
(d) simplification
32.
The factors which are to be considered while developing a good wage inceruivt plan will include
a)
(a) adequate incentive
b)
(b) ease of administration
c)
(c) guaranteed basic pay
d)
(d) all of these
33.
A forecast is a prediction of future events used for planning what, when, and how large a supply of resources must be acquired and scheduled.
a)
true
b)
false
34.
Random patterns of demand are highly predictable and can be controlled in the planning process.
a)
true
b)
false
35.
Qualitative methods of forecasting are used in the absence of historical data and to enhance the value of selected quantitative forecasts.
a)
true
b)
false
36.
The Delphi Method relies heavily on an expensive database and the judgment of internal managers.
a)
true
b)
false
37.
Naive forecasts are useful only in a day-to-day forecasting environment.
a)
true
b)
false
38.
Forecast errors are used as a comparative measure of the relative value of a forecasting technique.
a)
true
b)
false
39.
Time series analysis is most often used in the zero to three-month time frame due to its relatively low cost and acceptable accuracy.
a)
true
b)
false
40.
Accurate forecasting requires the exercise and comparison of a variety of models to determine the “best” forecasting technique. Once this process is completed, the most successful results are obtained by using the selected technique for at least 12–18 months.
a)
true
b)
false
41.
The weekly demand of soap experienced by a supermarket for the last four weeks is 325, 340, 320, and 350. What will be the forecast error if the actual demand turns out to be 345 (ignore negative sign, if there is any)?
a)
10
b)
6
c)
9
d)
7
e)
8
42.
The weekly demand of soap experienced by a supermarket for the last four weeks is 325, 340, 320, and 350. Forecast the demand of soap for the 5th week using trend-corrected exponential smoothing. Consider the value of α = 0.1, β = 0.2, and the initial trend (T0) = 20.
a)
416
b)
404
c)
409
d)
402
43.
An OC curve shows the probability of accepting lots with various fractions defective.
a)
true
b)
false
44.
Steep OC curves are less discriminating than less steep curves because they don't cover a wide range of fraction defective.
a)
true
b)
false
45.
A producer's risk is the probability that a lot containing acceptable quality will be rejected.
a)
true
b)
false
46.
Increasing the sample size will decrease the probability of making a Type II error.
a)
true
b)
false
47.
The cost of replacing a defective item after shipment is $5. The cost of inspecting each item before shipment is $.10. The indifference between 100% inspection and replacement of defectives would be (in %)
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
48.
Mass production led to the formation of separate quality departments
a)
true
b)
false
49.
The responsibility of production is to ensure that design specifications are met
a)
true
b)
false
50.
Common causes of variation consist of all the minor variations in a production process that cannot be identified on an individual basis
a)
true
b)
false
51.
Control charts allow operators to see the progress of their work and to take pride in keeping a process under control
a)
true
b)
false
52.
Most production processes produce output with no variation in quality characteristics
a)
true
b)
false
53.
Performance management is viewed as a process carried out as a(n)
a)
once-a-year task
b)
twice-a-year activity
c)
ongoing process or cycle
d)
None of the above
54.
The term performance rating system stands for
a)
a grade or score concerning the overall performance
b)
the information about the extent to which the work objectives were met
c)
the past objectives of the organization
d)
the achievements for a period of one year
55.
Job evaluation is a technique adopted for determining the _______ of the job.
a)
internal worth
b)
external worth
c)
internal and external worth
d)
None of the above
56.
Which of the following is not an analytical method of job evaluation?
a)
Point ranking method
b)
Factor comparison method
c)
Paired comparison
d)
None of the above
57.
When jobs are grouped on the basis of the similarities found in their characteristics and values, it is called
a)
Paired comparison
b)
Ranking method
c)
Job grading
d)
Point ranking method
58.
The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
a)
Together can be applicable.
b)
The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
c)
The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
d)
If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
59.
Which of the following is not included under the definition of wages given under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
a)
(a) Basic Wage
b)
(b) Dearness Allowance
c)
(c) Incentive
d)
(d) Gratuity
60.
If deduction is made contrary to the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the aggrieved employee can write to the inspector appointed under the Act within the time period given below from the date on which the deduction from wages was made or the date on which the payment of wages is due
a)
(a) two years
b)
(b) one year
c)
(c) twelve weeks
d)
(d) six weeks
61.
The present wage ceiling per month for the purpose of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 is
a)
(a) Rs. 10. 000/-
b)
(b) Rs. 15, 000/-
c)
(c) Rs. 18, 000/-
d)
(d) Rs. 20,000/-
62.
According to this Act, the maximum wage period or payment of wages to employees by employer should not exceed
a)
(a) 45 days
b)
(b) 15 days
c)
(c) 30 days
d)
(d) 60 days
63.
The total amount of deductions from wages of employees should not exceed -------- percentage.
a)
(a) 50 %
b)
(b) 70 %
c)
(c) 25 %
d)
(d) 40 %
64.
Fine should be recovered within ------- days from the date on which fine were imposed.
a)
(a) 30 days
b)
(b) 45 days
c)
(c) 60 days
d)
(d) 75 days
65.
If wage period exceed one month, the employer may be punished with fine which shall not be less than -------- 1000/- rupees but which may extend to --------- 7500/- rupees.
a)
(a) Rs.1000/- and Rs.7500/-
b)
(b) Rs.1000/- and Rs.10,000/-
c)
(c) Rs. 500/- and Rs. 5000/-
d)
(d) Rs.750/- and Rs.6000/-
66.
Fine should not be imposed on any employee who is under the age of ------- years.
a)
(a) 21 years
b)
(b) 18 years
c)
(c) 15 years
d)
(d) 14 years
67.
One type of control chart for attributes is a
a)
CPK chart.
b)
R-chart.
c)
x-bar chart.
d)
p-chart.
68.
If a sample of parts is measured and the mean of the sample measurements is outside the control limits
a)
the process is in control, but not capable of producing within the established control limits.
b)
the process is out of control and the cause can be established.
c)
The process variance must also be in control.
d)
the process is within the established control limits with only natural causes of variation.
69.
The object of a statistical process control (SPC) system is to
a)
provide a signal when assignable variations are present.
b)
provide a signal when natural variations are present.
c)
assess the customer expectations.
d)
eliminate natural variation.
70.
In acceptance sampling, the producer's risk is the risk of having a
a)
good lot accepted.
b)
good lot rejected.
c)
bad lot accepted.
d)
bad lot rejected.
71.
Twenty samples of size 5 are taken from a stable process. The average means of the sample means is 42.5, and the average range of the samples is 1.5. What is the UCL for the R-chart? (A2=0.577, D3=0, D4=2.115)
a)
3.17
b)
43.37
c)
0
d)
1.5
72.
A customer service hotline has received an average of 7 complaints a day for the last 25 days. What type of control chart should be used to monitor this hotline?
a)
p-chart
b)
c-chart
c)
R-chart
d)
X-bar chart
73.
A bottling company runs a filling process that should fill bottles with 12 plus or minus 0.04 ounces. A capability study reveals that the process mean is 12 ounces and the standard deviation is 0.01 ounces. What is the capability of the bottling process?
a)
0.67
b)
0.75
c)
1.33
d)
1.5
74.
Which is the best statement regarding an operating characteristic curve?
a)
As the fraction defective decreases, the probability of accepting the lot also decreases.
b)
As the lot tolerance percent defective decreases, the consumer's risk also decreases.
c)
As the AQL decreases, the producer's risk also decreases.
d)
As the fraction defective increases, the probability of accepting the lot also increases.
75.
A process is said to be operating in statistical control when the only natural variation is present.
a)
true
b)
false
76.
The central limit theorem states that regardless of the distribution of all parts (or services), the distribution of x-bars will tend to follow a normal curve as the number of samples increases.
a)
true
b)
false
77.
One popular measure of process capability is Cpk.
a)
true
b)
false
78.
For a process exhibiting only natural variation, 95% of the sample averages will fall within three standard deviations of the sampling distribution.
a)
true
b)
false
79.
Six sigma capability means that the process specifications are six standard deviations wide.
a)
true
b)
false
80.
The average outgoing quality limit (AOQL) tells the producer the maximum fraction defective possible for a sampling plan.
a)
true
b)
false
81.
Cp is a measure of which of the following?
a)
process variability
b)
process conformity
c)
process capability
d)
process dependability
82.
Upper and lower control limits in control charts are commonly based on how many standard deviations?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
1
d)
2
83.
Which of the following is a control chart for the fraction of noncompliant items in multiple samples?
a)
c
b)
x-bar
c)
p
d)
R
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