wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CLINICAL PARASITOLOGY 2

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which parasite is the causative agent of Cutaneous Leishmaniasis?

a)

L. tropica

b)

L. donovani

c)

L. braziliensis

d)

AOT possible choices

e)

NOTC

2.

During microscopic inspection of a blood film, identification and diagnosis of Babesia spp. is relies on:

a)

Parasite seen with ingested RBCs

b)

Appearance of the parasite inside the RBCs

c)

Size of the RBCs infected by the parasite

d)

AOT possible choices

e)

NOTC

3.

Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by finding:

a)

Eggs in perianal specimens

b)

Larvae in perianal specimens

c)

Larvae in feces

d)

Eggs in the feces

e)

AOTC

4.

Cysts are the infective stage of this intestinal flagellate.

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Dientamoebafragilis

c)

Entamoeba coli

d)

Giardia lamblia

5.

Dormant or secondary schizogony may occur in these types of malarial species due to the presence of hypnozoites in the liver.


I. P. malariae

II. P. vivax

III. P. ovale

IV. P. falciparum

a)

I only

b)

II and III

c)

I, II, and IV

d)

I and IV

e)

IV only

6.

Species identification of an immature amebic cyst can be very difficult. The presence of a large glycogen mass is sometimes seen in:

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Endolimax nana

c)

Entamoeba coli

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

7.

Surgery is the treatment of choice for Cystic Echinococcosis.

Albendazole or Mebendazole may be used for pre/post-surgical chemotherapy of Echinoccocosis.

a)

Only statement 1 is false

b)

Only statement 2 is false

c)

Both statements are true

d)

Both statements are false

8.

Which of the following findings in a peripheral blood smear is especially associated with tissue-invading helminthes but may also be found in a variety of allergic conditions and other diseases?

a)

Eosinophilia

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Lymphocytosis

d)

Neutropenia

e)

NOTC

9.

A 48-year-old man from Texas developed fever and weakness 16 days after a hunting trip in northwest Tanzania. Several days after the onset of fever, he noticed a raised, tender, erythematous nodule (6-8 cm in diameter) on the posterior aspect of his right arm. He was hospitalized in Africa and treated for 5 days with a cephalosporin for presumed cellulitis. After little improvement, he returned to Texas. On arrival, the patient had a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), a morbilliform rash of the trunk, and rightsided, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Cerebrospinal fluid contained 12 red cells and 18 mononuclear cells/uL and a normal protein level (32 mg/dL). Laboratory tests of peripheral blood revealed a hemoglobin level of 107 g/L, a white cell count of 2.4 X 109/L, and a platelet count of 75 X 109/L. The diagnosis was made by finding the extracellular flagellate parasite in a peripheral blood smear. Which of the following is the most probable etiologic agent of this infection?

a)

Leishmania donovani

b)

Trypanosoma brucei

c)

Trypanosoma cruzi

d)

Toxoplasma gondii

10.

In the case with Trypanosoma brucei, which of the following symptoms would be referred as “Winterbottom sign”?

a)

Morbiliform rash

b)

Erythematous nodule

c)

Cervical Lymphadenopathy

d)

Cerebral pleocytosis

e)

AOTC

11.

Which of the following would fit the characteristics of an Ophistorchis viverrini ovum?


I. Comma-shaped appendages at the abopercular end

II. Non-operculated

III. Opercular shoulders

a)

I and II only

b)

II and III only

c)

I and III only

d)

AOT possible

e)

NOTC

12.

A 22-year-old male presents to his family physician complaining of fatigue, muscle pain, periorbital edema, and fever. He denies travel outside the U.S. The physician suspects infectious mononucleosis; however, serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis are negative. The complete blood count revealed a slightly elevated white blood count, and there were 10% eosinophils on the differential. Which of the following should be considered part of the differential diagnosis?

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Taenia solium

c)

Trichinella spiralis

d)

Trypanosoma cruzi

e)

NOTC

13.

In the case with Trichinella spiralis how is the parasite transmitted?

a)

Ingestion infected undercooked pork

b)

Ingestion of fecal contaminated meat

c)

Insect bite

d)

Transmitted from person to person

e)

NOTC

14.

Which of the following anti-parasitic drugs can be used as treatment for Fascioliasis?


I. Albendazole

II. Mebendazole

III. Quinidine

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

III only

d)

All of the possible choices

e)

None of the choices

15.

A 55-year-old female presents to her physician complaining of a fever that "comes and goes" and fatigue. A complete blood count reveals decreased red blood cell count and hemoglobin. History reveals the patient recently traveled through Europe and Africa. You should suspect _.

a)

Cutaneous larval migrans

b)

Filariasis

c)

Malaria

d)

Trichinosis

e)

NOTC

16.

Trypanosomiasis can be diagnosed using parasite-free Reduviid Bug by letting them feed on a patient suspected of Chagas disease. This process is called _.

a)

Serodiagnosis

b)

Entodiagnosis

c)

Pseudodiagnosis

d)

Xenodiagnosis

e)

None of the choices

17.

Hydatid cysts in humans are due to ingestion of a tapeworm stage normally found in canines. This stage is the _.

a)

Cercaria

b)

Cercocystis

c)

Cysticercus

d)

Embryonated egg

e)

All of the choices

18.

With a fecal specimen, which one of the following is the most dependable procedure for the accurate, specific diagnosis of an intestinal amebic infection?

a)

Direct saline wet mount

b)

Direct iodine wet mount

c)

Permanently stained smear

d)

Formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation technique

e)

All of the above

19.

The disease most commonly associated with Acanthamoeba sp. is

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Keratitis

c)

Liver abscess

d)

Meningoencephalitis

20.

All of the following parasites are not able to cause Amebic Meningoencephalitis, except:


I. E. coli

II. E. gingivalis

III. E. hartmanii

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

AOTC

e)

NOTC

21.

Oocysts, the infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii is found in _.

a)

Cat feces

b)

Human feces

c)

Undercooked pork

d)

Undercooked beef

e)

AOTC

22.

Specimens that are permissible to be stained by Trichrome staining are those fixed only with _.


I. Mercuric chloride

II. 10% Formalin

III. SAF

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

AOTC

23.

Which of the following helminthes produces an elongate, barrel-shaped egg (50 X 22 μm) with a colorless polar plug at each end?

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Necator americanus

d)

Trichuris trichiura

e)

NOTC

24.

Which species of Plasmodium may readily be identified when crescent-shaped gametocytes are found in stained blood films?

a)

P. falciparum

b)

P. malariae

c)

P. ovale

d)

P. vivax

e)

AOTC

25.

Which of the drugs can be used to treat Oxyuriasis?


I. Pyrantel pamoate

II. Praziquantel

III. Albendazole

IV. Bithionol

a)

I only

b)

II and IV

c)

I and III

d)

I, II, and III

e)

AOTC

26.

What free-living amoeba is the causative agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis?

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Naegleria fowleri

c)

Entamoeba hystolytica

d)

Entamoeba coli

e)

NOTC

27.

Eosinophilic stipplings of Plasmodium falciparum are termed as “James dots”.

The macrogametocytes of Plasmodium vivax have a “boat-shaped” appearance.

a)

Only Statement 1 is True

b)

Only Statement 2 is True

c)

Both Statements are True

d)

Both Statements are False

28.

This amebic cyst has an average size of 6-8 um and is usually spherical. When mature, it has four nuclei, but immature cysts with one or two nuclei are often seen. The nuclei have fine uniform granules of peripheral chromatin and small, discrete, usually central karyosomes. Chromatoidal bars with bluntly rounded ends are sometimes present. Name the species.

a)

Endolimax nana

b)

Entamoeba coli

c)

Entamoeba hartmanni

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

e)

NOTC

29.

Which of the following parasites is known for causing “River Blindness”?

a)

O. volvulus

b)

M. ozzardi

c)

W. bancrofti

d)

B. malayi

30.

What is the insect vector for O. volvulus?

a)

Black fly

b)

Mango fly

c)

Deer fly

d)

Anopheles mosquito

e)

NOTC

31.

Sanitary disposal of human feces is the most important factor in decreasing the incidence of most infections caused by intestinal parasites. Which of the following diseases would not be affected by that kind of sanitation?

a)

Ascariasis

b)

Taeniasis

c)

Trichinosis

d)

Hookworm infection

e)

None of the choices

32.

Taenia saginata cysts are called “Cysticercus bovis”.

Taenia saginata are capable of superinfection.

a)

Only Statement 1 is true

b)

Only Statement 1 is false

c)

Both Statements are false

d)

Both Statements are true

33.

33. The rhabditiform larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis _.

a)

Mate and produce ova

b)

Are infective for humans

c)

Are the diagnostic form found in feces

d)

Are found in the blood of infected humans

e)

AOTC

34.

Which of the following terms are other names for Dracunculus medinensis?


I. Thread worm

II. Fiery serpent

III. Guinea worm

IV. Rat lung worm

a)

I only

b)

II and III

c)

I and IV

d)

I, II, and III

35.

Which of the following nematode parasites is acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected pork?

a)

Strongyloides stercoralis

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Trichinella spiralis

e)

AOTC

36.

37. If left untreated, infection of Diphyllobothrium latum will result to what disease?

a)

Neurocysticercosis

b)

Taeniasis

c)

Meningoencephalitis

d)

Pernicious anemia

e)

AOTC

37.

Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection caused by:

a)

Trypanosoma cruzi

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Schistosoma haematobium

e)

AOTC

38.

T. solium has 7-15 lateral uterine branches in each proglottid.

T. saginata has 20-100 lateral uterine branches in each proglottid.

a)

Only Statement 1 is false

b)

Only Statement 2 is false

c)

Both Statements are true

d)

Both Statements are false

39.

Which of the following is the preferred anticoagulant for preparing blood smears for diagnosing malaria?

a)

EDTA

b)

Heparin

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Sodium fluoride

e)

AOTC

40.

Which of the following microfilariae are sheathed at the posterior end?


I. Onchocerca volvulus

II. Mansonella ozzardi

III. Mansonella perstans

IV. Wuchereria bancrofti

a)

I, II, and III

b)

I only

c)

II & III

d)

I & IV

e)

NOTC

41.

Balantidium coli is a non-pathogenic ciliate with a single nucleus.

It is one of the smallest protozoans known to man.

a)

Only statement 1 is correct

b)

Only statement 2 is correct

c)

Both are correct

d)

Neither is correct

42.

Which of the following are terms that can be described as a P. falciparum infection?

a)

Black water fever

b)

Malignant tertian malaria

c)

Subtertian malaria

d)

All of the possible choices

e)

None of the possible choices

43.

Which statement is correct for specimen collection and processing?

a)

Stool samples can contain urine.

b)

Stools can be frozen without affecting parasitic structure.

c)

Liquid stools are best for detecting ameba and flagellate trophozoites.

d)

Unpreserved stools can remain at room temperature for up to 72 hours.

e)

AOTC

44.

Which of the following parasites can be diagnosed using a sputum sample?

I. P. westermani

II. S. stercoralis

III. T. saginata

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

AOTC

e)

NOTC

45.

E. vermicularis infection can be acquired through inhalation of parasite ova.

The gold-standard for diagnosing Enterobiasis is the cellulose tape method.

a)

Only statement 1 is correct

b)

Only statement 2 is correct

c)

Both statements are false

d)

Both statements are correct

46.

Which of the following parasites is the causative agent of West African Sleeping Sickness?

a)

T. cruzi

b)

L. braziliensis

c)

T. brucei rhodisiense

d)

T. brucei gambiense

e)

NOTC

47.

Many parasites have different stages of growth within different hosts. The host where the sexual reproductive stage of the parasites exists is called the

a)

Commensal

b)

Definitive host

c)

Intermediate host

d)

Vector

e)

NOTC

48.

T. vaginalis can be found in the following specimens except _.

a)

Vaginal discharge

b)

Urine

c)

Urethral discharge

d)

All of the possible choices

e)

None of the possible choices

49.

Which of the following is important in differentiating cysts of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar?

a)

Number of nuclei

b)

Size of the cyst

c)

Shape of the karyosome

d)

Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays

e)

AOTC

50.

Which of the following methods/drugs can be used as treatment for Loa loa?


I. Mebendazole

II. Surgical removal

III. Diethylcarbamazine

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

AOTC

e)

NOTC

51.

Lois is a distraught 44-year-old female visiting her primary care physician at 9:00 a.m. She describes looking in the mirror that morning and seeing a worm crawl across her eye and then disappear. On her updated patient history, she notes she had visited the African rainforest the previous year. The physician orders a stool for ova and parasite examination, as well as a complete blood count and differential. The blood is drawn at 11:30 a.m. on the same day as the office visit at a draw site near Lois’ home. The stool parasite examination proves to be negative. The automated blood count shows increased eosinophils and a Giemsa stained blood film is prepared. An evening shift medical laboratory scientist observes a worm-like form on the blood smear that is 275 μm in length. There is a stained sheath and nuclei extend to the tip of the tail.


What is the organism described in this case study?

a)

Loa loa

b)

Acanthamoeba spp.

c)

Hookworm

d)

Wuchereria bancrofti

e)

NOTC

52.

Lois is a distraught 44-year-old female visiting her primary care physician at 9:00 a.m. She describes looking in the mirror that morning and seeing a worm crawl across her eye and then disappear. On her updated patient history, she notes she had visited the African rainforest the previous year. The physician orders a stool for ova and parasite examination, as well as a complete blood count and differential. The blood is drawn at 11:30 a.m. on the same day as the office visit at a draw site near Lois’ home. The stool parasite examination proves to be negative. The automated blood count shows increased eosinophils and a Giemsa stained blood film is prepared. An evening shift medical laboratory scientist observes a worm-like form on the blood smear that is 275 μm in length. There is a stained sheath and nuclei extend to the tip of the tail.


What is the importance of the complete blood count ordered by the physician?

a)

To determine where the parasite is located

b)

To determine the degree of infection

c)

To detect any hemorrhage that might have occured

d)

To determine the state of the patient’s RBCs

e)

AOTC

53.

Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm?

a)

Plasmodium knowlesi

b)

Plasmodium falciparum

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium vivax

e)

None of the choices

54.

Which of the following statements is untrue regarding Endolimax nana?


a)

E. nana is considered as a non-human pathogen, so treatment is unnecessary.

b)

E. nana is prevalent in areas in which poor hygiene and substandard sanitary conditions exist.

c)

E. nana is found primarily in warm and moist regions of the world.

d)

All of the possible choices

e)

None of possible choices

55.

Which of the following is a mercury containing fixative used to preserve parasites in stool specimens?

a)

Buffered glycerol

b)

Sodium acetate

c)

Formalin

d)

Polyvinyl alcohol

56.

The condition “Swimmer’s itch” is known to be caused by which organism?

a)

N. fowleri

b)

Acanthamoeba spp.

c)

S. japonicum

d)

C. philippinensis

57.

A systemic hypersensitivity reaction caused by the presence of Schistosoma is called which of the following?

a)

Swamp fever

b)

Katayama fever

c)

Bilharziasis

d)

Schistosomiasis

58.

Which ova of Schistosoma species has a large terminal spine?

a)

S. haematobium

b)

S.japonicum

c)

S. mansoni

d)

S. mekongi

59.

D. latum is unique from other cestodes because has the only non-operculated ova. D. latum ova are usually mistaken as that of Spirometra ova.

a)

Statement 1 is false

b)

Both statements are correct

c)

Statement 2 is false

d)

Both statements are false

60.

This parasitic infection may result in vitamin B12 deficiency, and individuals with pernicious anemia are predisposed to more severe symptoms.

a)

Diphyllobothrium latum

b)

Echinococcus granidosus

c)

Hymenolepis diminuta

d)

Taenia saginata

61.

Iron Deficiency Anemia is the result of a chronic infection of which parasite?

a)

A. lumbricoides

b)

H. diminuta

c)

N. americanus

d)

E. vermicularis

e)

None of the choices

62.

Which of the following helminths produces an elongate, barrel-shaped egg (50 X 22 |xm) with a colorless polar plug at each end?

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Necator americanus

d)

Trichuris trichiura

e)

None of the choices

63.

Migration of larva through the skin can sometimes produce allergic reactions called larva migrans; this is associated with

a)

Strongyloides stercoralis

b)

Dracunculus medinensis

c)

Onchocerca volvulus

d)

Loa loa

e)

NOTC

64.

For Taenia solium infection, ingestion of cysts from undercooked pork meat will lead to cysticercosis.

Cysticercus cellulosae can cause superinfection in a patient through fecal-oral mode of transmission.

a)

Only statement 1 is correct

b)

Only statement 2 is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are false

65.

This parasite is commonly found on dog and cat intestines. Diagnosis of this parasite is the detection of characteristic ova( thin-shelled, no bipolar filaments, and 6 hooked oncospheres).

a)

Hymenolepis diminuta

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Taenia solium

d)

Dipylidium caninum

66.

An intestinal parasite is seen in an iodine-stained fecal wet mount that is described as being 25 (Jim in diameter with a homogenously stained central body surrounded by a thin ring of cytoplasm containing a number of nuclei. This best describes

a)

Blastocystis hominis

b)

Endolimax nana

c)

Entamoeba dispar

d)

Iodamoeba btitschlii

e)

NOTC

67.

Sparganosis can occur in humans with the ingestion of _ of Spirometra or Diphyllobothrium latum.

a)

Procercoid larva

b)

Plerocercoid larva

c)

Metacercaria

d)

Cercaria

e)

NOTC

68.

Which of the following is the largest intestinal protozoa infecting humans?

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Dientamoeba fragilis

c)

Entamoeba histolytica

d)

Giardia lamblia

e)

Notc

69.

A Giemsa-stained thick blood film showed many ring forms with no older stages, and a number of the rings had double chromatin dots. These findings are characteristic of

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Plasmodium vivax

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium ovale

e)

Notc

70.

What is the insect vector of Mansonella perstans?

a)

Anopheles

b)

Culicoides

c)

Culex

d)

Aedes

e)

Notc

71.

Which of the following forms of Toxoplasma gondii are produced in infected humans?

a)

Bradyzoites

b)

Macrogametes

c)

Sporoblasts

d)

Oocysts

e)

Notc

72.

“Old man’s Face/Old man’s Glass” is the characteristic appearance of a trophozoite of which parasite?


I. Giardia intestinalis

II. Giardia duodenalis

III. Giardia lamblia

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

All of the choices

e)

None of the choices

73.

Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused by

a)

Trypanosoma brucei

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Leishmania braziliensis

d)

Dracunculus medinensis

74.

What is the insect vector of American trypanosomiasis?


I. Triatomids

II. Kissing Bug

III. Conenose Bug

a)

AOTC

b)

NOTC

c)

I & II

d)

II & III

e)

I & III

75.

Trypomastigotes of T. cruzi are acquired by humans from _ of Reduviid Bugs.

a)

Saliva

b)

Blood

c)

Feces

d)

AOTC

e)

NOTC

76.

Eggs or larvae recovered in the stool are not routinely used to diagnose infections caused by which one of the following helminths?

a)

Trichinella spiralis

b)

Strongyloides stercoralis

c)

N. americanus

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides

e)

NOTC

77.

Which of the following is typical in cysts of lodamoeba butschlii?

a)

glycogen mass

b)

Blunt chromatoidal bars

c)

Four nuclei with large karyosomes

d)

Many ingested bacteria

e)

Notc

78.

Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct except:

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes

b)

Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia

c)

Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of Ascaris lumbricoides

d)

A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs

79.

For which of the following diseases is close contact with an infected human host the most important mechanism of transmission?

a)

Schistosomiasis

b)

Toxoplasmosis

c)

Trichinosis

d)

Trichomoniasis

e)

aotc

80.

The miracidial hatching test helps to demonstrate the viability of:

a)

Eggs of Taenia species

b)

Eggs of Schistosoma species

c)

Eggs of hookworm species

d)

Eggs of Opisthorchis

e)

Aotc

81.

There are very few procedures that could be considered STAT in the diagnostic parasitology laboratory. However, several situations or request for procedures should be considered STAT, and laboratory coverage should be provided 24 hours/day. The most obvious situation would be:

a)

Ova and parasite examination for giardiasis

b)

Baermann concentration for Strongyloides

c)

Cellulose tape preps for Enterobius

d)

Blood films for malaria

82.

The incorrect match between organism and characteristic is:

a)

Fasciola hepatica and liver infection

b)

Trichuris trichiura and eggs with polar plugs

c)

Echinococcus granulosus and daughter cysts

d)

Schistosoma mansoni and egg with terminal spine

e)

Aotc

83.

This condition results from the accidental ingestion of helminth eggs. In this instance the human becomes the intermediate rather than the definitive host. The correct answer is:

a)

trichinosis

b)

cysticercosis

c)

ascariasis

d)

strongyloidiasis

e)

Notc

84.

Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be the breakdown products of:

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

monocytes

d)

lymphocytes

e)

Aotc

85.

A useful concentration technique used to detect microfilariae is the:

a)

Baermann's method

b)

formalin-ethyl acetate concentration method

c)

membrane filter method

d)

miracidial hatching method

e)

Aotc

86.

Examination of a 24 hour unpreserved urine specimen is sometimes helpful in the recovery of:

a)

Trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites

b)

Schistosoma haematobium eggs

c)

Enterobius vermicularis eggs

d)

Strongyloides stercoralis larvae

e)

Aotc

87.

Two helminth eggs that may resemble one another are:

a)

Diphyllobothrium latum and Paragonimus westermani

b)

Opisthorchis sinensis and Fasciolopsis buski

c)

Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichostrongylus

88.

The zinc sulfate concentrate may not allow detection of:

a)

Giardia lamblia cysts

b)

Eggs of Trichuris trichiura

c)

rhabditiform larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis

d)

Infertile ova of Ascaris lumbricoides

e)

Notc