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WorksheetsPGMI Final Exam
Total questions: 130
Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins
What is the recommended criteria for diagnosis of Hypertension based on 240average awake BP? (HPIM 20th ed p.1895)
A. > 120/75
A. > 130/80
A. > 135/85
A. > 140/90
What is the cornerstone of treatment in patient with Heart Failure with reduced ejection fraction which has been shown to be associated with decreased mortality? (HPIM 20th ed p.1772)
A. Amelioride
A. Bacindolol
A. Captopril
A. Hydrochlorthiazide
A 60/M diagnosed with COPD consulted for follw-up, he has productive cough with whitish phlegm and exterional dyspnea. FEV1/FVC is < 0.7 with FEV1 > 30% but < 50% of predicted. Based on the GOLD classification how severe is the patients COPD? (HPIM 20th ed p.1991)
Mild
A. Moderate
A. Severe
A. Very severe
What is your interpretation of the CXR?
Consolidation pneumonia
A. Loculated pleural effusion
A. Lung abscess
A. Pulmonary mass
Which of the following is the recommended dose for the Triple therapy in the eradication of H.pylori? (HPIM 20th ed p. 2232)
Amoxicillin 500mg tid
Clarithromycin 500mg OD
Metronidazole 500mg qid
Omprazole 40mg OD
What is the pathophysiology of Shock in dengue? WHO Dengue guidelines 2009 p.26
Severe bleeding
Dehydration
Plasma leak
All
A 30/F, married, consulted due to hypogastric pain, dysuria and frequency, she denies history of vaginal discharge. According to the 2013 Phil. Clinical Practice Guidelines in the Diagnosis and Management of UTI, what is the recommended Primary antibiotic for this patient?
Nitrofuratoin macrocrystal 100mg BID x 5 days
Fosfomycin 3g single dose
Ciprofloxacin 250 mg BID x 3 days
Cefuroxime 250 mg BID x 7 days
A 50/M with a fasting plasma glucose of 6.9mmol/L . The patient has
(HPIM 20th ed p. 2850)
Normal glucose tolerance
Impaired fasting glucose
Diabetes Mellitus non insulin requiring
Diabetes Mellitus insulin requiring
What is the estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) of a 40 year old female, weighing 55kg with serum creatinine of 128 umol/L using the Cockroft and Gault formula?
43 ml/min
45 ml/min
49 ml/min
53 ml/min
A 55/M male consulted due of joint pain and swelling of the Distal Interphalangeal joint and 1st Carpometacarpal joint. What is the cause of the joint swelling?
Pseudogout
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
1. This is a trait of 5-star physician, who considers the patient as an integral part of a family and the community and provides high-standard clinical care and personalizes preventive care within a long-term trusting relationship.
Researcher
Social Mobilizer
Educator/Counselor
Health care provider
This type of family is linked together by virtue of kinship bond between parents and children and/or between siblings.
Nuclear
Blended
Extended
Communal
FAMILY PROCESSES: this occurs when a third person is drawn into a two-pair system so as to diffuse anxiety or conflict.
Enmeshment
Triangulation
Disengagement
Coalition
PARENTING STYLES: In this parenting, parents let the child’s preferences take priority over their ideals and rarely are in control of the family rather than the parents.
Democratic
Authoritarian
Permissive
Uninvolved
FAMILY APGAR: the data you obtained from the patient had a total of 6, which means?
None of the above
Highly functional family
severely dysfunctional family
moderately dysfunctional family
Among these patients, who should not undergo screening for anemia?
G2P1(1001)
10 month/F with history of LBW
65/F for executive check up
Adolescent male with hx of dizziness
Which of the following is the probable vector that transmits Dengue virus to human?
Albopticus
Anopheles
Culex
Mansonia
Which of the following pair of primary pathogens associated with urethritis?
N. gonorrhea and T. pallidum
C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhea
M. genitalium and C. trachomatis
Ureaplasma sp. And M.
A 51-year old male came into your clinic complaining of 3 weeks cough. This was accompanied by loosening of his clothes, low grade fever which usually occur in the afternoon, and occasional blood tinged sputum. Patient is a known smoker and hypertensive allegedly compliant with his medications. He denies any previous PTB treatment. Physical examination revealed a BP 140/70, HR 92, RR 20, T 37.1c and clear breath sounds upon ausculatation. Chest xray was done showing linear opacities on the right upper lung field, and sputum afb showed 2 negative results.
What is your diagnosis?
Bacteriologically confirmed PTB
Multidrug resistant PTB
Clinically diagnosed PTB
Data is inconclusive
Which of the following are the most common sign and symptoms to find in a patient diagnosed with COVID 19 based on several studies in Chinese population?
Fever only
Fever and cough
Fever and sore throat
All of the above
Corneal transparency is maintained by the following, except:
Relative dehydration
Avascularity
Uniform spacing of collagen fibrils
None of the above
Which of the following are elevators of eye?
SR and IO
IO and SO
IR and SR
SO and SR
Which orbital wall is most commonly involved in orbital wall fractures?
Super orbital wall
Medial orbital wall
Inferior orbital wall
Lateral orbital wall
Which type of lens is used to correct a purely myopic eye
Convex
Concave
Cylindrical
Toric
The hallmark finding seen in Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Dot and blot hemorrhages
Neovascularization
Clinically significant macular edema
Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities
The eye structure with the highest refractive power is the
Crystalline lens
Cornea
Vitreous humor
Retina
Ophthalmia neonatorum is
Inflammation of conjunctiva occurring in an infant less than 30 days old
Any discharge/ watering from the eye in first week of life
Always caused by gonococci
All of the above
1. Normal A:V ratio of retinal blood vessels:
1:2
2:3
3:2
A. 3:4
All of the following are causes of sudden painless loss of vision except:
Central retinal artery occlusion
Optic atrophy
Optic neuritis
Retinal detachment
1. Flashes of light before eyes (photopsia) is a feature of:
Impending retinal detachment
Vitreous traction of the retina
Retinitis
All of the above
What are the layers of the epidermis (in correct order)?
Stratum corneum, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, basale
Stratum corneum, lucidum, spinosum, granulosum, basale
Stratum corneum, spinosum, lucidum, granulosum, basale
Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
This is a circumscribed change in color, without elevation or depression, >1cm.
Macule
Patch
Plaque
Wheal
Which of the following is a secondary lesion?
Nodule
Wheal
Excoriation
Cyst
Which of the following is NOT a major diagnostic criteria for Atopic dermatitis?
Pruritus
(+) family history of atopy
Adult distribution in the flexural surfaces
Adult distribution in the extensor surfaces
What is the causative agent of a common wart?
Herpes herpes virus
Varicella zoster virus
Cytomegalovirus
Human papillomavirus
A 7-year old male presented to you with skin-colored pearly papules with central umbilication on the right chest. What is your initial diagnosis?
Molluscum contagiosum
Verruca plana
Syringoma
Sebaceous hyperplasia
A 2-month old baby girl presented to you with reddish white macerated plaques with satellite papules in the diaper area. What is the most likely etiologic agent?
Candida albicans
Pseudomona aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus
Pityrosporum ovale
The diagnosis of Toxic epidermal necrolysis is made when the body surface area (BSA) involved is:
<10% BSA
10-20% BSA
10-30% BSA
>30% BSA
These are linear, urticarial lesions occurring after stroking or scratching the skin.
Darier sign
Dermographism
Angioedema
Cholinergic urticaria
Six signs of malignant melanoma (ABCDE Rule):
Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolution
Asymmetry, base, color, (ugly) duckling, extent
Asymmetry, border, character, diameter, elevation
Asymmetry, base, color, diameter, erythema
The spine consist of how many vertebra?
31
32
33
34
The Pia mater ends as?
Filum terminale
Cauda Equina
Sacrococcygeal ligament
Ligamentum Flavum
It carries all the fibres of the brachial plexus
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radial nerve
Musculocutaneous
True of Restrictive Lung disease.
Decrease in FEV1/FVC
Increase in FRC during gas trapping
TLC normal
Decrease in FEV1
Drug Interaction between local anesthetics and sedatives?
Synergism
Potentiation
Additive
No Interaction
Which of the following is an anticholinesterase?
Neostigmine and glycopyrolate
Atropine and glycopyrolate
Physostigmine and scopolamine
Endrophonium and neostigmine
Which drug reverses the effects of Opioids
Naloxone
Flumazenil
N-acetylcistein
Paracetamol
Marks the beginning of the cardiac cycle
End systole
End diastole
Isovolumetric relaxation
Rapid ejection
The most important buffering system in the body.
Hgb
Plasma Prrotein
PHosphate
HCO3
Which of the following drugs has anxiolytic and amnesic effect?
Midazolam
Fentanyl
Propofol
Atracurium
The following are features of necrosis except:
Cell size – enlarged
Plasma membrane – intact
Cellular contents – enzymatic digestion
Adjacent inflammation – frequent
All are correct
This pattern of tissue necrosis is characterized by digestion of the dead cells, resulting in transformation of the tissue into a viscous mass
Coagulative necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Gangrenous necrosis
Caseous necrosis
What is the hallmark of tissue repair?
Collagen deposition
Blood clot formation
Granulation tissue formation
Scar formation
A few minutes after being bittenby a mosquito, swelling and erythema were noted. What causes the erythema?
Hemorrhage
Increased vascular permeability
Lymphatic obstruction
Vascular damage
Vasodilatation
A housewife while cooking came in contact with her frying pan. A blister with clear fluid developed at the area of contact. What is the nature of the lesion?
Fibrinopurulent
Fibrinous
Purulent
Serous
Suppurative
A suppurative exudate contains necrotic debris in addition to neutrophils. Which of the following is most likely responsible for necrosis?
Prostaglandin
Bradykinin
Leukotrienes
Release of bacterial toxins
Release of hydrolases from neutrophils
A 24 y.o laborer is found to have bilateral adenopathy on routing chest X-ray. Histology show Langhan’s type of giant cells with central caseation necrosis, which of the following is the best diagnosis?
Brucellosis
Sarcoidosis
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Tuberculosis
Which of the ff result from the action of the product of the cyclooxygenase pathway:
Leukotriene-induced neutrophil aggregation
Complement induced hemolysis
Histamine induced laryngeal edema
Endotoxin induced DIC
PGD2 PGE2 vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
Blocking the cyclooxygenase pathway by aspirin would best help alleviate:
Thrombosis
Pain
Liquefaction necrosis
Fibrinolysis
Scar formation
Lymphatics is the 2nd line of defense in acute inflammation performing all of the ff functions EXCEPT:
Carry lymphocytes from lymph nodes into tissues
Drain off excess tissue fluid
Aid in resolution of inflammation
Serve as route for dissemination of infection
Connect to the draining lymph nodes from site of tissue injury
The initial step in hemostasis is:
Vascular constriction
Platelet Plug Formation
Fibrin Formation/Coagulation
Fibrinolysis
A 21/M suffered from a stab wound at the left chest, 4th ICS, left MCL. She was rushed to the ER and was found to have the following vital signs 80/50mmHg, 120bpm, 26cpm, afebrile. You are considering cardiac tamponade, what are the components of Beck’s Triad?
Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, collapsed neck veins
Hypotension, distant heart sounds, dilated neck veins
Decreased blood pressure, prominent heart sounds, engorged neck veins
Decreased blood pressure, normal heart sounds, collapsed neck veins
Hypotension, diminished heart sounds, collapsed neck veins
A 32-year old male presents after being hit by a truck. He opens his eyes to sternal rub, localizes to pain and is only making groaning sounds. What is his GCS?
7
8
9
10
5
Which of the following is a non-proliferative disorder of the breast:
Ductal ectasia
Sclerosing adenosis
Intraductal papilloma
Ductal epithelial hyperplasia
A 25 year old female medical intern failed her PGMI examination and ingested 100 cc of household bleach. Appropriate treatment strategy include:
Induce emesis
Emergency tube gastrostomy for feeding/nutrition
Give fresh frozen plasma
Intravenous fluid resuscitation
Give acid orally to neutralize solution
A 65-year old male, known COPD case was chronically taking NSAIDs, suddenly experienced severe epigastric pain. 24 hours later, fever was noted, thus consult. Chest x-ray upright revealed a crescent shape lucency beneath the diaphragm which can be attributed to:
Pneumoperitoneum secondary to perforated peptic ulcer
Free blood from the stomach which collected underneath the diaphragm
Escape of air from the lungs
Collection of pus beneath the diaphragm
Both A and D
A 30-year old male patient came in the ER due to ruptured appendicitis. His vitals were 80/50mmHg, 56 beats per minute, 21 breaths per minute, temperature of 36.1’C. his WBC count is 12000/uL. The following are part of the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) except:
Temperature of 36’C or lower
Pulse rate lower than 60
Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min or higher
White blood cell count of 12000/uL or greater
10% or greater band forms on CBC
The statement about the anatomy of the gallbladder
The fundus is the narrowest part of the gallbladder
The hepatocystic triangle is a useful landmark to locate the cystic artery
The cystic artery which supplies the gallbladder is usually a branch of the left hepatic artery
The hepatoduodenal ligament is basically avascular
A 16/M came in due reducible IIH. The hernial sac of an indirect inguinal hernia is located:
Antero-medial to the spermatic cord
Antero-lateral to the spermatic cord
Postero-lateral to the spermatic cord
Postero-medial to the spermatic cord
Either A or B
A 4 years old boy has an indirect inguinal hernia which is reducible. The surgery of choice is:
Bassini repair
Mesh hernioplasty
High ligation of hernia sac
MacVay repair
Marcy repair
What nerves could possibly be severed during low transverse incision during caesarean section which could lead to loss of sensation of the skin over the suprapubic area, mons pubis and upper labia majora.
Intercostal and subcostal nerves
Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves
Inferior epigastric nerve
Superficial epigastric nerve
The perineal body is found at the junction between the anterior and posterior triangles and it provides significant perineal support. What muscles converge in the central tendon which is incised during episiotomy?
Pubococcygeus, ischiocavernosus and superficial transverse
External anal sphincter, gluteus maximus and iliococcygeus
Bulbocavernosus, ischiocavernosus and superficial transverse perineal muscle
Bulbocavernosus, superficial transverse perineal and external anal sphincter
During vaginal birth, there is significant risk for damage to the levator ani muscle which could predispose women for POP. What muscle of the levator anii is more commonly damaged?
Coccygeus
Iliococcygeus
Puborectalis
Pubococcygeus
It is the part of the uterus which forms the lower uterine segment
Corpus
Body
Cornu
Isthmus
In early pregnancy, softening of the isthmus is called
Chadwick sign
Hegar sign
Goodell sign
Collen sign
A branch of the uterine artery that runs within the round ligament
External iliac artery
Ovarian artery
Cervical artery
Sampson artery
A G1P0 is on her 14 weeks age of gestation underwent exploratory. Intraoperative finding revealed that there was hemorrhagic corpus luteum. You have to remove the corpus luteum. Your consultant asked you if there is a need to give progesterone to maintain the pregnancy. You tell her that there is no need to give progesterone because Corpus Luteum found in pregnant women functions maximally during the first:
3 – 4 weeks of pregnancy
4 – 5 weeks of pregnancy
6 – 7 weeks of pregnancy
8 – 10 weeks of pregnancy
A patient comes in for prenatal check-up. She is on her third trimester and complains of swelling of the ankle. Her vital signs were normal and PE was unremarkable. You tell her that:
Pitting edema of the ankles and legs is seen especially in the morning.
Fluid accumulation may be caused by increased venous pressure below the level of the uterus as a consequence of the partial vena cava inclusion
Swelling is due to increase in interstitial colloid osmotic pressure in pregnancy
All of the above
LH secretion peaks how m any hours before ovulations?
8 -10 hours
10 – 12 hours
12 – 24 hours
24 – 36 hours
First histologic evidence of ovulation is:
Subnuclear vacuoles and pseudostratification
Glandular cell mitosis
Stromal infiltration by neutrophils, giving pseudo inflammatory appearance
Enlargement of stromal cells surrounding the spiral arterioles
An unconscious 30/M was brought to the emergency room after being involved in a vehicular crash (motorcycle vs motorcycle), with noted gross deformity of his R thigh. Which of the following should be the first course of action?
Acquire complete history and perform thorough physical examination
Administer tetanus toxoid and intramuscular analgesic medication
Ensure adequate circulation, airway and breathing
Apply a posterior mold or traction device on the R lower extremity
For the patient in Question 81, what would be the most appropriate imaging modality during the time of examination at the emergency room?
Xray of the R thigh
CT-scan of the R thigh
Ultrasound of the R thigh
MRI of the R thigh
For the patient in Question 81, diagnostic imaging revealed a femoral shaft fracture R. What would be the most appropriate immobilization for the patient?
Poserior mold from the thigh to the foot
Posterior mold from the lower back to the foot
Traction device on the R lower extremity
No immobilization necessary for the R lower extremity
Deforming forces in a femoral shaft fracture include the following structures EXCEPT
Iliopsoas
Rectus femoris
Adductor brevis
Gastrocnemius
The femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery as is courses through which of the following structures?
Rotator interval
Inguinal canal
Adductor hiatus
Popliteal fossa
The carpal bones include the following EXCEPT
Trapezoid
Cuboid
Capitate
Hamate
A 45/F teacher consulted at the outpatient clinic with a chief complaint of persistent pain on her R hand, with associated numbness of the thumb, index and middle finger. Primary consideration for this case would be which of the following conditions?
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Trigger finger
Wrist tendinitis
Diabetic neuropathy
The rotator cuff muscles include the following structures EXCEPT
Supraspinatus
Infraspinatus
Teres Minor
Teres Major
The risk for anterior shoulder dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is highest in which of the following shoulder positions?
Abduction-external rotation
Adduction-external rotation
Abduction-internal rotation
Adduction-internal rotation
A 25/F soccer player presented at the outpatient clinic with a 3 week history of twisting her L knee, with notably less pain on the L knee but with persistent instability especially when going down the stairs. A positive anterior drawer test/Lachmann test would be indicative of which of the following conditions?
Anterior cruciate ligament tear
Posterior cruciate ligament tear
Medial collateral ligament sprain
Larteral collateral ligament sprain
What is the expected weight in kilograms of an 8 MONTH child?
5
6
7
8
A term well newborn is discharged before 48th hour of life. This baby should be followed up within the next
24 hours
48 hours
72 hours
12 hours
Rotavirus is given at a minimum age of:
4 weeks
6 weeks
4 months
6 months
The visual acuity of a newborn permits recognition of an object held at:
1-2 inches
8-12 inches
18-24 inches
24-30 inches
The drug of choice for CAP in children 2-5 yo:
Penicillin
Amoxicillin
Erythromycin
Cotrimoxazole
A 4 yo vehicular accident male patient remains hypoxic and dyspneic despite 100% FiO2 via ET. On PE, lungs are hyperresonant and breath sounds are diminished bilaterally. What is most likely the complication?
pleural effusion
pneumothorax
pneumomediastinum
atelectasis
Lesion arising from other intrauterine disorders like oligohydramnios and presents with respiratory distress soon after birth
bronchogenic cyst
vascular sling
pulmonary sequestration
pulmonary hypoplasia
A 2 yo child awakens with a characteristic barking cough, noisy inspiratory sound with respiratory distress. Patient is afebrile and symptoms diminish within several hours
laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
acute epiglottitis
retropharyngeal abscess
spasmodic croup
In the Philippines, the newborn screening test for congenital hypothyroidism consists of:
FT3
FT4
TSH
TRH
The most satisfactory stimulus to the production of human milk is:
eagerness of the mother to breastfeed
Regular and complete emptying of the breast
Proper positioning during breastfeeding
Fluid intake of the mother
What is the depression inside the pinna that leads to the external auditory meatus?
Tragus
Conchae
Helix
Lobule
The following are the nerve supply of the Middle Ear, EXCEPT:
Jacobson’s Nerve
Arnold’s Nerve
Auriculotemporal branch of the 5th CN
None of the above
How does one straighten the external ear canal during physical examination in an adult patient?
Backward and downward
Backward and upward
Forward and downward
Forward and upward
Which of the following structures are properly paired with their source of sensory innervation?
Upper Lip – Mental Nerve
Posterior 2/3 of the tongue – Chorda Tympani
Palatal Mucosa – 3rd division of the Trigeminal Nerve
Sulcus Terminalis – Lingual Nerve
In patients with velopharyngeal insufficiency what kind of voice if produced?
Hyponasal
Hypernasal
All of the above
None of the above
Damage to the external laryngeal nerve during thyroid surgery would cause inability to:
Relax the vocal cords
Relax the arytenoid cartilages
Tense the vocal cords
Abduct the vocal cords
A patient is asked to smile and the right corner of the patient’s mouth does not move upward. There would be injury to what nerve?
Mandibular portion of the right trigeminal nerve
Right vagus nerve
Right facial nerve
Right glossopharyngeal nerve
Which of the following is not included in the Waldeyer’s Ring?
Faucial tonsils
Lingual tonsils
Adenoid tissue
None of the above
Which of the following statement/s is/ are TRUE regarding the physical examination of the Oral Cavity
Optimal instructions – “Stick you tongue out and say ‘Ahh””
Tonsils and the pharynx can be seen by depressing the posterior third of the tongue
Dry the mouth by a swab of cotton to see saliva expressed from the Stensen’s and Wharton’s ducts
All are true
What divides the oropharynx and the hypopharynx?
True vocal cords
Epiglottis
False vocal cords
Esophagus
In order of most radiolucent to most radiopaque, which is correct?
Metal, Bone, Soft tissue, Water, Fat, Air
Air, Fat, Water, Soft tissue, Bone, Metal
Air, Fat, Soft tissue, Water, Bone, Metal
Air, Water, Fat, Soft tissue, Bone, Metal
Which is true?
The right lung has 2 lobes and 2 fissures.
The right lung has 3 lobes and 2 fissures
The left lung has 2 lobes and 2 fissures
The left lung has 3 lobes and 2 fissures
On frontal view chest x-ray, which cardiac chamber corresponds with the right cardiac border?
Left atrium
Right atrium
Left ventricle
Right ventricle
Which is true with regards to normal anatomy of the diaphragm?
The left hemidiaphragm is usually higher than the right.
The left hemidiaphragm is usually lower than the right.
The hemidiaphragms are usually at the same level
The following are retroperitoneal organs/structures, EXCEPT
Ascending colon
Descending colon
Transverse colon
Rectum
Assessment of the major abdominal organs is made easier by the rim of ___ surrounding them.
Fluid
Air
Cartilage
Fat
Which of the following is suggestive of splenomegaly?
Any dimension greater than 12 cm.
Projection extending to the anterior axillary line on lateral view.
Inferior border extending below the inferior hepatic border
Inferior border extending to the level of the left kidney.
The “crescent sign”, or an area of lucency beneath the diaphragm on upright chest x-ray is a sign of:
Pneumothorax
Pneumoperitoneum
Pleural effusion
Ascites
65/M, with known history of CKD.
Pulmunary edema, bilateral
Pneumoperitoneum, Rigler sign
35/M, case of gunshot wound, with difficulty of breathing, and on PE, (+) distended neck veins.
Massive atelectasis, right
Tension pneumothorax, right
The alteration in sensorium in most instances of metabolic encephalopathies is based on the following principle:
It is necessary to involve the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) to impair consciousness
Involving both cerebral hemispheres diffusely will have the same effect on consciousness as involvement of the brainstem
Uncal herniation with secondary compression of the brainstem is the usual mechanism involved
The brainstem is preferentially affected than the cerebral hemispheres
In Cranial CT scans, ischemic infarcts appear as:
Hypodense lesions
Hyperdense lesions
Isodense lesions
Normodense lesions
None of the above
A 21-year-old Nursing student was brought into your clinic for a 3-day history of fever, progressive headache and vomiting. In the past 24 hours, there has been note of deteriorating sensorium and seizures. You decide to do a lumbar puncture. What is the classic CSF picture you expect to obtain in this patient?
WBC < 500/ cu ml, predominantly lymphocytes, increased protein, decreased sugar
WBC > 1000/cu ml, predominantly neutrophils, increased protein, decreased sugar c
WBC < 500/cu ml, predominantly lymphocytes, slightly increased protein, normal sugar
WBC > 1000/cu ml, predominantly neutrophils, decreased protein, decreased sugar
A 78-year-old lady consulted your clinic because of dizziness, which she described as spinning of the environment. While examining the patient, she tells you that she has recently observed decreased hearing on both ears and a vague feeling of fullness of the ears. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Brainstem hemorrhage
Meniere’s disease
Vestibular neuronitis
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
A 19-year-old engineering student complained of severe headache. Pertinent neuro exam showed right-left disorientation, acalculia and agraphia. The blood supply to the involved area is the:
Anterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
Anterior communicating artery
Basilar artery
A 50-year-old male gym instructor suddenly developed severe headache followed by vomiting after lifting weights. Pertinent neurologic examination showed a 5 mm fixed pupil on the right, medial rectus paralysis on the right, ptosis on the right and left hemiplegia at 1/5, and nuchal rigidity. You localize the lesion to be in:
Left midbrain
Right midbrain
Left frontal
Right frontal
A 45-year-old female came in because of easy fatigability noted after heavy exertion and usually in the afternoon. At times, her husband notices that by late afternoon, she already has a nasal quality to her voice. What is the main pathologic feature of this disease?
Impaired release of Ach from the nerve terminal
Decrease in the available Ach receptors
Increase rate of degradation of Ach at the neuromuscular junction
Decreased production of Ach at the neural end plate
A 50 year old patient came in due to acute onset of right sided headache. The location of the headache is on the temporal area. There is tenderness over the right superficial temporal artery. The most likely diagnosis will be:
Migraine headache
Stroke
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Temporal arteritis
Tension headache
A 50-year old left handed male came in due to gradually progressive headache described as dull, worse in the morning with associated nausea and vomiting. He has been having the pain for the past 6 months. Neurologic examination also showed papilledema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Brain tumor
Cluster headache
CNS infection
Migraine
Migraine
The presence of clonus automatically grades the ankle jerk as:
++++
+++
++
+
O
