WorksheetsPharma quiz interns
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Essential drugs’ are<br />
a)
Life saving drugs
b)
Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of<br />the population
c)
Drugs that must be present in the emergency<br />bag of a doctor
d)
Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoia of a<br />country
2.
Drug administered through the following route is most<br />likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism
a)
Oral
b)
Sublingual<br /><br />
c)
Subcutaneous
d)
Rectal
3.
Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following<br />advantages except
a)
They produce high peak plasma concentration<br />of the drug
b)
They produce smooth and nonfluctuating<br />plasma concentration of the drug
c)
They minimise interindividual variations in<br />the achieved plasma drug concentration
d)
They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug
4.
Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of
a)
Weakly basic drugs
b)
Weakly acidic drugs
c)
Strong electrolyte
d)
Nonpolar drugs
5.
Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by:
a)
Passive diffusion
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Active transport
d)
Pinocytosis
6.
Diffusion of drugs across cell membrane
a)
Is dependent upon metabolic activity of the cell
b)
Is competitively inhibited by chemically related drugs
c)
Is affected by extent of ionization of drug molecules
d)
Exhibits saturation kinetics
7.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach
a)
Morphine sulfate
b)
Diclofenac sodium
c)
Hyoscine hydrobromide
d)
Quinine dihydrochloride
8.
Active transport of a substance across biological membranes has the following characteristics except
a)
It is specific
b)
It is pH dependent
c)
It is saturable
d)
It requires metabolic energy
9.
Bioavailability of drug refers to
a)
Percentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form
b)
Ratio of oral to parenteral dose
c)
Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces
d)
Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites
10.
The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is
a)
Molecular weight of the drug
b)
Site of application
c)
Lipid solubility of the drug
d)
Nature of the base used in the formulation
11.
Marked redistribution is a feature of
a)
Highly lipid soluble drugs
b)
Poorly lipid soluble drugs
c)
Depot Highly plasma protein bound drugs
d)
Highly plasma protein bound drugs
12.
Weakly acidic drugs
a)
Are bound primarily to α1 acid glycoprotein in plasma
b)
Are excreted faster in alkaline urine
c)
Are highly ionized in the gastric juice
d)
Do not cross blood-brain barrier
13.
High plasma protein binding
a)
Increases volume of distribution of the drug
b)
Facilitates glomerular filtration of the drug
c)
Minimises drug interactions
d)
Generally makes the drug long acting
14.
Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to
a)
Activate the drug
b)
Inactivate the drug
c)
Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites
d)
Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites
15.
Which of the following is a prodrug
a)
Hydralazine
b)
Clonidine
c)
Captopril
d)
Enalapril
16.
A prodrug is
a)
The prototype member of a class of drugs
b)
The oldest member of a class of drugs
c)
An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite
d)
A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation
17.
The most commonly occurring conjugation reaction for drugs and their metabolites is
a)
Glucuronidation
b)
Acetylation
c)
Methylation
d)
Glutathione conjugation
18.
Which of the following types of drug metabolizing enzymes are inducible
a)
Microsomal enzymes
b)
Nonmicrosomal enzymes
c)
Both microsomal and nonmicrosomal enzymes
d)
Mitochondrial enzymes
19.
Select the drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver
a)
Phenobarbitone
b)
Propranolol
c)
Phenylbutazone
d)
Theophylline
20.
Drugs which undergo high degree of first-pass metabolism in liver
a)
Have low oral bioavailability
b)
Are excreted primarily in bile
c)
Are contraindicated in liver disease
d)
Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination
21.
Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its
a)
Lipid solubility
b)
Plasma protein binding
c)
Degree of ionization
d)
Rate of tubular secretion
22.
The plasma half life of penicillin-G is longer in the new born because their
a)
Plasma protein level is low
b)
Drug metabolizing enzymes are immature
c)
Glomerular filtration rate is low
d)
Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
23.
The loading dose of a drug is governed by its
a)
Renal clearance
b)
Plasma half life
c)
Volume of distribution
d)
Elimination rate constant
24.
Monitoring of blood levels of diuretic drugs is not practised because
a)
No sensitive methods for measuring blood levels of diuretics are available
b)
It is easier to measure the effect of these drugs
c)
Response to diuretics is not related to their blood levels
d)
Diuretics need activation in the body
25.
Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using
a)
Antihypertensive drugs
b)
Levodopa
c)
Lithium carbonat
d)
MAO inhibitors
26.
Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of
a)
Continuous use of agonists
b)
Continuous use of antagonists
c)
Chronic use of CNS depressants
d)
Denervation
27.
When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit
a)
Ceiling effect
b)
Desensitization
c)
Therapeutic window phenomenon
d)
Nonreceptor mediated action
28.
Which of the following drugs exhibits ‘therapeutic window’ phenomenon
a)
Captopril
b)
Furosemide
c)
Diazepam
d)
Imipramine
29.
The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its
a)
Safety
b)
Potency
c)
Efficacy
d)
Dose variability
30.
If the effect of combination of two drugs is equal to the sum of their individual effects, the two drugs are exhibiting:
a)
Potentiation
b)
Synergism
c)
Cross tolerance
d)
Antagonism
31.
Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily appropriate for
a)
Drugs administered in standard doses
b)
Drugs acting by the same mechanism
c)
Antitubercular drugs
d)
Antihypertensive drugs
32.
Edrophonium is more suitable for differentiating myasthenic crisis from cholinergic crisis because of its
a)
Shorter duration of action
b)
Longer duration of action
c)
Direct action on muscle end-plate
d)
Selective inhibition of true cholinesterase
33.
Which of the following is a relatively cerebroselective anticholinesterase found to afford symptomatic improvement in Alzheimer's disease
a)
Donepezil
b)
Gemfibrozil
c)
Pyridostigmine
d)
Pyritinol
34.
Currently, the first choice drug for open angle glaucoma is
a)
Miotic eye drops
b)
Ocular α2 adrenergic agonists
c)
Ocular prostaglandin analogues
d)
Ocular β adrenergic blockers
35.
The following is an α 2 adrenergic agonist used as eyedrops to lower intraocular pressure
a)
Brinzolamide
b)
Bambuterol
c)
Brimonidine
d)
Latanoprost
36.
Which of the following is a prodrug of adrenaline used topically in glaucoma
a)
Brimonidine
b)
Dipivefrine
c)
Phenylpropanolamine
d)
Dorzolamide
37.
Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to a specific genetic abnormality
a)
Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions
b)
Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia
c)
Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia
d)
Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
38.
Choose the action for which the dose of aspirin required is the lowest
a)
Analgesic
b)
Antipyretic
c)
Antiinflammatory
d)
Antiplatelet aggregatory
39.
In the treatment of chronic inflammatory diseases, the most important limitation of aspirin is
a)
Acid-base and electrolyte disturbances
b)
Hypersensitivity and idiosyncratic reactions
c)
Gastric mucosal damage
d)
Salicylism
40.
Aspirin is contraindicated in children suffering from influenza or similar viral infection because of increased risk of
a)
Gastric bleeding
b)
Thrombocytopenia
c)
Fancony syndrome
d)
Reye’s syndrome
41.
The constellation of adverse effects associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs include the following except
a)
Sedation
b)
Gastric irritation
c)
Fluid retention
d)
Rashes
42.
Choose the correct statement about paracetamol
a)
It increases uric acid excretion
b)
It is the most common drug implicated in causing analgesic nephropathy
c)
In equianalgesic doses it is safer than aspirin
d)
It stimulates cellular metabolism
43.
N-acetyl cysteine is beneficial in acute paracetamol poisoning because
a)
It reacts with paracetamol to form a nontoxic complex
b)
It inhibits generation of the toxic metabolite of paracetamol
c)
It is a free radical scavenger
d)
It replenishes hepatic glutathione which in turn binds the toxic metabolite of paracetamol
44.
The following antiinflammatory analgesic has been cleared for pediatric use
a)
Indomethacin<br />
b)
Ibuprofen
c)
Ketorolac
d)
Piroxicam
45.
Superinfections are more common with
a)
Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics
b)
Short courses of antibiotics
c)
Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from the small intestines
d)
Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
46.
Select the antibiotic whose dose must be reduced in patients with renal insufficiency
a)
Ampicillin <br />
b)
Chloramphenicol
c)
Tobramycin
d)
Erythromycin
47.
Which of the following drugs is given in acute attack of malignant hyperthermia?
a)
Atropine
b)
Adrenaline
c)
Diazepam
d)
Dantrolene
48.
Currently the drug of choice for emperic treatment of typhoid fever is
a)
Chloramphenicol
b)
Cotrimoxazole
c)
Ciprofloxacin
d)
Ampicillin
49.
The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is
a)
Nausea and vomiting
b)
Loose motions
c)
Constipation
d)
Urticaria
50.
The following antibiotic(s) exert(s) a long postantibiotic effect
a)
Fluoroquinolones
b)
β-lactam
c)
Aminoglycosides
d)
All of the above
100 %
