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Basic Concept (Units – II, IV & V)

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Phospholipids are ______

a)

hydrophilic

b)

amphibolic

c)

hydrophobic

d)

amphipathic

2.

The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate concentration at which the reaction reaches to ______

a)

¼ Vmax

b)

Zero

c)

2 Vmax

d)

½ Vmax

3.

Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or position isomers are _____

a)

Ligases

b)

Lyases

c)

Hydrolases

d)

Isomerases

4.

The glycosidic linkage seen in lactose is ______

a)

Alpha 1-4 linkage

b)

Alpha 1-6 linkage

c)

Beta 1-4 linkage

d)

Alpha 1-2 linkage

5.

Select mismatch from the following

a)

Neutral amino acid - Valine

b)

Aromatic amino acid - Serine

c)

Basic amino acid - Lysine

d)

Acidic amino acid - Glutamic acid

6.

The chemical and physical properties of amino acids depends on _____

a)

COOH group only

b)

CHO group only

c)

COOH and R groups

d)

R group only

7.

The most essential fatty acid is _____

a)

Linoleic acid

b)

Linolenic acid

c)

Arachidonic acid

d)

Palmitic acid

8.

The term lipid was given by ______

a)

Sutherland

b)

Bloor

c)

Altman

d)

Berzelius

9.

Fructose 2, 6-biphosphate stimulates glylcolysis by activating _____

a)

Fructose 1-6 phosphatase

b)

Hexokinase

c)

Phosphofructokinase

d)

Pyruvate kinase

10.

Which enzyme useful in hydrolysing fat and lipids

a)

Transferase

b)

Esterases

c)

Isomerase

d)

Monoamine oxidase

11.

"OTHLIL" this criterion is used as a basis for the classification and naming of enzyme by ______

a)

IUB

b)

CCMB

c)

IUPAC

d)

ICMR

12.

An inactive enzyme without the cofactor is called as _______

a)

Zymogen

b)

Coenzyme

c)

Apoenzyme

d)

Holoenzyme

13.

According to Sorensen, pH is defined as _____

a)

The positive logarithm of H+ ions

b)

The negative logarithm of H+ ions

c)

The equilibrium product of H+ and OH- ions

d)

All of these

14.

Blocking action of enzyme through blocking its active site is ______

a)

Competitive inhibition

b)

Non – competitive inhibition

c)

Allosteric inhibition

d)

Feedback inhibition

15.

FAD is electron acceptor during oxidation of which of the following

a)

α-ketoglutarate → Succinyl CoA

b)

Succinic acid → Fumaric acid

c)

Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid

d)

Fumaric acid → Malic acid

16.

The correct sequence of electron acceptor in ATP synthesis is

a)

Cyt a, a, b, c

b)

Cyt b, c, a, a3

c)

Cyt b, c, a3, a

d)

Cyt c, b, a, a3

17.

How many molecules of CO2 are produced in the conversion of citrate into succinyl CoA?

a)

TWO

b)

THREE

c)

FOUR

d)

ONE

18.

Which of the following is not produced in the pentose phosphate pathway?

a)

NADPH

b)

NADH

c)

CO2

d)

Ribose 5 phosphate

19.

For every molecule of NADH2 that is oxidized via the electron transport system, what is the number of ATPs formed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

20.

Which is the anti-ageing enzyme _______

a)

Peroxidase

b)

Catalase

c)

Telomerase

d)

Ribozyme

21.

Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Mitochondria

22.

Three morphological forms of Golgi complex are

a)

Lamellae, tubules and vesicles

b)

Cisternae, tubules and vesicles

c)

Cristae, tubules and vesicles

d)

Cisternae, tubules and Vacuoles

23.

A single unit membrane organelle is _____

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Lysosomes

24.

The function of the gap junction is to

a)

Connecting their cytoplasms for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules

b)

Performing cementing to keep neighboring cells together

c)

Separate two cells from each other

d)

Stop substance from leading across a tissue

25.

The Singer’s Model of Plasma membrane differs from the Robertson’s model in the ______

a)

Number of lipid layers

b)

Arrangement of proteins

c)

Arrangement of lipid layers

d)

Absence of protein layers

26.

Ribosomes were discovered by _____

a)

Keith Porter

b)

George E. Palade

c)

Christian de Duve

d)

Albert von Kolliker

27.

A is detachable vesicle. It fuses with lysosome to produce B.

a)

A-Pinosome B-pseudo vacuole

b)

A-Phagosome B-digestive vacuole

c)

A-Pinosome B-gas vacuole

d)

A-Phagosome B-contractile vacuole

28.

The Latin word ‘cancer’ means

a)

Crab

b)

Spider

c)

Scorpion

d)

centipede

29.

Lampbrush chromosomes can be seen during _______ stage.

a)

Diplotene

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Zygotene

30.

Which of the following statements about the process of DNA replication is false?

a)

Many different enzymes are needed for the process to function properly

b)

Mistakes can be corrected at multiple steps in the process

c)

Uncorrected mistakes introduce mutations into the DNA base sequence

d)

Mistakes in the copying process are very common occurrences

31.

Which of the following mechanisms of gene regulation operates after mRNA transcription but before translation of mRNA into protein?

a)

mRNA splicing

b)

DNA packing

c)

Repressors and activators

d)

Protein degradation

32.

Who stated mitochondria as “power house of the cell”

a)

Swedberk

b)

Seekevitze

c)

Kolliker

d)

Benda

33.

In eukaryotic flagella, the arrangement of microtubules in axoneme is ______

a)

9 + 0

b)

9 + 2

c)

8 + 0

d)

8 + 2

34.

The accepted model of DNA replication is _____

a)

Co – acervative

b)

Dispersive

c)

Semi conservative

d)

conservative

35.

A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA sequence. The nucleotide sequence of complementary chain would be

a)

TCGAAGCT

b)

GCTAAGCT

c)

TAGCATAT

d)

GATCCTAG

36.

Choose the wrong matching pair given below

a)

Hershey and Chase → DNA as genetic material

b)

Parson and Simpson → DNA polymerase

c)

Meselson and Stahl → Semi conservative replication

d)

Watson → Hypothesis of Central dogma

37.

Nissl granules, myeloid bodies and sarcoplasm of muscles are rich in ______

a)

Golgi bodies

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Plasma membrane

38.

The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

a)

Polymerize in the 3’- to -5’ direction and forms replication fork

b)

Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

c)

Polymerize in the 5’- to - 3’ direction and explain 3’- to - 5’ DNA replication

d)

Result in transcription

39.

Choose the wrong matching pair

a)

Helicase → Unwinding of DNA

b)

Gyrase → Negative super- coiling

c)

Primase → removes RNA primers

d)

DNA polymerase I → DNA Repair

40.

Nucleoside differs from a nucleotide by

a)

Presence of Phosphate group

b)

Absence of Phosphate group

c)

Ribose Sugar

d)

Nitrogen base

41.

Blood group “AB” was discovered by ______

a)

Landsteiner

b)

Weiner

c)

Best and Tyler

d)

Vondecastello and Struli

42.

Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?

a)

Round seed shape

b)

Axial flower position

c)

Green seed colour

d)

Green pod colour

43.

When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together it is called _____

a)

Codominance

b)

Complete Dominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Pseudo dominance

44.

Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to _______

a)

Repulsion

b)

Recombination

c)

Linkage

d)

Crossing over

45.

The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called _____

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Allelomorphs

c)

Homozygous

d)

Heterozygous

46.

In a dihybrid cross, F2 ratio of 15:1 is due to ______

a)

Supplementary genes

b)

Dominant epistasis

c)

Duplicate genes

d)

Recessive epistasis

47.

The technique used for detecting specific target DNA sequences in genes is called ______

a)

Eastern blotting

b)

Western blotting

c)

Southern blotting

d)

Northern blotting

48.

Which of the following disease act against malaria

a)

Haemophilia

b)

Colour blindness

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Alkeptonuria

49.

Chose the incorrect statement

a)

Linkage is rare phenomena when compare with crossing over

b)

Strength of linkage is distance between linked genes

c)

Linked genes occurs due to Mendel’s law of independent assortment

d)

Complete linkage occurs in male drosophila because there is no crossing over occurs.

50.

Chose the correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality

a)

Klinefelters syndrome – 44 autosomes + XXY

b)

Colour blindness – Y-linked

c)

Erythroblastosis foetalis – X-linked

d)

Down syndrome–44 autosomes + XO

51.

Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called

a)

Aneuploidy

b)

Polyploidy

c)

Allopolyploidy

d)

Monosomy

52.

Fruit colour in squash in an example of _______

a)

Recessive epistasis

b)

Dominant epistasis

c)

Complementary genes

d)

Inhibitory genes

53.

In a gene the coding genes are called ______

a)

Intron

b)

Operon

c)

Exons

d)

Cistrons

54.

Plasmids present in the bacterial cells are

a)

Circular double helical DNA molecules

b)

Circular double helical RNA molecules

c)

Linear double helical DNA molecules

d)

Linear double helical RNA molecules

55.

A clone of sheep Dolly has been made by ______

a)

Gene transfer

b)

Somatic cell cloning

c)

Nucleus transfer

d)

Germinal cell cloning.

56.

A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called _______

a)

Vector

b)

Selectablemarker

c)

Plasmid

d)

Probe

57.

Which of the following is molecular scissors?

a)

EcoRI

b)

Hind III

c)

Bam H II

d)

All of these

58.

Bacillus thuringiensis(Bt) strains have been used for designing novel

a)

Biofertilizers

b)

Bio-metallurgical technique

c)

Biominerallurgical process

d)

Bioinsecticidal plants

59.

GEAC stands for _______

a)

Genome Engineering Action Committee

b)

Ground Environment Action Committee

c)

Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

d)

Genetic and Environment Approval Committee

60.

A transgenic food crop’ which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is

a)

Falvr Savr tomatoes

b)

Starlink maize

c)

Bt Soybean

d)

Golden rice

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