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Tactical Leadership Module Review

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Air or ground routes used by an attacking force leading to its objective or to key terrain in its path.

a)

Avenues of Approach

b)

Approach Lanes

c)

Paths of least resistance

2.

Any natural or man-made obstruction designed or employed to disrupt, fix, turn, or block the movement of an opposing force.

a)

Obstacle

b)

Axis

c)

Avenue of Approach

d)

Passage Lane

3.

Any locality, or area, the seizure or retention of which affords a marked advantage to either combatant

a)

key terrain

b)

avenue of approach

c)

passage point

4.

observation limited to a specific linear distance based on weapons systems capabilities.

a)

Fields of fire

b)

Line of Fire

c)

Passage Lane

5.

gives physical protection from bullets, shrapnel, flame, nuclear effects and biological and chemical agents.

a)

Concealment

b)

Cover

c)

Invisible energy field

6.

Protection from observation or surveillance.

a)

cover

b)

concealment

c)

invisibility cloak

7.

The greatest distance that prominent objects can be seen and identified by the unaided, normal eye.

(a)  

8.

the A in ASCOPE represents

(a)  

9.

the S in ASCOPE represents

(a)  

10.

The C in ASCOPE represents

(a)  

11.

The O in ASCOPE represents

(a)  

12.

The P in ASCOPE represents

(a)  

13.

The E in ASCOPE represents

(a)  

14.

refers to how threat/adversary forces are arrayed on the battlefield/battlespace

a)

disposition

b)

composition

c)

strength

d)

combat effectiveness

e)

capability

15.

describes a unit in terms of personnel, weapons, and equipment.

a)

strength

b)

composition

c)

disposition

d)

combat effectiveness

e)

capability

16.

describes the abilities and fighting quality of a unit.

a)

Combat effectiveness

b)

composition

c)

disposition

d)

strength

e)

capability

17.

the broad COAs and supporting operations that the enemy can take to achieve its goals and objectives

a)

composition

b)

capability

c)

strength

d)

combat effectiveness

e)

disposition

18.

those operations in which an enemy force is currently engaged.

a)

current operations

b)

future operations

c)

planned operations

19.

a force with two primary types of operations it can conduct, attack or defend

a)

regular force

b)

irregular force

c)

hybrid force

20.

a force that can conduct an attack or defend on a small scale, for short periods, or in complex terrain, but it is difficult to sustain these types of operations without degradation to their effectiveness and their operations.

a)

regular force

b)

irregular force

c)

hybrid force

21.

can combine the capabilities of regular and irregular forces to engage U.S. forces from all points in order to overwhelm U.S. capabilities.

a)

regular force

b)

irregular force

c)

hybrid force

22.

Final coordination between the ground and helicopter units must include agreement on

methods of:

a)

Identifying and marking friendly and threat positions

b)

Time to leave the AA

c)

Fuel statics

d)

Time of departure for the attack aircraft

23.

You are planning to use the CAS provided by 3-7 Cav to support the operation. Whom will the aerial attack team coordinate directly with whenever practicable, before the

attack team launches the attack aviation operation?

a)

The lowest-level unit in contact on the ground troop command net.

b)

The Highest-level unit in contact on the ground troop command net.

c)

The Battalion S-3 that planed the mission.

d)

The Battalion Commander only

24.

You are planning to mark the friendly positions for your unit. What is the least desirable method of target location and should be used with extreme

caution?

a)

Marking points of egress

b)

Marking enemy positions

c)

Marking friendly positions.

d)

Marking points of ingress.

25.

As a squad leader, you are task to conduct an attack aviation mission. You are attempting to help aircrews locate the target that you desire to target. To be effective, the target mark is__________, __________, and__________ identifiable?

a)

Timely, accurate, easily

b)

Shock, awe, easily.

c)

Broad, hidden, easily

d)

Vague, available, easily.

26.

During your mission, your dismounted squad comes under heavy fire. You decide to use an attack aviation fragmentary order. The Attack Aviation FRAGO is critical if the planning process is hasty. What are the three items that the Attack Aviation FRAGO includes?

a)

Situation, weather, and number of personnel

b)

Situation, mission, and coordinating instructions

c)

Time of day, number of enemy personnel, and who is in charge

d)

Purpose, support elements, weather.

27.

You have just completed coordination; the AMC is developing the attack plan. The AMC develops the attack plan for the aircraft. Planning considerations are included in the TPM-R brief. What are these considerations?

a)

Techniques of communication, Personnel on flight, Movement techniques, Radial flight.

b)

Tactics, Pattern/direction of attack, Mode of attack, Ranges.

c)

Tactics, Procedures, Munitions, Ranges.

d)

Techniques of weapons delivery, Pattern/direction of attack, Munitions, Ranges.

28.

You are in the open and your squad are in a prone protected position. You are under heavy enemy fire and you have requested an attack aviation mission. The attack team leader informs you he will be using a Hellfire AGM-114K missile to attack the enemy position. What is the danger close range for this type of munitions?

a)

150 meters

b)

50 meters.

c)

305 meters

d)

80 meters.

29.

Organization of aviation units in support of the troop will be designed, tailored, and configured for specific operational support based on mission guidance and the__________________ in which the units operate.

a)

Specific AO

b)

Enemy

c)

MCOO

d)

ROE

30.

The ______________ is a point in space within the supported unit’s AO that is oriented toward the enemy; it allows the attack team to receive requests for immediate attack aviation and expedite the attack.

a)

FOB

b)

FARP

c)

ROM

d)

Holding area

31.

__________ is a form of maneuver that the reconnaissance platoon uses to penetrate the threat security zone or main battle area to accomplish its mission.

a)

infiltration

b)

exfiltration

c)

link up

d)

relief in place

32.

The primary focus of infiltration is to

a)

move to a designated point to be detected or engaged by the threat.

b)

move to a designated point without being

detected or engaged by the threat.

33.

________ _______ infiltration is the preferred method of infiltration for mounted and dismounted infiltration.

a)

Single Lane

b)

Turning Lane

c)

Multiple Lane

34.

While infiltrating, fighting through enemy contact is the _______ preferred COA.

a)

least

b)

most

35.

____________ is the removal of personnel or units from areas under enemy control.

a)

Infiltration

b)

Exfiltration

c)

Exfoliation

36.

Extraction by ____ or _____ is preferred when resources are available and their use does not compromise the mission. These methods are used when long distances are covered, time of return is essential, extraction zone lacks adequate cover and concealment, the enemy does not have air or naval superiority, or ground extraction is obstructed by complex terrain or heavily populated hostile areas.

a)

land, water

b)

air, land

c)

air, water

37.

_______ extraction is preferred when areas along the route are largely uninhabited, and enemy forces are widely dispersed or under such pressure that they cannot

conduct counter reconnaissance and security tasks

a)

air

b)

ground

c)

water

d)

space

38.

Whether the section remains undetected or is identified by threat forces, it must first do what?

a)

Take actions to protect itself.

b)

Execute a form of contact

c)

Report the situation

d)

Fire on the threat

39.

You must be prepared to execute actions on contact under which of the following forms of contact?

a)

Visual contact.

b)

Contact with a known or inferior force.

c)

Contact with an equal force.

d)

Auditory contact.

40.

To properly execute actions on contact, the section must take action consistent with what? Pick the correct example

a)

Slowly and accurately.

b)

Rapidly and accurately

c)

Quickly and report when the mission is over

d)

Gradually and report accurately

41.

When direct fire contact occurs, the scout section employs indirect and direct fires to suppress or fix the threat while maneuvering to get _______________.

a)

Information

b)

SUAS assets

c)

a. Direct fire support.

d)

a. Direct contact with the threat.

42.

What are actions on contact?

a)

a series of combat actions, often conducted nearly simultaneously, taken on contact with the enemy to develop the situation

b)

a series of combat actions, never conducted simultaneously, taken on contact with the enemy to develop the situation

c)

a series of combat actions often conducted nearly simultaneously taken on expected contact with the enemy to develop the situation

d)

a series of combat actions taken on contact with the enemy to displace to the rear

43.

The five steps of Actions on Contact are Deploy and report,________________, choose a COA, executes a COA and recommend a COA to the higher commander.

a)

Send a Contact report.

b)

Shoot first and ask questions later

c)

Evaluate the situation and choose a new COA

d)

Evaluate and develop the situation.

44.

What are the 6 warfighting functions? Check all that apply

a)

mission command

b)

movement and maneuver

c)

intelligence

d)

fires

e)

rehearsals

45.

A(n) __________ _________is an area where types of terrain features or regions expose troops to enemy fire.

(a)  

46.

Name the formation

a)

Vee

b)

Column

c)

Line

d)

Staggered Column

47.

The platoon maintains relative positioning based on terrain and combat losses. Name this formation.

a)

Line

b)

Vee

c)

Column

d)

Staggered column

48.

When speed is essential as it moves on a designated route, the platoon uses one of two formation.Which is shown?

a)

Column

b)

Staggered Column

c)

Line

d)

Vee

49.

Shown is one of the formations used when speed is essential as the platoon moves on a designated route. Which formation is shown?

a)

column

b)

staggered column

c)

vee

d)

line

50.

The platoon _____ is used to provide all-around security during halts

a)

herringbone

b)

wedge

c)

coil

d)

vee

51.

The _____ provides 360-degree security during a temporary halt from a march column, and scouts should dismount to provide greater security.

a)

coil

b)

herringbone

c)

wedge

d)

vee

52.

Non-reconnaissance maneuver platoons primarily use the _______ formation.

a)

coil

b)

herringbone

c)

wedge

d)

column

53.

_______ movement technique is usually employed in secured areas when speed is important and enemy contact is not likely.

a)

traveling

b)

traveling overwatch

c)

bounding overwatch

54.

When contact is possible but speed is desirable, _______ ______ is employed.

a)

traveling

b)

Bounding overwatch

c)

traveling overwatch

55.

Employed when enemy contact is expected, ______ ______ is the most deliberate and secure movement technique, with one element always stationary to provide overwatch.

a)

traveling overwatch

b)

bounding overwatch

c)

traveling underwatch

56.

In this method, the trail element advances past the lead

element to the next overwatch position.

a)

Successive Bounds

b)

Alternate Bounds

57.

In successive bounding, the trail element moves to an

overwatch position that is approximately abreast of the lead element.

a)

Alternate bounds

b)

Successive bounds

58.

What is one of the desired end state of step 1 of the IPB process?

a)

Participates in selection of HVT, HPT, TAI and DPs

b)

Provides input to intelligence staff on the threat

c)

Reviews friendly mission statements

d)

Determination of the AO and area of interest

59.

What is the desired end state of step 4 of the IPB process?

a)

Development of graphic overlays and narratives.

b)

Develop a MCOO

c)

Develop Friendly COAs

d)

Identify Irregular forces COAs

60.

What does the acronym “HVT” mean?

a)

High Villain Target

b)

High Value Target

c)

Highest Values Target

d)

High Variable Target

61.

During which step of the IPB process is a weather analysis conducted?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

62.

What is the desired end state of step 1 of the IPB process?

a)

Identifying Air Avenues of Approach

b)

Develop a situation template.

c)

Updating the intelligence estimate

d)

Determination of the AO and area of interest.

63.

What is used to describe the abilities and fighting quality of a unit?

a)

Capabilities and Limitations

b)

Historical Data

c)

Combat Effectiveness

d)

Current Operations

64.

Any natural or man-made obstruction designed or employed to disrupt, fix, turn, or block the movement of an opposing force.

a)

Obstacle

b)

Axis

c)

Avenue of Approach

d)

Passage Lane