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Peds Review for Final Exam

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the mechanism of action for B-adrenergic agonist in treating asthma?

a)

Constrict blood vessels

b)

Accelerate the heart rate

c)

Strengthen muscle contractions

d)

Relax smooth muscles

2.

Primary care providers should periodically assess for what, when caring for children with asthma on corticosteroids?

a)

Leucopenia

b)

Delays in growth

c)

Anemia

d)

Mental retardation

3.

Ph 7.50 C02 39.0 Bicarb 29.4

a)

Compensated respiratory alkalosis

b)

Compensated metabolic alkalosis

c)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

d)

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis

4.

Acute rheumatic fever involves all of the following except:

a)

Skin

b)

Liver

c)

Joints

d)

Cardiac valves

5.

Kawasaki Disease's treatment involves which two medications:

a)

IVIG and steroids

b)

HBIG and Hepatitis B vaccination

c)

IVIG and Aspirin

d)

Antibiotics and NSAIDS

6.

Below are a list of signs of digoxin toxicity in children, except:

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Vomiting

c)

Fever

d)

Dysrhythmias

7.

Infants are rarely receive more than how many mls in a single digoxin dose?

a)

1 ml

b)

2 ml

c)

5 ml

d)

10 ml

8.

For an infant what is the cut off point where you should hold their digoxin dose?

a)

If apical is below 90

b)

If apical is below 70

c)

If apical is below 60

d)

If apical is below 50

9.

For a child with hypercyanotic spells, you should do all of the following except:

a)

Administer O2 at 10 liters per mask

b)

Place infant in knee chest position

c)

Give SQ or IV Morphine

d)

Begin IV fluids

10.

The classic form of Tetralogy of Fallot includes what four defects:

a)

Coarctation of the Aorta, VSD, ASD, PS

b)

VSD, PS, Over-riding Aorta, Right ventricular hypertrophy

c)

Transportation of the Great Vessels, ASD, VSD, Left ventricular hypertrophy

d)

VSD, ASD, PE, Right ventricular hypertrophy

11.

Which condition has low platelets, RBCs and WBCs?

a)

Thalassemia Major

b)

Cooley's Anemia

c)

ITP

d)

Aplastic anemia

12.

If both parents are carriers of the Sickle Cell trait, what are the chances of their children neither having the disorder or the trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

13.

Children with Beta-thalassemia are treated with packed RBCs and what?

a)

Opiods

b)

Deferoxamine

c)

Antilymphocyte globulin

d)

Factor VIII

14.

Clinical manifestations of Immune thrombocytopenia include all of the following except which answer:

a)

Seizures

b)

Petechiae

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Hematuria

15.

Which of these is poor source of iron?

a)

Beef

b)

Infant formula

c)

Infant Rice Cereal

d)

Whole Milk

16.

What is the formula for calculating the ANC?

a)

ANC= RBCs x ( Neutrophils + Bands)

b)

ANC= WBCs x ( Monos + Bands)

c)

ANC= WBCs x (Neutophils + Bands)

d)

ANC= RBCS x ( Eosinophils + Bands)

17.

All of these are acceptable treatments for oral mucusitis except:

a)

Saline rinses

b)

Baking soda

c)

Lemon glycerine swabs

d)

Soft tooth brushes

18.

Because this tumor is usually encapsulated, they do not recommend palpating the child's abdomen, what is the disease called?

a)

Wilms Tumor or Nephroblastoma

b)

Neuroblastoma

c)

Astrocytoma

d)

Ewing Sarcoma

19.

Post operative care for a brain tumor include all except:

a)

Have the child rest on the non-operative side

b)

Elevate the HOB 20-30%

c)

Administer Mannitol

d)

Place in trendelburg position

20.

This type of Lymphoma is characterized by painless enlargement of a lymph node in the supraclavicular or cervical region and the presence of the Sternberg-Reed cell.

a)

NHL

b)

HD

c)

VSD

d)

NFL

21.

This tumor originates from embryonic neural crest cells that normally give rise to the adrenal medulla and the sympathetic nervous system.

a)

Wilm's Tumor

b)

Retinoblastoma

c)

Rhabdomyosarcoma

d)

Neuroblastoma

22.

Cushing's triad includes all but the following:

a)

Elevated Systolic BP

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Decreased respirations

d)

Bradycardia

23.

What is a possible complication of minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

a)

Weight loss

b)

Infection

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Hyperactivity

24.

Select the lab findings that are consistent with acute glomerulonephritis?

a)

Elevated hemoglobin

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Leucopenia

d)

Hematuria

25.

Select from the following signs of an UTI in an infant.

a)

Weight gain

b)

Poor feeding

c)

Over-hydration

d)

Foul smelling urine

e)

Seizures

26.

All are factors in predisposing the development of an UTI except:

a)

Short female urethra

b)

Adequate fluid intake

c)

Constipation

d)

Incomplete emptying or over distention of the bladder

27.

The classic triad of findings consistent with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome:

a)

Renal Failure

b)

Leukocytosis

c)

Anemia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

e)

Hypokalemia

28.

Loss of energy, pallor, facial edema, uremic breath, hypertension, and intractable itching are all signs and symptoms of

(a)  

29.

These seizures have a local onset and involve a relatively small location of the brain.

a)

Partial Seizures

b)

General Seizures

30.

These seizures involve both hemispheres of the brain.

a)

Partial Seizures

b)

General Seizures

31.

Remaining in a deep sleep, responsive to vigorous and repeated stimulation:

a)

Persistent vegetative state

b)

Coma

c)

Stupor

d)

Obtundation

32.

What are the late signs of increased Intracranial Pressure in an infant or child?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Posturing

c)

Papilledema

d)

Increased consciousness

e)

Decreased consciousness

33.

Hemorrhage into the space between the dura and the skull, bleeding is arterial, brain compression occurs rapidly.

a)

Epidural hemorrhage

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage

34.

Bleeding between the dura and the arachnoid membrane, rupture of veins, develops more slowly.

a)

Epidural Hemorrhage

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage

35.

Bacterial cerebrospinal fluid findings:

a)

Elevated white blood cells

b)

Normal protein content

c)

Decrease glucose content

d)

Negative gram stain

e)

Cloudy consistency

36.

Two common events that are present prior to the development of Reye's syndrome.

a)

Viral infection

b)

Bacterial infection

c)

History of Aspirin administration

d)

History of Tylenol administration

37.

Medical treatment for Diabetes Insipidus:

a)

Aldactone

b)

Vasopressin

c)

Growth Hormone

d)

Insulin

38.

The symptoms of pheochromocytoma include:

a)

Hypotension

b)

Tachycardia

c)

Headache

d)

Decreased GI activity

e)

Weight gain

39.

Adrenal cortex secretes:

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Mineralocorticoids

e)

Sex steroids ( Androgens, estrogens, & progestins)

40.

Adrenal medulla secretes:

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Mineralocorticoids

e)

Sex steroids

41.

Priority treatment for a child with DKA

a)

IV fluids

b)

IV insulin

42.

The following are associated with Grave's Disease:

a)

Hypothyroidism

b)

Hyperthyroidism

c)

Restlessness

d)

Sleepy

e)

Fine hair, warm moist skin

43.

Addison's Disease is defined as:

a)

Adrenocortical insufficiency

b)

Hyperparathyroidism

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Hypoparathyroidism

e)

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

44.

Charateristics of DM1

a)

Adrupt onet

b)

Gradual onset

c)

Underweight

d)

Overweight

e)

Requires insulin always

45.

The six "P's" of compartment syndrome include:

a)

Pain

b)

Paresthesia

c)

Pink color of extremity

d)

Pressure

e)

Strong pulse

46.

A self-limiting disorder with avascular necrosis of the femoral head defines:

a)

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

b)

Talipes Equinovarus

c)

Legg Calve- Perthes Disease

d)

Idiopathic Scoliosis

47.

Pharmacological management of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis includes:

a)

Anti-rheumatic drugs

b)

NSAIDS

c)

Steriods

d)

Immunomodulators (Abatacept)

e)

Antibiotics

48.

Fragments of bone are broken and lie in the surrounding tissue, refers to what type of fracture?

a)

Simple

b)

Compound

c)

Greenstick

d)

Comminuted

49.

The recommended age to screen for scoliosis is:

a)

Girls 8 to 10

b)

Girls 10 to 12

c)

Boys 10 to 12

d)

Boys 13 or 14

50.

Newborns' osteomyelitis is most likely caused by:

a)

Salmonella

b)

Staphylococcus Aureus

c)

Group B Streptococcus

d)

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

51.

A rare genetic disorder that is characterized by bones that fracture easily:

a)

Metatarsus Adductus

b)

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

c)

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

d)

Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

52.

Which disorder is characterized by progressive ascending flaccid paralysis and most patients regain full muscle strength?

a)

Tetanus

b)

Cerebral Palsy

c)

Duchene's Muscular Dystrophy

d)

Guillain- Barre Syndrome

53.

The following are symptoms of infant botulism:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Constipation

c)

Weak cry

d)

Poor feeding

54.

Which are associated anomalies for Myelomeningocele:

a)

DDH

b)

Esophageal atresia

c)

Hydrocephalus

d)

Clubfoot

55.

Contains meninges, spinal fluid and nerve fibers:

a)

Meningocele

b)

Myelomeningocele

56.

Which of the following are signs of DMD?

a)

Waddling gait

b)

Frequent falls

c)

Increasing muscle strength in the upper arms

d)

Lordosis

e)

Gower Sign

57.

A non-obstructive or communicating impairment that causes hydrocephalus is caused by:

a)

Obstruction of the flow of CSF

b)

Impaired absorption of the CSF

58.

An obstructive or non-communicating impairment that causes hydrocephalus is caused by:

a)

An obstruction or the flow of CSF

b)

Impaired absorption of CSF

59.

Treatment for Tetanus includes allof the following:

a)

IV Tetanus Immunoglobulin

b)

IM Tetanus Immunoglobulin

c)

Tetanus Toxoid

d)

Diazepam

60.

Treatment for Legg-Calves Perthes involves which of the following:

a)

NSAIDS

b)

Rest and limited weight bearing

c)

Adduction braces

d)

Abduction braces

e)

Opiods