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Cholinergics and anticholinergics

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Pseudocholinesterases are not found in:

a)

Plasma

b)

Liver

c)

Neuroglia

d)

RBC

2.

Which of the following receptors are not found in CNS?

a)

M1

b)

M3

c)

M4

d)

M5

3.

Receptor acting by decreasing cAMP activity

a)

M1

b)

M2

c)

M3

d)

M4

4.

Choline ester without nicotinic actions

a)

ACh

b)

Carbachol

c)

Bethanechol

d)

All of these

5.

Which choline ester is not completely blocked by atropine (muscarinic actions)?

a)

Carbachol

b)

Bethanechol

c)

ACh

d)

None

6.

Which of the following is not an action of ACh?

a)

Topical administration producing miosis

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Urination

d)

Vasodilation

7.

Poisoning by Inocybe species mushroom can cause:

a)

Rapid onset type

b)

Hallucinogen type

c)

Delayed onset type

d)

No effect

8.

Amatoxin poisoning responds to treatment with:

a)

Atropine

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Muscarine

d)

Thioctic acid

9.

Which of the following drugs do not bind to both A and E sites of ChE?

a)

ACh

b)

Edrophonium

c)

Echothiophate

d)

Physostigmine

10.

Drug of choice for atropine poisoning

a)

Eserine

b)

Neostigmine

c)

d-TC

d)

Pancuronium

11.

Drug causing cataract on prolonged use

a)

Physostigmine

b)

Neostigmine

c)

Atropine

d)

Tropicamide

12.

Which of the following drugs is most preferred for treatment of myasthenia gravis?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Pyridostigmine

c)

Edrophonium

d)

d-TC

13.

Drug used to differentiate myastenic crisis from cholinergic crisis is:

a)

Preferred for curare poisoning as well

b)

Used to treat myasthenia gravis

c)

Very long acting with rapid onset

d)

Used in glaucoma

14.

Beta blocker not used in glaucoma

a)

Betaxolol

b)

Levobunolol

c)

Carteolol

d)

Propranolol

15.

Drug of choice in wide angle glaucoma

a)

Latanoprost

b)

Timolol

c)

Brimonidine

d)

Dorzolamide

16.

Drug affecting drainage of aqueous humor

a)

Acetazolamide

b)

Dipivefrine

c)

Brimonidine

d)

Timolol

17.

Drug not contraindicated in myasthenia gravis

a)

Aminoglycoside antibiotics

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Azathioprine

d)

Timolol

18.

Which of the following is not used to treat Alzheimer's disease?

a)

Galantamine

b)

Tacrine

c)

Rivastigmine

d)

Donapezil

19.

Pralidoxime should not be used in poisoning with:

a)

Physostigmine

b)

Malathion

c)

Dyflos

d)

Sarin

20.

Correct statement is:

a)

Pupils are reactive in fully atropinized patient

b)

Obidoxime is effective is reactivating enzymes without alkyl groups

c)

Carbaryl poisoning can be treated with pralidoxime

d)

Oximes have mild anti-ChE action

21.

Which of the following is not an effect of atropine?

a)

CNS stimulation

b)

Cutaneous vasodilation

c)

Decrease secretion of saliva and milk

d)

Cycloplegia

22.

Atropine is completely metabolised in liver

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Homatropine does not cause cycloplegia

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Preferred mydriatic for adults are:

a)

Tropicamide

b)

Cyclopentolate

c)

Homatropine

d)

Atropine

25.

Intestinal colic can be treated with:

a)

Valethamate

b)

Darifenacin

c)

Tolterodine

d)

Tropicamide

26.

Vesicoselective drug used for urinary incontinence

a)

Tolterodine

b)

Darifenacin

c)

Solefenacin

d)

Drotaverine

27.

Glycopyrrolate is used for sialorrhoea in mercury poisoning

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Atropine is adminitered prior to neostigmine for poisoning with

a)

Organophosphates

b)

Carbamates

c)

Curare

d)

Inocybe

29.

Centraly acting anticholinergic is:

a)

Benzhexol

b)

Propantheline

c)

Clinidium

d)

Glycopyrrolate

30.

Drug not used in belladona poisoning

a)

Physostigmine

b)

Diazepam

c)

Tannic acid

d)

Hyoscine

31.

Effects of scopolamine are:

a)

Motion sickness

b)

CNS depression

c)

Amnesia

d)

Cutaneous vasodilation

32.

Anticholinergics reduce the bioavailability of

a)

Teyracycline

b)

Levodopa

c)

Digoxin

d)

TCA

33.

Trimethaphan is used for

a)

Controlled hypotension

b)

Nicotine addiction

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Preanesthetic

34.

Partial agonist of nicotinic receptors

a)

Varenicline

b)

Bupropion

c)

Trimethaphan

d)

Atropine

35.

Drug inhibiting Glutamate release and used for AML is :

a)

Tizanidine

b)

Riluzole

c)

Carisoprodol

d)

Thiocolchicoside

36.

Drug acting on spinal interneurons

a)

Drotaverine

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Chlozoxazone

d)

Thiocolchicoside

37.

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of SCh?

a)

Malignant hyperthermia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Muscle soreness

d)

Apnoea

38.

Muscle affected first in d-TC action

a)

Superior oblique

b)

Sternocleidomastoid

c)

Adductor pollicis

d)

Diaphragm

39.

Drug used in endotracheal intubation due to rapid action

a)

Rocuronium

b)

Pipecuronium

c)

Rapacuronium

d)

Atracurium

40.

Drugs causing histamine release

a)

Suxamethonium

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Atracurium

d)

Cisatracurium

41.

Muscle relaxant with vagolytic action

a)

Pipecuronium

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Cisatracurium

d)

Mivacurium

42.

Drug potentiating action of d-TC are all except:

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Tetracyclin

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Furosemide

43.

Most commonly used skeletal muscle relaxant for surgeries :

a)

Pipecuronium

b)

Vecuronium

c)

Pancuronium

d)

Mivacurium

44.

Hoffman degradation is seen for:

a)

Cisatracurium

b)

Mivacurium

c)

Rocuronium

d)

Vecuronium

45.

Sugammadex is used to reverse:

a)

Vecuronium

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Pipecuronium

d)

Atracurium

46.

Dantrolene acts on :

a)

Nicotinic receptors

b)

Muscarinic receptors

c)

Ryanodine receptors

d)

Alpha receptors

47.

Botulinum toxin A is not used in

a)

Cosmesis

b)

Dystonia

c)

Sialorrhoea

d)

Myalgia

48.

Safest muscle relaxant in hepatic dysfunction:

a)

Atracurium

b)

Cisatracurium

c)

Rocuronium

d)

Doxacurium

49.

Drug that can be given for tetanus

a)

Diazepam

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Pirenzepine

d)

Brimonidine

50.

Atropine is the preferred mydriatic in children

a)

True

b)

False

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