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WorksheetsInformation Storage & Management Assessment (Set B)
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A user tries to update the content of a file stored on a CAS system. What is the result of this operation?
a)
CAS generates a new address for the altered content and stores it as a new object
b)
CAS uses the same content addssress for the altered content and the original content
c)
CAS overwrites the original content and generates a new content address
d)
CAS overwrites the original content but the content address is preserved
2.
Which EMC product provides target-based deduplication?
a)
Avamar
b)
NetWorker
c)
Data Domain
d)
RecoverPoint
3.
What are the two mechanisms that can be employed to address threats of user identity spoofing?
a)
Access Control Lists (ACLs) and access control to storage objects
b)
Access control to storage objects and auditing
c)
User authentication and Information Rights Management (IRM)
d)
User authentication and user authorization
4.
What is the function of enhanced transmission selection in an FCoE environment?
a)
Enables an FCoE switch to send a signal to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their<br />transmissions
b)
Allows an FCoE switch to distribute configuration parameters to the converged network adapters
c)
Provides available bandwidth to other classes of traffic when a particular class of traffic does not use its allocated bandwidth
d)
Provides the capability to independently pause transmission of FCoE frames over each virtual link
5.
Which benefit is provided by EMC PowerPath?
a)
Dynamic load balancing
b)
Deduplication of network traffic
c)
Multiplexing host traffic
d)
Segmentation of fabric to create VSANs
6.
In a CAS environment, what is used to generate a content address?
a)
Combination of data and metadata of the object
b)
Location of the object
c)
Binaries of the data
d)
Object metadata
7.
Which iSCSI naming feature uses a 16-character hexadecimal string?
a)
EUI
b)
IQN
c)
iSNS
d)
ARP
8.
What describes a repudiation attack?
a)
Stealing a private key to decrypt the data-in-transit
b)
Unauthorized access to information to compromise confidentiality
c)
A series of repetitive attacks to the physical information infrastructure
d)
An attempt to compromise accountability goals of the security
9.
What is a characteristic of an FC-AL implementation?
a)
Supports connectivity up to 15 million nodes
b)
Devices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact
c)
Reserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port
d)
Requires at least one connectivity device
10.
Which iSCSI host connectivity option is recommended in a CPU-intensive application environment?
a)
iSCSI HBA
b)
NIC with software-based iSCSI initiator
c)
TCP offload engine
d)
Converged Network Adapter
11.
What is a characteristic of an enterprise flash drive?
a)
Performs data search and retrieval sequentially
b)
Performs rotational speed at more than 30000 rpm
c)
Writes once and reads many
d)
Uses semiconductor-based solid state media
12.
What defines the time taken to position the sector on the platter under the read/write head?
a)
Response time
b)
Rotational delay
c)
Seek time
d)
Data transfer rate
13.
What is true about cache dirty page?
a)
Data that has changed but is not yet written to disk
b)
Data read from disk but not accessed by the host
c)
Data that has changed and has been written to dis
d)
Data requested by the host but not yet fetched
14.
As your organization's SAN environment grows, you realize there is a greater need to manage SAN security. Which mechanism is required to prevent unauthorized activity on the FC fabric for management operations?
a)
VSAN
b)
Role-based access control
c)
Access control lists
d)
Zoning
15.
Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS when it receives a large write I/O from its clients?
a)
I/O is sent to the high performance node in the cluster for processing
b)
A new node is dynamically added to the cluster to process the I/O
c)
I/O is sent to the high storage capacity node in the cluster for processing
d)
I/O is striped across multiple nodes for processing
16.
When developing a disaster recovery plan, what is the result of choosing a particular recovery time objective for a system?
a)
Determines how often to take a backup of the system
b)
Determines how long to retain backup copies
c)
Determines the type and location of the backup media
d)
Determines how many transaction logs should be backed up
17.
Which operation writes data in cache, and immediately to disk, before sending an acknowledgement to the host?
a)
Write-through cache
b)
Write-back cache
c)
Write aside cache
d)
Write cache vaulting
18.
What is a benefit of WWN zoning over port zoning?
a)
A server, after replacement of its HBAs, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to<br />modify the zoning configuration.
b)
A server, after replacement of its HBAs, does not require performing a fabric login to maintain connectivity to its zone partners.
c)
A server, after being moved to another switch port in the fabric, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to modify the zoning configuration.
d)
A server, after being moved to another fabric, maintains connectivity to its zone partners without the need to modify the zoning configuration.
19.
In Kerberos authentication, what is a role of the Active Directory?
a)
Verifies the user's login information
b)
Implements the Authentication service and Ticket Granting service
c)
Verifies the session ID when the client-server session is established
d)
Maintains the access control list in a keytab file
20.
A finance department wants to secure its data while the data traverses over the FC SAN. Currently the SAN is also used by other departments in the organization.
Which implementation should be recommended to isolate other department traffic from the finance department traffic?
a)
Virtual SAN
b)
Virtual LAN
c)
Fabric binding
d)
Port binding
21.
Which data center characteristic refers to the capability to grow resources without impacting business operations?
a)
Security
b)
Scalability
c)
Availability
d)
Performance
22.
What is an advantage of reporting on storage arrays?
a)
Planning for capacity
b)
Monitoring the number of arrays
c)
Monitoring the number of disks in a RAID group
d)
Planning for storage groups
23.
A customer wants to connect iSCSI-enabled hosts to an existing Fibre Channel (FC) storage array.
Which networking device enables the connectivity between the host and the storage array?
a)
FCIP bridge
b)
FC gateway
c)
iSCSI gateway
d)
IP router
24.
What is a benefit of virtual storage provisioning over traditional provisioning?
a)
Enables more efficient allocation of storage to hosts
b)
Can be used for applications that require predictable performance
c)
Provides full control for precise data placement
d)
Does not enable oversubscription
25.
What accurately describes a Vblock?
a)
Block-based storage device
b)
SMI specification
c)
Virtual tape library
d)
Cloud infrastructure package
26.
Which report provides information about the allocation and utilization of storage infrastructure?
a)
Capacity Planning
b)
Configuration and Asset Management
c)
Chargeback
d)
Service Management
27.
Which component of an archiving solution is responsible for scanning data that can be archived based on a policy?
a)
Archiving server
b)
Archiving policy server
c)
Archiving storage device
d)
Archiving agent
28.
What describes a hybrid cloud?
a)
Combination of two distinct cloud infrastructures (on-premise and externally-hosted) that are managed together
b)
Composed of distinct clouds that are bound together by standardized or proprietary technology
c)
Composed of two or more distinct data centers that enable data and application portability
d)
Combination of a private cloud and a public cloud that are owned, managed, and operated by a single organization
29.
What is a requirement for a native iSCSI implementation?
a)
Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an iSCSI port
b)
Host with a NIC and an array with an FCoE port
c)
Host with iSCSI initiator software and an array with an FCIP port
d)
Host with an iSCSI HBA and an array with an FC port
30.
In addition to applications and databases, what are the other core elements of a data center infrastructure?
a)
JBOD, networks, and storage arrays
b)
Servers/operating systems, DAS, and NAS
c)
Servers/operating systems, networks, and storage arrays
d)
Servers/operating systems, SAN, and JBOD
31.
Why does a restore operation need to communicate with the backup server?
a)
Determine the RTO of the backup save set
b)
Run the restore automatically according to a schedule
c)
Determine the RPO of the backup save set
d)
Locate the data to be restored using the backup catalog
32.
Which data protection technology provides the highest degree of protection against logical corruption and a near-zero RPO?
a)
CDP
b)
Mirroring
c)
Backup-to-disk
d)
Snapshots with CoFW
33.
Which remote replication solution has the highest bandwidth requirements?
a)
Array-based disk buffered
b)
Host-based asynchronous LVM mirroring
c)
Array-based synchronous
d)
Log shipping over IP networks
34.
In a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN, which protocol implementation is used?
a)
FC over iSCSI
b)
SCSI over FC
c)
SCSI over FCoE
d)
FC over SCSI
35.
Which NAS backup environment transfers data to be backed up over a private backup network?
a)
NDMP two-way
b)
Server-based
c)
Serverless
d)
NDMP three-way
36.
Which three subject areas, taken together, define storage security?
a)
Information, networking, and storage
b)
Access control, storage, and encryption
c)
Access control, information, and networking
d)
Application, management, and backup
37.
In the context of information security, which attribute other than individual identity and group membership can be used to restrict unauthorized access?
a)
Role
b)
Cryptography
c)
World Wide Name
d)
Host network address
38.
What is a characteristic of an active/passive storage array configuration?
a)
Read and write I/Os are performed only through the controller that manages the LUN
b)
Host can perform I/Os to its LUNs through any of the available controllers
c)
Read and write I/Os are performed only through active cache
d)
Passive array is used for backup; active array is used for production data
39.
An eight-disk RAID 6 set has a stripe size of 192 KB. What is the stripe depth?
a)
24 KB
b)
32 KB
c)
48 KB
d)
64 KB
40.
What is a key benefit of RAID 5 compared to RAID 1+0 for small, random I/Os?
a)
Higher availability
b)
Improved storage space utilization
c)
Improved write performance
d)
Faster rebuild times after failure
41.
What is a characteristic of asynchronous remote replication?
a)
Replica will be behind the source by at least the size of the buffer
b)
A near-zero RPO disaster recovery solution
c)
Write must be committed at the target before being acknowledged as complete
d)
Deployed only for distances within 200 km between two sites
42.
What is a characteristic of triangle/multitarget replication?
a)
Failover can occur to either of the two remote sites
b)
Distance between all sites must be less than 125 km
c)
Bunker site must be in sync with the remote site at all times
d)
Only the production site is available during normal operations
43.
What is a characteristic of cloud-optimized storage?
a)
Secure multitenancy
b)
Single access mechanism
c)
Server-centric
d)
Native source-based deduplication
44.
In what way does an integrated NAS solution differ from a Gateway NAS solution?
a)
Integrated NAS manages storage devices through NAS software. Gateway NAS relies on storage array management software to manage storage devices.
b)
Integrated NAS allows both file and block level access to the clients. Gateway NAS allows only block level access to the clients.
c)
Integrated NAS utilizes specialized operating systems. Gateway NAS utilizes generic operating systems.
d)
Integrated NAS uses Fibre Channel disks only. Gateway NAS uses both Fibre Channel and SATA disks.
45.
What is the name of the drive sub-assembly which contains the platters and read/write heads?
a)
ATA
b)
SATA
c)
HDA
d)
IDE
46.
Why would an iSCSI solution be implemented?
a)
All storage arrays supply GigE ports
b)
Block storage over IP is much faster than FC
c)
iSCSI HBAs are inexpensive
d)
Leverage existing IP network infrastructures
47.
Which two mechanisms address threats of elevating user privileges in the application access domain?
a)
Authentication and authorization
b)
Access control to storage objects and Access Control Lists (ACLs)
c)
Access control to storage objects and auditing
d)
User authentication and Information Rights Management (IRM)
48.
A customer has an existing SAN environment. The customer wants to add NAS to share the storage space. Which solution is most appropriate?
a)
Gateway NAS
b)
Scale-out NAS
c)
FCoE SAN
d)
IP SAN
49.
What is characteristic of a virtual tape library?
a)
Uses disk drives as backup media
b)
Requires changes on the backup software
c)
A virtual tape cannot span multiple LUNs
d)
Uses a special mechanism to address the 'shoe-shining' effect
50.
What is a characteristic of Big Data?
a)
Structured data generated by a single source
b)
Only unstructured data generated by multiple sources
c)
Structured and unstructured data generated by a single source
d)
Structured and unstructured data generated by multiple sources
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