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PGMI Final Exam

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the recommended criteria for diagnosis of Hypertension based on 240average awake BP? (HPIM 20th ed p.1895)

a)

A. > 120/75

b)

A. > 130/80

c)

A. > 135/85

d)

A. > 140/90

2.

What is the cornerstone of treatment in patient with Heart Failure with reduced ejection fraction which has been shown to be associated with decreased mortality? (HPIM 20th ed p.1772)

a)

A. Amelioride

b)

A. Bacindolol

c)

A. Captopril

d)

A. Hydrochlorthiazide

3.

A 60/M diagnosed with COPD consulted for follw-up, he has productive cough with whitish phlegm and exterional dyspnea. FEV1/FVC is < 0.7 with FEV1 > 30% but < 50% of predicted. Based on the GOLD classification how severe is the patients COPD? (HPIM 20th ed p.1991)

a)

Mild

b)

A. Moderate

c)

A. Severe

d)

A. Very severe

4.

What is your interpretation of the CXR?

a)

Consolidation pneumonia

b)

A. Loculated pleural effusion

c)

A. Lung abscess

d)

A. Pulmonary mass

5.

Which of the following is the recommended dose for the Triple therapy in the eradication of H.pylori? (HPIM 20th ed p. 2232)

a)

Amoxicillin 500mg tid

b)

Clarithromycin 500mg OD

c)

Metronidazole 500mg qid

d)

Omprazole 40mg OD

6.

What is the pathophysiology of Shock in dengue? WHO Dengue guidelines 2009 p.26

a)

Severe bleeding

b)

Dehydration

c)

Plasma leak

d)

All

7.

A 30/F, married, consulted due to hypogastric pain, dysuria and frequency, she denies history of vaginal discharge. According to the 2013 Phil. Clinical Practice Guidelines in the Diagnosis and Management of UTI, what is the recommended Primary antibiotic for this patient?

a)

Nitrofuratoin macrocrystal 100mg BID x 5 days

b)

Fosfomycin 3g single dose

c)

Ciprofloxacin 250 mg BID x 3 days

d)

Cefuroxime 250 mg BID x 7 days

8.

A 50/M with a fasting plasma glucose of 6.9mmol/L . The patient has

(HPIM 20th ed p. 2850)

a)

Normal glucose tolerance

b)

Impaired fasting glucose

c)

Diabetes Mellitus non insulin requiring

d)

Diabetes Mellitus insulin requiring

9.

What is the estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) of a 40 year old female, weighing 55kg with serum creatinine of 128 umol/L using the Cockroft and Gault formula?

a)

43 ml/min

b)

45 ml/min

c)

49 ml/min

d)

53 ml/min

10.

A 55/M male consulted due of joint pain and swelling of the Distal Interphalangeal joint and 1st Carpometacarpal joint. What is the cause of the joint swelling?

a)

Pseudogout

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

d)

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

11.

1. This is a trait of 5-star physician, who considers the patient as an integral part of a family and the community and provides high-standard clinical care and personalizes preventive care within a long-term trusting relationship.

a)

Researcher

b)

Social Mobilizer

c)

Educator/Counselor

d)

Health care provider

12.

This type of family is linked together by virtue of kinship bond between parents and children and/or between siblings.

a)

Nuclear

b)

Blended

c)

Extended

d)

Communal

13.

FAMILY PROCESSES: this occurs when a third person is drawn into a two-pair system so as to diffuse anxiety or conflict.

a)

Enmeshment

b)

Triangulation

c)

Disengagement

d)

Coalition

14.

PARENTING STYLES: In this parenting, parents let the child’s preferences take priority over their ideals and rarely are in control of the family rather than the parents.

a)

Democratic

b)

Authoritarian

c)

Permissive

d)

Uninvolved

15.

FAMILY APGAR: the data you obtained from the patient had a total of 6, which means?

a)

None of the above

b)

Highly functional family

c)

severely dysfunctional family

d)

moderately dysfunctional family

16.

Among these patients, who should not undergo screening for anemia?

a)

G2P1(1001)

b)

10 month/F with history of LBW

c)

65/F for executive check up

d)

Adolescent male with hx of dizziness

17.

Which of the following is the probable vector that transmits Dengue virus to human?

a)

Albopticus

b)

Anopheles

c)

Culex

d)

Mansonia

18.

Which of the following pair of primary pathogens associated with urethritis?

a)

N. gonorrhea and T. pallidum

b)

C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhea

c)

M. genitalium and C. trachomatis

d)

Ureaplasma sp. And M.

19.

A 51-year old male came into your clinic complaining of 3 weeks cough. This was accompanied by loosening of his clothes, low grade fever which usually occur in the afternoon, and occasional blood tinged sputum. Patient is a known smoker and hypertensive allegedly compliant with his medications. He denies any previous PTB treatment. Physical examination revealed a BP 140/70, HR 92, RR 20, T 37.1c and clear breath sounds upon ausculatation. Chest xray was done showing linear opacities on the right upper lung field, and sputum afb showed 2 negative results.


What is your diagnosis?

a)

Bacteriologically confirmed PTB

b)

Multidrug resistant PTB

c)

Clinically diagnosed PTB

d)

Data is inconclusive

20.

Which of the following are the most common sign and symptoms to find in a patient diagnosed with COVID 19 based on several studies in Chinese population?

a)

Fever only

b)

Fever and cough

c)

Fever and sore throat

d)

All of the above

21.

Corneal transparency is maintained by the following, except:

a)

Relative dehydration

b)

Avascularity

c)

Uniform spacing of collagen fibrils

d)

None of the above

22.

Which of the following are elevators of eye?

a)

SR and IO

b)

IO and SO

c)

IR and SR

d)

SO and SR

23.

Which orbital wall is most commonly involved in orbital wall fractures?

a)

Super orbital wall

b)

Medial orbital wall

c)

Inferior orbital wall

d)

Lateral orbital wall

24.

Which type of lens is used to correct a purely myopic eye

a)

Convex

b)

Concave

c)

Cylindrical

d)

Toric

25.

The hallmark finding seen in Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

a)

Dot and blot hemorrhages

b)

Neovascularization

c)

Clinically significant macular edema

d)

Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities

26.

The eye structure with the highest refractive power is the

a)

Crystalline lens

b)

Cornea

c)

Vitreous humor

d)

Retina

27.

Ophthalmia neonatorum is

a)

Inflammation of conjunctiva occurring in an infant less than 30 days old

b)

Any discharge/ watering from the eye in first week of life

c)

Always caused by gonococci

d)

All of the above

28.

1. Normal A:V ratio of retinal blood vessels:

a)

1:2

b)

2:3

c)

3:2

d)

A. 3:4

29.

All of the following are causes of sudden painless loss of vision except:

a)

Central retinal artery occlusion

b)

Optic atrophy

c)

Optic neuritis

d)

Retinal detachment

30.

1. Flashes of light before eyes (photopsia) is a feature of:

a)

Impending retinal detachment

b)

Vitreous traction of the retina

c)

Retinitis

d)

All of the above

31.

What are the layers of the epidermis (in correct order)?

a)

Stratum corneum, granulosum, lucidum, spinosum, basale

b)

Stratum corneum, lucidum, spinosum, granulosum, basale

c)

Stratum corneum, spinosum, lucidum, granulosum, basale

d)

Stratum corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

32.

This is a circumscribed change in color, without elevation or depression, >1cm.

a)

Macule

b)

Patch

c)

Plaque

d)

Wheal

33.

Which of the following is a secondary lesion?

a)

Nodule

b)

Wheal

c)

Excoriation

d)

Cyst

34.

Which of the following is NOT a major diagnostic criteria for Atopic dermatitis?

a)

Pruritus

b)

(+) family history of atopy

c)

Adult distribution in the flexural surfaces

d)

Adult distribution in the extensor surfaces

35.

What is the causative agent of a common wart?

a)

Herpes herpes virus

b)

Varicella zoster virus

c)

Cytomegalovirus

d)

Human papillomavirus

36.

A 7-year old male presented to you with skin-colored pearly papules with central umbilication on the right chest. What is your initial diagnosis?

a)

Molluscum contagiosum

b)

Verruca plana

c)

Syringoma

d)

Sebaceous hyperplasia

37.

A 2-month old baby girl presented to you with reddish white macerated plaques with satellite papules in the diaper area. What is the most likely etiologic agent?

a)

Candida albicans

b)

Pseudomona aeruginosa

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Pityrosporum ovale

38.

The diagnosis of Toxic epidermal necrolysis is made when the body surface area (BSA) involved is:

a)

<10% BSA

b)

10-20% BSA

c)

10-30% BSA

d)

>30% BSA

39.

These are linear, urticarial lesions occurring after stroking or scratching the skin.

a)

Darier sign

b)

Dermographism

c)

Angioedema

d)

Cholinergic urticaria

40.

Six signs of malignant melanoma (ABCDE Rule):

a)

Asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolution

b)

Asymmetry, base, color, (ugly) duckling, extent

c)

Asymmetry, border, character, diameter, elevation

d)

Asymmetry, base, color, diameter, erythema

41.

The spine consist of how many vertebra?

a)

31

b)

32

c)

33

d)

34

42.

The Pia mater ends as?

a)

Filum terminale

b)

Cauda Equina

c)

Sacrococcygeal ligament

d)

Ligamentum Flavum

43.

It carries all the fibres of the brachial plexus

a)

Median nerve

b)

Ulnar nerve

c)

Radial nerve

d)

Musculocutaneous

44.

True of Restrictive Lung disease.

a)

Decrease in FEV1/FVC

b)

Increase in FRC during gas trapping

c)

TLC normal

d)

Decrease in FEV1

45.

Drug Interaction between local anesthetics and sedatives?

a)

Synergism

b)

Potentiation

c)

Additive

d)

No Interaction

46.

Which of the following is an anticholinesterase?

a)

Neostigmine and glycopyrolate

b)

Atropine and glycopyrolate

c)

Physostigmine and scopolamine

d)

Endrophonium and neostigmine

47.

Which drug reverses the effects of Opioids

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

N-acetylcistein

d)

Paracetamol

48.

Marks the beginning of the cardiac cycle

a)

End systole

b)

End diastole

c)

Isovolumetric relaxation

d)

Rapid ejection

49.

The most important buffering system in the body.

a)

Hgb

b)

Plasma Prrotein

c)

PHosphate

d)

HCO3

50.

Which of the following drugs has anxiolytic and amnesic effect?

a)

Midazolam

b)

Fentanyl

c)

Propofol

d)

Atracurium

51.

The following are features of necrosis except:

a)

Cell size – enlarged

b)

Plasma membrane – intact

c)

Cellular contents – enzymatic digestion

d)

Adjacent inflammation – frequent

e)

All are correct

52.

This pattern of tissue necrosis is characterized by digestion of the dead cells, resulting in transformation of the tissue into a viscous mass

a)

Coagulative necrosis

b)

Liquefactive necrosis

c)

Gangrenous necrosis

d)

Caseous necrosis

53.

What is the hallmark of tissue repair?

a)

Collagen deposition

b)

Blood clot formation

c)

Granulation tissue formation

d)

Scar formation

54.

A few minutes after being bittenby a mosquito, swelling and erythema were noted. What causes the erythema?

a)

Hemorrhage

b)

Increased vascular permeability

c)

Lymphatic obstruction

d)

Vascular damage

e)

Vasodilatation

55.

A housewife while cooking came in contact with her frying pan. A blister with clear fluid developed at the area of contact. What is the nature of the lesion?

a)

Fibrinopurulent

b)

Fibrinous

c)

Purulent

d)

Serous

e)

Suppurative

56.

A suppurative exudate contains necrotic debris in addition to neutrophils. Which of the following is most likely responsible for necrosis?

a)

Prostaglandin

b)

Bradykinin

c)

Leukotrienes

d)

Release of bacterial toxins

e)

Release of hydrolases from neutrophils

57.

A 24 y.o laborer is found to have bilateral adenopathy on routing chest X-ray. Histology show Langhan’s type of giant cells with central caseation necrosis, which of the following is the best diagnosis?

a)

Brucellosis

b)

Sarcoidosis

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Streptococcus

e)

Tuberculosis

58.

Which of the ff result from the action of the product of the cyclooxygenase pathway:

a)

Leukotriene-induced neutrophil aggregation

b)

Complement induced hemolysis

c)

Histamine induced laryngeal edema

d)

Endotoxin induced DIC

e)

PGD2 PGE2 vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

59.

Blocking the cyclooxygenase pathway by aspirin would best help alleviate:

a)

Thrombosis

b)

Pain

c)

Liquefaction necrosis

d)

Fibrinolysis

e)

Scar formation

60.

Lymphatics is the 2nd line of defense in acute inflammation performing all of the ff functions EXCEPT:

a)

Carry lymphocytes from lymph nodes into tissues

b)

Drain off excess tissue fluid

c)

Aid in resolution of inflammation

d)

Serve as route for dissemination of infection

e)

Connect to the draining lymph nodes from site of tissue injury

61.

The initial step in hemostasis is:

a)

Vascular constriction

b)

Platelet Plug Formation

c)

Fibrin Formation/Coagulation

d)

Fibrinolysis

62.

A 21/M suffered from a stab wound at the left chest, 4th ICS, left MCL. She was rushed to the ER and was found to have the following vital signs 80/50mmHg, 120bpm, 26cpm, afebrile. You are considering cardiac tamponade, what are the components of Beck’s Triad?

a)

Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, collapsed neck veins

b)

Hypotension, distant heart sounds, dilated neck veins

c)

Decreased blood pressure, prominent heart sounds, engorged neck veins

d)

Decreased blood pressure, normal heart sounds, collapsed neck veins

e)

Hypotension, diminished heart sounds, collapsed neck veins

63.

A 32-year old male presents after being hit by a truck. He opens his eyes to sternal rub, localizes to pain and is only making groaning sounds. What is his GCS?

a)

7

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

e)

5

64.

Which of the following is a non-proliferative disorder of the breast:

a)

Ductal ectasia

b)

Sclerosing adenosis

c)

Intraductal papilloma

d)

Ductal epithelial hyperplasia

65.

A 25 year old female medical intern failed her PGMI examination and ingested 100 cc of household bleach. Appropriate treatment strategy include:

a)

Induce emesis

b)

Emergency tube gastrostomy for feeding/nutrition

c)

Give fresh frozen plasma

d)

Intravenous fluid resuscitation

e)

Give acid orally to neutralize solution

66.

A 65-year old male, known COPD case was chronically taking NSAIDs, suddenly experienced severe epigastric pain. 24 hours later, fever was noted, thus consult. Chest x-ray upright revealed a crescent shape lucency beneath the diaphragm which can be attributed to:

a)

Pneumoperitoneum secondary to perforated peptic ulcer

b)

Free blood from the stomach which collected underneath the diaphragm

c)

Escape of air from the lungs

d)

Collection of pus beneath the diaphragm

e)

Both A and D

67.

A 30-year old male patient came in the ER due to ruptured appendicitis. His vitals were 80/50mmHg, 56 beats per minute, 21 breaths per minute, temperature of 36.1’C. his WBC count is 12000/uL. The following are part of the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) except:

a)

Temperature of 36’C or lower

b)

Pulse rate lower than 60

c)

Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min or higher

d)

White blood cell count of 12000/uL or greater

e)

10% or greater band forms on CBC

68.

The statement about the anatomy of the gallbladder

a)

The fundus is the narrowest part of the gallbladder

b)

The hepatocystic triangle is a useful landmark to locate the cystic artery

c)

The cystic artery which supplies the gallbladder is usually a branch of the left hepatic artery

d)

The hepatoduodenal ligament is basically avascular

69.

A 16/M came in due reducible IIH. The hernial sac of an indirect inguinal hernia is located:

a)

Antero-medial to the spermatic cord

b)

Antero-lateral to the spermatic cord

c)

Postero-lateral to the spermatic cord

d)

Postero-medial to the spermatic cord

e)

Either A or B

70.

A 4 years old boy has an indirect inguinal hernia which is reducible. The surgery of choice is:

a)

Bassini repair

b)

Mesh hernioplasty

c)

High ligation of hernia sac

d)

MacVay repair

e)

Marcy repair

71.

What nerves could possibly be severed during low transverse incision during caesarean section which could lead to loss of sensation of the skin over the suprapubic area, mons pubis and upper labia majora.

a)

Intercostal and subcostal nerves

b)

Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves

c)

Inferior epigastric nerve

d)

Superficial epigastric nerve

72.

The perineal body is found at the junction between the anterior and posterior triangles and it provides significant perineal support. What muscles converge in the central tendon which is incised during episiotomy?

a)

Pubococcygeus, ischiocavernosus and superficial transverse

b)

External anal sphincter, gluteus maximus and iliococcygeus

c)

Bulbocavernosus, ischiocavernosus and superficial transverse perineal muscle

d)

Bulbocavernosus, superficial transverse perineal and external anal sphincter

73.

During vaginal birth, there is significant risk for damage to the levator ani muscle which could predispose women for POP. What muscle of the levator anii is more commonly damaged?

a)

Coccygeus

b)

Iliococcygeus

c)

Puborectalis

d)

Pubococcygeus

74.

It is the part of the uterus which forms the lower uterine segment

a)

Corpus

b)

Body

c)

Cornu

d)

Isthmus

75.

In early pregnancy, softening of the isthmus is called

a)

Chadwick sign

b)

Hegar sign

c)

Goodell sign

d)

Collen sign

76.

A branch of the uterine artery that runs within the round ligament

a)

External iliac artery

b)

Ovarian artery

c)

Cervical artery

d)

Sampson artery

77.

A G1P0 is on her 14 weeks age of gestation underwent exploratory. Intraoperative finding revealed that there was hemorrhagic corpus luteum. You have to remove the corpus luteum. Your consultant asked you if there is a need to give progesterone to maintain the pregnancy. You tell her that there is no need to give progesterone because Corpus Luteum found in pregnant women functions maximally during the first:

a)

3 – 4 weeks of pregnancy

b)

4 – 5 weeks of pregnancy

c)

6 – 7 weeks of pregnancy

d)

8 – 10 weeks of pregnancy

78.

A patient comes in for prenatal check-up. She is on her third trimester and complains of swelling of the ankle. Her vital signs were normal and PE was unremarkable. You tell her that:

a)

Pitting edema of the ankles and legs is seen especially in the morning.

b)

Fluid accumulation may be caused by increased venous pressure below the level of the uterus as a consequence of the partial vena cava inclusion

c)

Swelling is due to increase in interstitial colloid osmotic pressure in pregnancy

d)

All of the above

79.

LH secretion peaks how m any hours before ovulations?

a)

8 -10 hours

b)

10 – 12 hours

c)

12 – 24 hours

d)

24 – 36 hours

80.

First histologic evidence of ovulation is:

a)

Subnuclear vacuoles and pseudostratification

b)

Glandular cell mitosis

c)

Stromal infiltration by neutrophils, giving pseudo inflammatory appearance

d)

Enlargement of stromal cells surrounding the spiral arterioles

81.

An unconscious 30/M was brought to the emergency room after being involved in a vehicular crash (motorcycle vs motorcycle), with noted gross deformity of his R thigh. Which of the following should be the first course of action?

a)

Acquire complete history and perform thorough physical examination

b)

Administer tetanus toxoid and intramuscular analgesic medication

c)

Ensure adequate circulation, airway and breathing

d)

Apply a posterior mold or traction device on the R lower extremity

82.

For the patient in Question 81, what would be the most appropriate imaging modality during the time of examination at the emergency room?

a)

Xray of the R thigh

b)

CT-scan of the R thigh

c)

Ultrasound of the R thigh

d)

MRI of the R thigh

83.

For the patient in Question 81, diagnostic imaging revealed a femoral shaft fracture R. What would be the most appropriate immobilization for the patient?

a)

Poserior mold from the thigh to the foot

b)

Posterior mold from the lower back to the foot

c)

Traction device on the R lower extremity

d)

No immobilization necessary for the R lower extremity

84.

Deforming forces in a femoral shaft fracture include the following structures EXCEPT

a)

Iliopsoas

b)

Rectus femoris

c)

Adductor brevis

d)

Gastrocnemius

85.

The femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery as is courses through which of the following structures?

a)

Rotator interval

b)

Inguinal canal

c)

Adductor hiatus

d)

Popliteal fossa

86.

The carpal bones include the following EXCEPT

a)

Trapezoid

b)

Cuboid

c)

Capitate

d)

Hamate

87.

A 45/F teacher consulted at the outpatient clinic with a chief complaint of persistent pain on her R hand, with associated numbness of the thumb, index and middle finger. Primary consideration for this case would be which of the following conditions?

a)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

b)

Trigger finger

c)

Wrist tendinitis

d)

Diabetic neuropathy

88.

The rotator cuff muscles include the following structures EXCEPT

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Infraspinatus

c)

Teres Minor

d)

Teres Major

89.

The risk for anterior shoulder dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is highest in which of the following shoulder positions?

a)

Abduction-external rotation

b)

Adduction-external rotation

c)

Abduction-internal rotation

d)

Adduction-internal rotation

90.

A 25/F soccer player presented at the outpatient clinic with a 3 week history of twisting her L knee, with notably less pain on the L knee but with persistent instability especially when going down the stairs. A positive anterior drawer test/Lachmann test would be indicative of which of the following conditions?

a)

Anterior cruciate ligament tear

b)

Posterior cruciate ligament tear

c)

Medial collateral ligament sprain

d)

Larteral collateral ligament sprain

91.

What is the expected weight in kilograms of an 8 MONTH child?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

92.

A term well newborn is discharged before 48th hour of life. This baby should be followed up within the next

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

72 hours

d)

12 hours

93.

Rotavirus is given at a minimum age of:

a)

4 weeks

b)

6 weeks

c)

4 months

d)

6 months

94.

The visual acuity of a newborn permits recognition of an object held at:

a)

1-2 inches

b)

8-12 inches

c)

18-24 inches

d)

24-30 inches

95.

The drug of choice for CAP in children 2-5 yo:

a)

Penicillin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Erythromycin

d)

Cotrimoxazole

96.

A 4 yo vehicular accident male patient remains hypoxic and dyspneic despite 100% FiO2 via ET. On PE, lungs are hyperresonant and breath sounds are diminished bilaterally. What is most likely the complication?

a)

pleural effusion

b)

pneumothorax

c)

pneumomediastinum

d)

atelectasis

97.

Lesion arising from other intrauterine disorders like oligohydramnios and presents with respiratory distress soon after birth

a)

bronchogenic cyst

b)

vascular sling

c)

pulmonary sequestration

d)

pulmonary hypoplasia

98.

A 2 yo child awakens with a characteristic barking cough, noisy inspiratory sound with respiratory distress. Patient is afebrile and symptoms diminish within several hours

a)

laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)

b)

acute epiglottitis

c)

retropharyngeal abscess

d)

spasmodic croup

99.

In the Philippines, the newborn screening test for congenital hypothyroidism consists of:

a)

FT3

b)

FT4

c)

TSH

d)

TRH

100.

The most satisfactory stimulus to the production of human milk is:

a)

eagerness of the mother to breastfeed

b)

Regular and complete emptying of the breast

c)

Proper positioning during breastfeeding

d)

Fluid intake of the mother

101.

What is the depression inside the pinna that leads to the external auditory meatus?

a)

Tragus

b)

Conchae

c)

Helix

d)

Lobule

102.

The following are the nerve supply of the Middle Ear, EXCEPT:

a)

Jacobson’s Nerve

b)

Arnold’s Nerve

c)

Auriculotemporal branch of the 5th CN

d)

None of the above

103.

How does one straighten the external ear canal during physical examination in an adult patient?

a)

Backward and downward

b)

Backward and upward

c)

Forward and downward

d)

Forward and upward

104.

Which of the following structures are properly paired with their source of sensory innervation?

a)

Upper Lip – Mental Nerve

b)

Posterior 2/3 of the tongue – Chorda Tympani

c)

Palatal Mucosa – 3rd division of the Trigeminal Nerve

d)

Sulcus Terminalis – Lingual Nerve

105.

In patients with velopharyngeal insufficiency what kind of voice if produced?

a)

Hyponasal

b)

Hypernasal

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

106.

Damage to the external laryngeal nerve during thyroid surgery would cause inability to:

a)

Relax the vocal cords

b)

Relax the arytenoid cartilages

c)

Tense the vocal cords

d)

Abduct the vocal cords

107.

A patient is asked to smile and the right corner of the patient’s mouth does not move upward. There would be injury to what nerve?

a)

Mandibular portion of the right trigeminal nerve

b)

Right vagus nerve

c)

Right facial nerve

d)

Right glossopharyngeal nerve

108.

Which of the following is not included in the Waldeyer’s Ring?

a)

Faucial tonsils

b)

Lingual tonsils

c)

Adenoid tissue

d)

None of the above

109.

Which of the following statement/s is/ are TRUE regarding the physical examination of the Oral Cavity

a)

Optimal instructions – “Stick you tongue out and say ‘Ahh””

b)

Tonsils and the pharynx can be seen by depressing the posterior third of the tongue

c)

Dry the mouth by a swab of cotton to see saliva expressed from the Stensen’s and Wharton’s ducts

d)

All are true

110.

What divides the oropharynx and the hypopharynx?

a)

True vocal cords

b)

Epiglottis

c)

False vocal cords

d)

Esophagus

111.

In order of most radiolucent to most radiopaque, which is correct?

a)

Metal, Bone, Soft tissue, Water, Fat, Air

b)

Air, Fat, Water, Soft tissue, Bone, Metal

c)

Air, Fat, Soft tissue, Water, Bone, Metal

d)

Air, Water, Fat, Soft tissue, Bone, Metal

112.

Which is true?

a)

The right lung has 2 lobes and 2 fissures.

b)

The right lung has 3 lobes and 2 fissures

c)

The left lung has 2 lobes and 2 fissures

d)

The left lung has 3 lobes and 2 fissures

113.

On frontal view chest x-ray, which cardiac chamber corresponds with the right cardiac border?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle

114.

Which is true with regards to normal anatomy of the diaphragm?

a)

The left hemidiaphragm is usually higher than the right.

b)

The left hemidiaphragm is usually lower than the right.

c)

The hemidiaphragms are usually at the same level

115.

The following are retroperitoneal organs/structures, EXCEPT

a)

Ascending colon

b)

Descending colon

c)

Transverse colon

d)

Rectum

116.

Assessment of the major abdominal organs is made easier by the rim of ___ surrounding them.

a)

Fluid

b)

Air

c)

Cartilage

d)

Fat

117.

Which of the following is suggestive of splenomegaly?

a)

Any dimension greater than 12 cm.

b)

Projection extending to the anterior axillary line on lateral view.

c)

Inferior border extending below the inferior hepatic border

d)

Inferior border extending to the level of the left kidney.

118.

The “crescent sign”, or an area of lucency beneath the diaphragm on upright chest x-ray is a sign of:

a)

Pneumothorax

b)

Pneumoperitoneum

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Ascites

119.

65/M, with known history of CKD.

a)

Pulmunary edema, bilateral

b)

Pneumoperitoneum, Rigler sign

120.

35/M, case of gunshot wound, with difficulty of breathing, and on PE, (+) distended neck veins.

a)

Massive atelectasis, right

b)

Tension pneumothorax, right

121.

The alteration in sensorium in most instances of metabolic encephalopathies is based on the following principle:

a)

It is necessary to involve the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) to impair consciousness

b)

Involving both cerebral hemispheres diffusely will have the same effect on consciousness as involvement of the brainstem

c)

Uncal herniation with secondary compression of the brainstem is the usual mechanism involved

d)

The brainstem is preferentially affected than the cerebral hemispheres

122.

In Cranial CT scans, ischemic infarcts appear as:

a)

Hypodense lesions

b)

Hyperdense lesions

c)

Isodense lesions

d)

Normodense lesions

e)

None of the above

123.

A 21-year-old Nursing student was brought into your clinic for a 3-day history of fever, progressive headache and vomiting. In the past 24 hours, there has been note of deteriorating sensorium and seizures. You decide to do a lumbar puncture. What is the classic CSF picture you expect to obtain in this patient?

a)

WBC < 500/ cu ml, predominantly lymphocytes, increased protein, decreased sugar

b)

WBC > 1000/cu ml, predominantly neutrophils, increased protein, decreased sugar c

c)

WBC < 500/cu ml, predominantly lymphocytes, slightly increased protein, normal sugar

d)

WBC > 1000/cu ml, predominantly neutrophils, decreased protein, decreased sugar

124.

A 78-year-old lady consulted your clinic because of dizziness, which she described as spinning of the environment. While examining the patient, she tells you that she has recently observed decreased hearing on both ears and a vague feeling of fullness of the ears. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

a)

Brainstem hemorrhage

b)

Meniere’s disease

c)

Vestibular neuronitis

d)

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

125.

A 19-year-old engineering student complained of severe headache. Pertinent neuro exam showed right-left disorientation, acalculia and agraphia. The blood supply to the involved area is the:

a)

Anterior cerebral artery

b)

Middle cerebral artery

c)

Anterior communicating artery

d)

Basilar artery

126.

A 50-year-old male gym instructor suddenly developed severe headache followed by vomiting after lifting weights. Pertinent neurologic examination showed a 5 mm fixed pupil on the right, medial rectus paralysis on the right, ptosis on the right and left hemiplegia at 1/5, and nuchal rigidity. You localize the lesion to be in:

a)

Left midbrain

b)

Right midbrain

c)

Left frontal

d)

Right frontal

127.

A 45-year-old female came in because of easy fatigability noted after heavy exertion and usually in the afternoon. At times, her husband notices that by late afternoon, she already has a nasal quality to her voice. What is the main pathologic feature of this disease?

a)

Impaired release of Ach from the nerve terminal

b)

Decrease in the available Ach receptors

c)

Increase rate of degradation of Ach at the neuromuscular junction

d)

Decreased production of Ach at the neural end plate

128.

A 50 year old patient came in due to acute onset of right sided headache. The location of the headache is on the temporal area. There is tenderness over the right superficial temporal artery. The most likely diagnosis will be:

a)

Migraine headache

b)

Stroke

c)

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

d)

Temporal arteritis

e)

Tension headache

129.

A 50-year old left handed male came in due to gradually progressive headache described as dull, worse in the morning with associated nausea and vomiting. He has been having the pain for the past 6 months. Neurologic examination also showed papilledema. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Brain tumor

b)

Cluster headache

c)

CNS infection

d)

Migraine

e)

Migraine

130.

The presence of clonus automatically grades the ankle jerk as:

a)

++++

b)

+++

c)

++

d)

+

e)

O