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4th ITCE PEM PRE_GTU 2

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name

4 lines
2.

Enrollment number

4 lines
3.

POSDCORB does not include ____________ .

a)

dedicating

b)

budgeting

c)

reporting

d)

coordinating

4.

According

to ___________ , "to organize a business is to provide it with

everything useful or its functioning i.e. raw material, tools, capital and

personnel".

a)

Newman and summer

b)

Henry Fayol

c)

George R Terry

d)

Claude S. George

5.

The main purpose of staffing is __________________

a)

to get the work done anyhow

b)

to put right man on right job

c)

to recruit as per degree

d)

to recruit as per choice

6.

_________ is considered life-spark of the enterprise which sets it in motion.

a)

organizing

b)

planning

c)

staffing

d)

directing

7.

What is not included in directing?

a)

Supervision

b)

communcation

c)

motivation

d)

controlling

8.

What may be defined as a process by which manager guides and influences the work of subordinates in desired direction?

a)

Leadership

b)

communication

c)

supervision

d)

motivation

9.

The purpose of ___________ is to ensure that everything occurs in conformity with the standards.

a)

supervision

b)

communication

c)

controlling

d)

motivation

10.

_____________ can be enhanced in any enterprise either by increasing the sales revenue or reducing costs

a)

risk

b)

Profits

c)

cost

d)

revenue

11.

Who described scientific management as "physiological organisation theory"?

a)

koontz

b)

March and Simon

c)

Newman and Summer

d)

Workman

12.

Which is the second level of Maslow's NEED HIERARCHY THEORY?

a)

safety

b)

social

c)

esteem

d)

physiological

13.

Who gave theory of administrative management?

a)

Taylor

b)

Smith

c)

Maslow

d)

Fayol

14.

Management should obtain ________________ in work through suitable organization of men and materials.

a)

safety

b)

coordination

c)

equity

d)

orderliness

15.

According to ___________, a senior manager should be regarded as playing 10 different roles.

a)

Maslow

b)

Mintzberg

c)

Koontz

d)

Fayol

16.

The lower level is also known as __________________

a)

operative management

b)

administrative management

c)

operative staff

d)

resource management

17.

Except economic risk, which risk tests the ability of an international manager?

a)

political

b)

ethical

c)

societal

d)

Labour

18.

Drawing inspiration from Fayol, a new school of thought known as

___________________came into existence.

a)

Managerial procedure school

b)

Managerial Process school

c)

Management Process School

d)

management procedure school

19.

when the management insists on following a certain way of doing things and praises or punishes employees on the basis of their adherence to that prescribed work , ____________________ takes place.

a)

administration

b)

Managerial Process

c)

professional automation

d)

correspondence

20.

________ is the beginning of the process of management.

a)

Coordinating

b)

staffing

c)

Planning

d)

Organizing

21.

March and Simon describe ________________________ as "physiological organisation theory".

a)

management

b)

scientific management

c)

bureaucracy

d)

administrative management

22.

_______________ tactical or housekeeping decisions are those which are supportive of, rather than central to, the company’s operations.

a)

group

b)

Routine

c)

strategic

d)

individual

23.

Responsibility and _____________ should go hand-in-hand.

a)

Power

b)

strategy

c)

Appreciation

d)

punishment

24.

A wide span for the same number of employees, means a _______ organization with fewer management levels

a)

tall

b)

flat

c)

wide

d)

broad

25.

The maximum span of management of super manager, whose functions involve only broad policy control rather than direct supervision can be _________ subordinates.

a)

50

b)

25

c)

6

d)

8

26.

Which is the widely used departmentalization?

a)

Process

b)

function

c)

purpose

d)

HR

27.

In ____________ accounting, it is difficult to judge whether the activities of a particular department are worth their cost.

a)

cost pot

b)

clear pot

c)

common pot

d)

crystal pot

28.

____________ departmentalization leads to continuous and undivided attention to the product.

a)

function

b)

Product

c)

purpose

d)

planning

29.

________departmentalization may result in underutilization of resources and facilities in some departments.

a)

Customer

b)

Product

c)

purpose

d)

planning

30.

In departmentalization by ____________, activities are grouped on the basis of timing of their performance.

a)

customer

b)

geographical

c)

planning

d)

purpose

31.

Who appoints the executive for middle level, i.e. department managers?

a)

Top management

b)

Middle management

c)

Lower management

d)

supervisor

32.

Which departmentalization violates the traditional organizational principle of unity of command?

a)

purpose

b)

Product

c)

combined

d)

Time

33.

_________________of organizations considers

the extent to which an organization relies on rules and procedures to direct the behavior of its employees.

a)

centralization

b)

Formalization

c)

complexity

d)

management

34.

In this type of structure, the content of communication is information and advice and not commands and instructions.

a)

organic

b)

narrow

c)

sandwich managers

d)

mechanistic

35.

classical view of source of authority is also known as ___________ .

a)

formal

b)

subordinate

c)

humanistic

d)

modern

36.

____________________ as the basis of authority implies that the superior has contractual support.

a)

tradition

b)

modernity

c)

Rationality-legality

d)

Charisma

37.

What is NOT complained about line by the staff?

a)

They are efficient

b)

They are bull-headed

c)

They fear changes

d)

They resist new ideas

38.

Decentralization unclogs the communication process and improves the organisation's efficiency.

a)

The statement is correct.

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

cannot say

d)

I do not know

39.

Decentralization does not lead competitive climate in an organization.

a)

The statement is correct.

b)

The statement is incorrect

c)

cannot say

d)

I do not know

40.

Generally speaking, owner-managed enterprises tend to be more _____________.

a)

wide structured

b)

centralised

c)

professionally managed

d)

decentralized

41.

Economics is a ______________ science deals with the material happiness or economic well being of the people

a)

Political Science

b)

Social Science

c)

Psychology

d)

Metaphysical Science

42.

________ is of opinion that economics is a science of human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses

a)

Adam Smith

b)

Alferd Marshal

c)

Lionel Robbin

d)

Paul Samuelson

43.

Which of the following is not an essential condition of pure competition?

a)

Large number of buyers and sellers

b)

Homogeneous product

c)

Freedom of entry

d)

Absence of transport cost

44.

Under which of the following forms of market structure does a firm has no control over the price of its product:

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopolistic competition

d)

Perfect competition

45.

Profits of the firm will be more at:

a)

MR = MC

b)

Additional revenue from extra unit equals its additional cost

c)

Both of above

d)

None

46.

Monopolist can determine:

a)

Price

b)

Output

c)

Either price or output

d)

None

47.

Market which have two firms are known as:

a)

Oligopoly

b)

Duopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopoly

48.

Firms in a monopolistic market are price _______:

a)

Takers

b)

Givers

c)

Makers

d)

Acceptors

49.

Under monopoly price discrimination depends upon:

a)

Elasticity of demand for commodity

b)

Elasticity of supply for commodity

c)

Size of market

d)

All of above

50.

What should firm do when Marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost?

a)

Firm should expand output

b)

Effect should be made to make them equal

c)

Prices should be covered down

d)

All of these

51.

Which of the following is the most competitive market structure?

a)

Perfect competition

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

52.

hich of the following is NOT a feature of monopolistic competition?

a)

Numerous sellers

b)

Product differentiation

c)

Numerous buyers

d)

Homogenous products

53.

Which of the following is different about perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a)

A) Firms in monopolistic competition compete on their product's price as well as its quality and marketing.

b)

B) In monopolistic competition, entry into the industry is unblocked.

c)

C) Perfect competition has a large number of independently acting sellers.

d)

D) Only firms in monopolistic competition can earn an economic profit in the short run

54.

Which of the following is an example of a monopolistically competitive industry?

a)

wheat farming

b)

colleges and universities

c)

he local electricity producer

d)

the domestic automobile producing industry

55.

In the terminology of economics and money demand, the terms M1 and M2 are also known as :

a)

Short money

b)

Long money

c)

Broad money

d)

Narrow money

56.

In the terminology of economics and money demand, the terms M3 and M4 are also known as :

a)

Short money

b)

Long money

c)

Broad money

d)

Narrow money

57.

What is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)?

a)

the fraction of the deposits that commercial banks lend to the customers

b)

the fraction of the deposits that RBI must keep with commercial banks

c)

the fraction of the deposits that commercial banks must keep with RBI

d)

none of the above

58.

What is the Gross National Product minus the depreciation?

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

Gross National Product

c)

Net Domestic Product

d)

Net National product

59.

Who is called as the 'founding father of modern economics'?

a)

Adam Smith

b)

John Maynard Keynes

c)

F. Hayek

d)

Samuelson

60.

Which of the following is not correct ?

a)

NNPMP = GNPMP. depreciation

b)

NNPMP = NNPFC + net indirect taxes

c)

GDPMP = GNPMP +.NFIA

d)

NDPFC = GDPFC – depreciation

61.

Net national product at factor cost is also known as:

a)

Net Domestic product

b)

Gross National product

c)

National Income

d)

Personal Income

62.

Opportunity cost is:

a)

Direct cost

b)

Total cost

c)

Accounting cost

d)

Cost of foregone opportunity

63.

As output increases, average fixed cost:

a)

Remains constant

b)

Starts falling

c)

Start rising

d)

None

64.

Economic cost excludes:

a)

Accounting cost + explicit cost

b)

Accounting cost + implicit cost

c)

Explicit cost + Implicit cost

d)

Accounting cost + opportunity cost

65.

Which of the following cost curves is never ‘U’ shaped?

a)

Average cost curve

b)

Marginal cost curve

c)

Total cost curve

d)

Fixed cost curve

66.

When poverty is taken in relative term and is related to the distribution of income consumption expenditure its called:

a)

Law line poverty

b)

Absolute poverty

c)

Relative poverty

d)

None

67.

EAS stands for :

a)

Education Assurance Scheme

b)

Employment Assurance Scheme

c)

Electrification Assurance Scheme

d)

Education Assurance Services

68.

When prices are falling continuously, the phenomenon is called:

a)

Inflation

b)

Stagflation

c)

Deflation

d)

Reflation

69.

Which measures are followed by the government for handling inflation?

a)

Monetary measures

b)

Fiscal measures

c)

Controlling Investments

d)

All of these

70.

When price increases due to increase in factor prices it is ______.

a)

Demand pull inflation

b)

Cost pull inflation

c)

Stagflation

d)

None of the above.

71.

Inflation is measured on the basis of:

a)

Wholesale price index

b)

Consumer price index

c)

Marshall’s index

d)

All of these

72.

Bills of exchange are sometimes known as:

a)

Near money

b)

Transferable assets

c)

Claims receivable

d)

Business obligations

73.

. The issue of one rupee currency note in India is the liability of the:

a)

Issue Department of the RBI

b)

Government of India

c)

State Bank of India

d)

Banking Department of the RBI

74.

________ refers to that portion of total deposits with a commercial bank has to keep with the central bank:

a)

SLR

b)

Bank rate

c)

CRR

d)

None

75.

Which of the following is not a selective credit control method :

a)

Rationing of credit

b)

Direct Action

c)

Changes in margin requirements

d)

Reserve Requirement

76.

Buying and selling of securities or bills in open market is called:

a)

Cash Reserve Ratio

b)

Open Market operation

c)

Bank rate policy

d)

None of these

77.

Which of the following is the monetary authority on a country?

a)

The government of the country

b)

The Banking system of the country

c)

The Central Bank of the country

d)

All of these

78.

____________ is the point where total sale equals total cost or where there is no profit, no loss.

a)

Break Even analysis

b)

Break even point

c)

Margin of safety

d)

None

79.

_______ poverty indicates the deficiency in absolute standard of minimum quantities of basic needs.

a)

poverty

b)

Relative poverty

c)

Absolute poverty

d)

unemployment

80.

_____________ type of unemployment refers to mismatch between the job seeker and job providers

a)

Structural

b)

cyclical

c)

disguise

d)

seasonal

81.

__________ refers to unwillingness of job by a ob seeker to a job offer

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

c)

Hidden employment

d)

None of above

82.

_______________ inflation exorbitant rise in prices of commodities which makes the value of money insignificant.

a)

War time

b)

Hyper

c)

Cost-push

d)

Demand pull