Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Final Exam 1301s

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse knows that which of the following substances has a significant drug interaction with antitubercular drugs?

a)

Pyridoxine

b)

Nicotine

c)

Antacids

d)

Laxatives

2.

When monitoring patients on antitubercular drug therapy, the nurse knows that which drug may cause a decrease in visual acuity resulting from optic neuritis?

a)

Rifampin

b)

Isoniazid

c)

Ethambutol

d)

Streptomycin

e)

Sulfamethoxazole

3.

A patient who has been taking isoniazid has a new prescription for pyridoxine. She is wondering why she needs this medication. The nurse explains that pyridoxine is given concurrently with the isoniazid to prevent:

a)

Hair loss.

b)

Renal failure.

c)

Neurologic adverse effects.

d)

Heart failure.

4.

A young adult calls the clinic to ask for a prescription for “that new flu drug.” He says he has had the flu for almost 4 days and just heard about a drug that can reduce the symptoms. Which statement about these drugs, oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza), is true?

a)

They stop the spread of influenza.

b)

There are few adverse effects from these drugs.

c)

Treatment with these drugs should begin within 2 days of influenza symptom onset.

d)

As long as he starts treatment within the next 24 hours, the drug should be effective.

5.

During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Urticaria

c)

Drowsiness

d)

Decreased libido

6.

A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems. One of the benefits of orally administered decongestants is that:

a)

Onset is immediate.

b)

The effect is more potent.

c)

Rebound congestion is almost nonexistent.

d)

The adverse effects of restlessness and nervousness are reduced.

7.

Which drug would be chosen to aid in the removal of excessive mucus in the respiratory tract?

a)

Guaifenesin

b)

Benzonatate

c)

Codeine

d)

Dextromethorphan

8.

When teaching a patient who will be receiving antihistamines, the nurse should instruct the patient on which of the following? Select all that apply.

a)

Antihistamines are generally safe to take with over-the- counter medications.

b)

Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption of the drug.

c)

Take the medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal distress.

d)

Fluids should be encouraged if tolerated.

e)

Avoid activities that require alertness until the patient knows how he tolerates the adverse effects.

9.

A patient is taking intravenous aminophylline for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for a therapeutic response to the medication?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Increased heart rate

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Increased ease of breathing

10.

When educating the patient recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids regarding common adverse effects, the nurse should discuss:

a)

Fatigue and depression.

b)

Anxiety and peripheral vasoconstriction.

c)

Headache and rapid heart rate.

d)

Oral candidiasis and dry mouth.

11.

When reviewing the allergy history of a patient, the nurse notes that the patient is allergic to penicillin. Patients who are allergic to penicillin may also be hypersensitive to which class of antibiotics?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Sulfonamides

c)

Cephalosporins

d)

Aminoglycosides

12.

When teaching the patient who will be taking tetracycline, which of the following instructions should the nurse share?

a)

“Avoid direct sunlight and tanning beds while on this medication.”

b)

“Milk and cheese products result in increased levels of tetracycline.”

c)

“Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress.”

d)

“Take the medication until you are feeling better.”

13.

During antibiotic therapy, a significant drug interaction may occur with which of the following drug groups?

a)

Anticoagulants

b)

Estrogen-containing contraceptives

c)

Antihypertensives

d)

Antihistamines

14.

When a patient is on aminoglycoside therapy, what symptoms or laboratory results could indicate a potentially serious toxicity?

a)

Fever

b)

WBC 7,000 mm3

c)

Tinnitus and hearing loss

d)

Decreased creatinine levels

15.

Which drug is an H2 receptor blocker used as an antacid?

a)

metoclopramide (Reglan)

b)

famotidine (Pepcid)

c)

fenbendazole (Panacur)

d)

metronidazole (Flagyl)

16.

Which drug is an proton pump inhibitor as an antacid to treat gastric ulcers?

a)

maropitant (Cereniz)

b)

omeprazole (Prilosec)

c)

fenbendazole (Panacur)

d)

metronidazole (Flagyl)

17.

A client presents to the emergency department, reporting that he has been vomiting every 30 to 40 minutes for the past 8 hours. Frequent vomiting puts this client at risk for which imbalances?

a)

Metabolic acidosis and hypokalemia

b)

Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia

c)

Metabolic alkalosis and hyperkalemia

d)

Metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia

18.
What is the main role of Progesterone?
a)
Completes development of uterus wall, promotes glycogen storage
b)
Stimulates follicle to burst and release the ovum
c)
Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus wall
d)
Stimulates one egg cell to develop (become follicle)
19.

Which of these is a protective prostaglandin that prevents gastric ulceration?

a)

famotidine

b)

metronidazole

c)

carafate

d)

misoprostol

20.

A client reports a hacking cough. The client asks if taking an antihistamine would be helpful. The nurse's best response is:

a)

Antihistamines are not recommended because they can dry lower respiratory secretions and worsen secretion retention and cough.

b)

Antihistamines are not recommended for this issue; only antibiotics are useful.

c)

Antihistamines are recommended for extended use, as long as you monitor for adverse effects.

d)

Antihistamines are not used for this issue.

21.

A patient is receiving a topical nasal decongestant. The nurse instructs the patient to stop using the drug after which length of time?

a)

5 days

b)

2 days

c)

7 days

d)

10 days

22.

Which of the following is therapeutic theophylline levels

a)

10-20

b)

20-30

c)

30-40

d)

5-10

23.
Dry mouth that comes with being nervous is related to _____ stimulation
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
24.
_____ stimulation increases heart rate
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
25.
If you are anxious about taking an exam, the ___ division of the ANS would be more active.
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
26.
If you just ate a big meal the ____ division would aid in digesting the food.
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
27.
Increased motility of the stomach would be a result of ___ stimulation.
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
28.

What immunizations are part of the MMR?

a)

meningitis, mumps, rubella

b)

measles, meningitis, rotavirus

c)

measles, mumps, rubella

29.

Which of the following immunizations can be given to a new born?

a)

MMR

b)

DTaP

c)

Heb B

d)

Polio

30.

What is the medication of choice for any type of bradycardia?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Atropine

d)

Amiodarone

31.

Identify the following rhythm.

a)

SVT

b)

Junctional Tachycardia

c)

V-Tach

d)

Atrial Tachycardia

32.

What is concerning about Atrial Fibrillation?

a)

The lack of P waves.

b)

The fibrillation of the atria makes the person more prone to clots.

c)

The heart will soon go into asystole.

d)

Atrial Fibrillation is a very common rhythm. There is no need to be concerned.

33.

Which drug is used during SVT?

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Adenosine

c)

Atropine

d)

Amitriptyline

34.

After a blood glucose reading, it is determined that the patient should receive 4 units of Lispro and 8 units of NPH. Which action will the nurse take to administer these medications?

a)

Draw up each insulin in separate syringes and administer two injections.

b)

Draw up the NPH first and then the Lispro using the same syringe.

c)

Administer the Lispro before the meal and the NPH after the meal.

d)

Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.

35.

The patient asks the nurse how sulfonylureas normalize glucose levels. Which response by the nurse is correct?

a)

By stimulating pancreatic secretion of insulin

b)

By inhibiting secretion of insulin by the pancreas

c)

By increasing glucose production in the liver

d)

By increasing insulin metabolism in the liver