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RADT 1085 Unit II (Pathology, Informatics and QM)

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The timer accuracy tool called a spin top can test which type of generator phase equipment?

a)

Single phase

b)

Three phase

c)

High frequency

d)

Any of these

2.

Compared to CRTs, AMLCDs _______.

a)

have less noise

b)

generate less heat

c)

can be viewed from all angles

d)

use an electron ray gun in a raster pattern

3.

Today, almost all digital images in medical imaging are viewed and interpreted on a __.

a)

view box

b)

CRT device

c)

digital display device

d)

television monitor

4.

The ambient light at a digital image workstation should be __.

a)

daylight bright

b)

dimmed to reduce eye strain

c)

complete darkness

5.

PACS stands for __.

a)

Processing, Applications, and Computer Storage

b)

Processing, Archiving, and Computer Storage

c)

Physician Applications and Communication Systems

d)

Picture Archiving and Communication Systems

6.

The national standard for image transmission in teleradiology is the __ format.

a)

RIS

b)

DICOM

c)

MB

d)

PACS

7.

Which is not a part of PACS?

a)

Film storage

b)

A display system

c)

A network

d)

Image aquisition

8.

A digital display monitor is best viewed __.

a)

straight on

b)

from above

c)

from below

d)

at a 30 degree angle

9.

A digital display device with higher # of megapixels has better spatial resolution.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

SMPTE stands for the __.

a)

Standards of Medical Practice and Television Electronics

b)

Standards of Medical Practice and Technical Electronics

c)

Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers

d)

Society of Medical Physicians and Technical Engineers

11.

The measured kVp should be within ±__% of the kVp indicated on the console.

a)

5 - 10

b)

15 - 20

c)

30

d)

50

12.

A QC program should include __, routine performance monitoring, and maintenance.

a)

acceptance testing

b)

outcome analysis

c)

calibration

d)

personnel monitor

13.

Comparing the mR output at 50 mA at 0.2 sec, 100 mA at 0.1 sec, and 200 mA at 0.05 sec is part of a test for __.

a)

reproducibiilty

b)

linearity

c)

uniformity

d)

latitude

14.

Filtration is measured with __ measurements.

a)

caliper

b)

photometer

c)

slit camera

d)

half value layer

15.

The collimator must be accurately aligned to within ±__% of the SID.

a)

2

b)

5

c)

10

d)

12

16.

Medical facilities have quality control programs in place in order to __.

a)

have TJC approval and accreditation

b)

ensure quality patient care

c)

receive payment from insurance companies

d)

do all of these

17.

The acronym WAN stands for:

a)

Wide Arena Network

b)

Word Archive Network

c)

Wide Area Network

d)

Wide Area Nesting

18.

Attenuation is the combined result of:

a)

Scatter

b)

Absorption

c)

Brems

d)

Transmission

19.

Which factors of human tissue affect attenuation?

a)

Thickness

b)

Atomic number

c)

Mass density

20.

Sharpness of an image refers to:

a)

spatial resolution

b)

constrast

c)

exposure

d)

attenuation

21.

Additive pathological conditions will:

a)

increase the attenuation of the beam

b)

require increase exposure to maintain IR exposure index

c)

possibly increase the overall atomic number of a tissue

d)

decrease the attenuation of the beam

22.

Which of the following is considered an "additive" disease process?

a)

Edema

b)

PTX

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

COPD

23.

Which of the following is considered a "destructive" disease process?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Ascities

c)

Multiple myeloma

d)

Ankylosing spondylitis

24.

What program type monitors a patient's overall experience in a radiology department?

a)

Quality control

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Technologist control

d)

Quality assessment

25.

Operating above 70 kVp, how much filtration is required for x-ray tubes?

a)

1 mm Al

b)

2 mm Al

c)

2.5 mm Al

d)

3.5 mm Al

26.

How often should CR imaging plates be cleaned?

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Annually

27.

The ideal brightness and contrast levels should never be changed at the monitor.​

a)

True

b)

False

28.

How often should CR imaging plates be erased?

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Annually

29.

Identify this test pattern

a)

AAPM

b)

ACR

c)

SMPTE

d)

TEST

30.

Fluoroscopy exposure rate at the tabletop level should not exceed:

a)

10 mGya/min

b)

10 mGya/hr

c)

88 mGya/min

d)

88 mGya/hr

31.

Phantoms are used in tomography units to test:

a)

section level

b)

section thickness

c)

exposure angle

d)

spatial resolution

32.

How often should lead aprons be inspected for cracks/holes, under fluoro?

a)

Daily

b)

Weekly

c)

Monthly

d)

Annually

33.

Linearity measurements can vary +/- ____% for adjacent mA stations.

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

50

34.

Reproducibility output measurements can vary +/- ____%

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

35.

What program monitors instruments and equipment in the radiology department?

a)

Quality management

b)

Quality control

c)

Quality assessment

d)

Quality assurance

36.

Which of the following is considered "Long term" tier of storage?

a)

Local hard drive

b)

Thumbdrive

c)

RAID

d)

Jukebox

37.

Which of the following is/are examples of Biomedical Informatics Platform?

a)

PACS

b)

RIS

c)

HIS

d)

All of these