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Revision questions Y10

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which muscle is NOT located in the upper body?

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Pectorals

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Latissimus Dorsi

2.

What are two muscles that work together called?

a)

Antagonistic pairs

b)

Agonist pairs

c)

Muscle pairs

d)

Agonist partners

3.

Which ones of these describes a muscle contracting and shortening?

a)

Isometric

b)

Concentric

c)

Eccentric

d)

Contraction

4.

During movement, one muscle contracts and the other relaxes. What is the muscle called that contracts?

a)

Secondary mover

b)

Antagonist

c)

First mover

d)

Agonist

5.

During flexion at the shoulder, which muscle is the agonist?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Trapezius

c)

Abdominals

d)

Latissimus Dorsi

6.

There are many different types of movement. Apart from flexion, what other movements can be produced at a ball and socket joint?

(a)  

7.

During a jump shot, a basketballer will push off of the floor using plantarflexion at the ankle. Which muscles work together to cause movement at the ankle?

a)

Quadriceps and hamstrings

b)

Gastrocnemius and hamstrings

c)

Gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior

d)

Tibialis anterior and quadriceps

8.

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

a)

To move your neck

b)

To assist with inhalation during exercise

c)

To assist with speaking

d)

To assist during exhalation

9.

Which muscles work to cause movement at the elbow?

a)

Tricep and latissimus dorsi

b)

Radius and ulna

c)

Deltoid and latissimus dorsi

d)

Bicep and tricep

10.

During the downward phase of a squat, the quadriceps will contract and lengthen to control the movement. This is called an (a)   contraction.

11.

The humerus is a long bone located in the top half of the arm. Which is another long bone in the body?

a)

Sternum

b)

Scapula

c)

Femur

d)

Patella

12.

What are flat bones responsible for?

a)

Movement

b)

Protection

c)

Support

d)

Structure

13.

Protection is one function of the skeleton. Name one more.

(a)  

14.

There are lots of structures to a synovial joint to allow free movement. What is the role of the cartilage?

a)

Shock absorber

b)

Padding the end of the bone

c)

Reduce rubbing of bones

d)

All of above

15.

What is dislocation?

a)

The bones of a joint come out of their normal position

b)

Two bones break

c)

A ligament snaps

d)

A tendon twists

16.

Which bones make up with ankle joint?

a)

Tibia and femur

b)

Fibula and patella

c)

Humerus and radius

d)

Tibia, fibula and talus

17.

Which bone is located in the upper body?

a)

Femur

b)

Tibia

c)

Clavicle

d)

Pelvis

18.

Name one ball and socket joint in the body?

(a)  

19.

Where does air enter and exit the body?

(a)  

20.

Gaseous exchange occurs in the...

a)

Trachea

b)

Bronchi

c)

Bronchioles

d)

Alveoli

21.

During inhalation, the intercostal mucles and diaphragm (a)   to lift up the ribs.

22.

What is haemoglobin?

a)

Pigment found in red blood cells

b)

Combines with oxygen to transport around the body

c)

Carbon dioxide attaches to be transported around the body

d)

All of the above

23.

A process called diffusion takes place to allow oxygen to enter our body. Which best describes how diffusion occurs with oxygen?

a)

There is a low concentration of oxygen in the alveoli so it stays there

b)

A high concentration of oxygen in the alveoli diffuses through to a lower concentration in the capillaries

c)

A high concentration of oxygen in the red blood cells diffuses through to the alveoli to exit the body

d)

There is a high concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide that needs to enter the body

24.

Name a type of blood vessel

(a)  

25.

Which word describes any blood vessel going to or from the lungs?

a)

Aorta

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Capillary

d)

Vein

26.

What is equation for cardiac output?

a)

Heart rate x stroke volume

b)

The amount of blood pumped out in one pump

c)

The amount of times the heart beats per minute

d)

How much blood is in the heart

27.

The diameter of an artery can get bigger and smaller. When the diameter increases, this is called...

a)

Constriction

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Pulse

28.

What is the amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration called?

(a)  

29.

What is the aerobic equation?

a)

Glucose + oxygen -> energy + carbon dioxide + water

b)

Glucose -> energy + lactic acid

c)

Oxygen -> energy + carbon dioxide

d)

Oxygen - carbon dioxide -> energy

30.

Which activity would use mainly the aerobic system?

a)

100m sprint

b)

Long jump

c)

Weight lifting

d)

Marathon

31.

What is the waste product produced from anaerobic exercise?

(a)  

32.

What is bradycardia?

a)

An immediate effect of exercise that increases heart rate

b)

A long-term effect of exercise that increases muscle size

c)

A long-term effect of exercise that lowers resting heart rate

d)

None of the above

33.

Why does our heart rate increase when we begin exercising?

a)

Because we breathe faster

b)

More blood pumped out of the heart means more oxygen to working muscles

c)

Our body temperature increases so our heart rate increases

d)

Our heart might explode if it doesn't get rid of the blood

34.

DOMS is a short-term effect of exercise. What does it stand for?

(a)  

35.

How many lever systems are in the body?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

36.

What is the equation for mechanical advantage?

a)

Effort arm ÷\div resistance arm

b)

Effort arm x resistance arm

c)

Resistance arm ÷\div effort arm

d)

Effort arm - resistance arm

37.

What is the advantage of the resistance being closer to the fulcrum than the effort?

a)

Large range of motion

b)

Rapid movement

c)

Lift a heavy load with little effort

d)

None of the above

38.

Planes divide the body into two halves. How does the sagittal plane divide the body?

a)

Top and bottom

b)

Left and right

c)

Back and front

d)

Diagonally

39.

Which axis goes with the frontal plane?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Frontal

c)

Transverse

d)

Longitudinal

40.

What motion occurs in the transverse plane and longitudinal axis?

a)

Flexion

b)

Extension

c)

Rotations

d)

Abduction

41.

In which plane and axis does a star jump take place in?

a)

Sagittal plane and transverse axis

b)

Transverse plane and longitudinal axis

c)

Sagittal plane and longitudinal axis

d)

Frontal plane and sagittal axis

42.

Which movement occurs in the sagittal plane and transverse axis?

a)

Forward roll

b)

Running

c)

Front flip

d)

All of the above

43.

What is the definition of cardiovascular endurance?

a)

The ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to the working muscles

b)

To keep going

c)

You can run far

d)

The ability of your muscles to undergo repeated contractions, avoiding fatigue

44.

How many types of strength are there?

a)

1

b)

6

c)

5

d)

4

45.

What is another name for dynamic strength?

a)

Muscular strength

b)

Muscular endurance

c)

Power

d)

Maximal strength

46.

Balance is a type of fitness. Which test is used to measure someone's balance?

a)

Balance test

b)

Stork stand test

c)

Arabesque test

d)

Handstand test

47.

Why are fitness tests used?

a)

To inform training programme

b)

To evaluate strengths and weaknesses

c)

To set goals

d)

All of the above

48.

What does validity mean?

a)

The test is appropriate for the sport

b)

Similar results are gained if the test is repeated

c)

An athlete has done it properly

d)

The tester had set up equipment incorrectly

49.

The illinois agility test is used to test agility. Which performer would this test be least appropriate for?

a)

Footballer

b)

Basketballer

c)

100m sprinter

d)

Hockey player

50.

The sergeant jump test measures which component of fitness?

a)

Agility

b)

Reaction time

c)

Speed

d)

Power

51.

What is the definition of power?

(a)  

52.

SPORT is an acronym for the principles of training. What does the T stand for?

a)

Type

b)

Time

c)

Tedium

d)

Test

53.

Weight and static stretching are two types of training. Name one other.

(a)  

54.

What does HIIT stand for?

a)

High intensity induced training

b)

High intensity interval training

c)

High intensity in training

d)

High intensity isometric training

55.

Continuous training can also be referred to as...

a)

Skipping

b)

Running

c)

Steady state exercise

d)

Oxygen exercise

56.

Why is circuit training appropriate for a games player?

a)

Can be done in a team with large numbers of athletes

b)

Minimal equipment needed

c)

Exercises can be tailored to specific muscle groups needed in that game

d)

All of the above

57.

Which is a safety point for weight training?

a)

Always lift weights on your own

b)

Using weights at any age is safe

c)

You should never bend your back when picking weights up

d)

Weight training doesn't require a thorough warm up

58.

SAFER is an acronym to remember how to exercise safely. What does the F stand for?

a)

Footwear and clothing appropriate for activity

b)

Frequency to suit performer

c)

Footwear should not be worn

d)

All of the above

59.

Plyometric training uses bounding and jumping to increase power. When landing from a squat jump, the quadriceps contact ________ to control the movement

a)

Concentrically

b)

Eccentrically

c)

Isometrically

d)

None of the above

60.

Training that alters the speed and terrain is referred to as...

a)

Interval training

b)

Continuous training

c)

Fartlek training

d)

Weight training

61.

What is high altitude training?

a)

Training 2000m above sea level

b)

Training where there is more oxygen available

c)

Running for a long time

d)

All of the above

62.

As there is less oxygen available at high altitude, the body compensates by making more ________ ________ _________ to carry more oxygen

(a)  

63.

What is an advantage to high altitude training?

a)

It increases aerobic fitness

b)

It allows a performer to last longer

c)

A performer won't fatigue as fast

d)

All of the above

64.

Altitude training has disadvantages too. Sometimes athletes become sick making them unable to train. What is another disadvantage?

a)

Performers lose fitness when the return to sea level

b)

The benefits are lost quite quickly, so red blood cell count decreases once back at sea level

c)

Performers are sick when they come back to sea level

d)

None of the above

65.

Pre-season can be referred to which phase?

a)

Transition

b)

Peak

c)

Preparation

d)

Playing

66.

What is the aim of post-season (transition)

a)

To train hard after games

b)

To rest and recover, whilst maintaining a little fitness

c)

To play more friendly games

d)

To socialise

67.

Which performer is most likely to train at high altitude?

a)

Gymnast

b)

Marathon runner

c)

Footballer

d)

Long jumper