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Large Group Genetics 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

DNA replication occurs in the ___ direction.

a)

3' hydroxyl - 5' phosphate

b)

3' phosphate - 5' hydroxyl

c)

5' hydroxyl - 3' phosphate

d)

5' phosphate - 3' hydroxyl

2.

Naked DNA is wound around histone octomers. Select the histone protein that is NOT part of an octomer.

a)

H1

b)

H2A

c)

H2B

d)

H3

e)

H4

3.

Which of the following is a topoisomerase found in E. coli and is the only enzyme that can add negative (biologically active) supercoils?

a)

Topoisomerase I

b)

Topoisomerase II

c)

DNA gyrase

d)

Primase (dna g)

4.

Which of the following are TRUE regarding DNA replication in prokaryotes? [Check all that apply]

a)

In E. coli, there is one replication origin in its circular genome.

b)

DNA Polymerase III is responsible for filling in gaps after primer removal

c)

DNA synthesis is considered bidirectional.

d)

The mechanism for DNA replication termination is unclear.

5.

Which of the following are required for DNA replication? [Check all that apply]

a)

Template

b)

Helicase

c)

Primer

d)

DNA polymerase complex

e)

Telomerase

6.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding telomerase?

a)

DNA dependent DNA polymerase

b)

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

c)

RNA dependent DNA polymerase

d)

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

7.

Which of the following is TRUE of both DNA polymerase alpha and DNA polymerase delta? [Check all that apply]

a)

5' - 3' polymerase activity

b)

3' - 5' exonuclease activity

c)

5' - 3' exonuclease activity

d)

Low processivity

8.

What is replication protein A (RPA) analogous to in prokaryotic DNA replication?

a)

DNA gyrase

b)

dnaA

c)

Helicase

d)

Single stranded binding protein (SSB)

9.

What type of bond links nucleotides together in a chain?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Phosphodiester bonds

c)

Sulfide bonds

d)

Phosphate bonds

10.

What type of bond links nitrogenous bases together?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Phosphodiester bonds

c)

Disulfide bonds

d)

Covalent bonds

11.

Which of the following are TRUE of prokaryotic DNA replication termination? [Check all that apply]

a)

Termination occurs near the center of a region called ter or T locus

b)

The ter or T locus contains a core sequence that is bound by the Tus protein

c)

The Tus protein has 3' - 5' exonuclease activity

d)

The two new genomes are separated by the action of topoisomerase II

12.

DNA polymerase δ is loaded on to eukaryotic DNA by:

a)

Replication factor C (RFC)

b)

Proliferating cell nuclear antigen clamp (PCNA)

c)

RNase H

d)

DNA ligase

13.

Which of the following are FALSE regarding telomerase? [Check all that apply]

a)

Telomerase is a RNP (ribonucleoparticle).

b)

The protein component of telomerase is a reverse transcriptase.

c)

Telomerase activity is very low in cancerous cells.

d)

The function of telomerase is to synthesize enough lagging strand template so that a primer can be made and the lagging strand can be completed.

14.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding 5-Fluorouracil? [Check all that apply]

a)

Topical cream for plantar warts

b)

Topical treatment for plantar fasciitis

c)

Inhibits DNA gyrase

d)

Prevents the formation of dNTP precursors to dNTPs (DNA synthesis inhibitor)

15.

mRNA is also referred to as:

a)

piwi-interacting RNA (piRNA)

b)

transfer RNA (tRNA)

c)

heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)

d)

ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

16.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding transciption?

a)

The 3 phases of transcription are initiation, elongation, and termination.

b)

RNA polymerases require a primer.

c)

The DNA of the gene to be transcribed has to be locally unwound (denatured).

d)

RNA polymerases are dependent on a template.

17.

Which of the following DNA polymerases does NOT have 3' - 5' exonuclease activity?

a)

DNA Polymerase I

b)

DNA Polymerase II

c)

DNA Polymerase III

d)

All of the above have 3' - 5' exonuclease activity

18.

The RNA Polymerase holoenzyme consists of: [Check all that apply]

a)

Core polymerase (consisting of 2 α and 2 β subunits)

b)

δ subunit

c)

γ subunit

d)

sigma subunit

19.

Which type of RNA accounts for the most cellular RNA?

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

snoRNA

d)

mRNA

20.

Which of the following binds to RNA polymerase and alters its conformation so that it cannot initiate RNA synthesis?

a)

Hydrochlorothiazide

b)

Rifampin

c)

Primaquine

d)

Fluconazole

21.

Which of the following drugs inhibit translation? [Check all that apply]

a)

Doxycycline

b)

Tetracycline

c)

Clindamycin

d)

5-Fluorouracil

22.

Which of the following does not have a defined termination signal?

a)

Prokaryotic RNA Polymerase

b)

RNA Polymerase I

c)

RNA Polymerase II

d)

RNA Polymerase III

23.

Which of the following is TRUE of DNA Polymerase III?

a)

It has DNA repair activity.

b)

It is held on to DNA by a sliding clamp.

c)

It does not have exonuclease activity.

d)

It has low processivity.

24.

Promoters for ______ and ______ are upstream of the transcription start site. [Check all that apply]

a)

RNA Polymerase I

b)

RNA Polymerase II

c)

RNA Polymerase III

25.

Select the answer choice that chronologically orders the events of eukaroytic transcription:

I. RNA Polymerase moves along DNA

II. RNA Polymerase is recruited

III. The holoenzyme complex is formed.

IV. Transcription factors bind DNA.

a)

IV, III, II, I

b)

II, III, IV, I

c)

IV, II, III, I

d)

III, IV, II, I

26.

Which of the following correctly describes the central dogma?

a)

DNA » Protein » RNA

b)

DNA » RNA » Protein

c)

RNA » DNA » Protein

d)

Protein » RNA » DNA

27.

RNA primers are recognized and removed by ____ during DNA synthesis.

a)

DNA Polymerase I

b)

DNA Polymerase II

c)

DNA Polymerase III

d)

RNA Polymerase I

28.

Eukaryotic RNA Polymerase I is specialized to transcribe which of the following:

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

snRNA

d)

tRNA

29.

When translation occurs, mRNA is read in the _____ direction and the protein is made from the ______ terminus

a)

3' - 5', N to C

b)

3' - 5', C to N

c)

5' - 3', N to C

d)

5' - 3', C to N

30.

According to the wobble hypothesis, only the _____ position(s) of a codon in mRNA have precise pairing with the bases of the tRNA anticodon.

a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

First and second

31.

Which of the following are associated with both eukaryotic and prokaryotic transcription?

a)

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

b)

Promoter

c)

dnaA

d)

Helicase

32.

Which of the following nucleotide triplets define a translational start codon in eukaryotes?

a)

5' GUA 3'

b)

5' AAU 3'

c)

5' AUG 3'

d)

5' AGG 3'

33.

Which of the following is NOT a property of the mammalian signal recognition particle (SRP)?

a)

It targets nascent secretory proteins to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

It temporarily arrests translation.

c)

It is a ribonucleoprotein complex (RNP).

d)

It contains a signal peptidase activity

34.

After 3 rounds of DNA replication, what percentage of DNA molecules would contain a parental (template) strand?

a)

6.25%

b)

12.5%

c)

25%

d)

50%

35.

Which of the following binds to the origin of replication and melts DNA in an ATP dependent manner?

a)

SSB

b)

Helicase

c)

dnaA

d)

dnaG

36.

In eukaryotes, all of the following are associated with the initiation complex of translation EXCEPT:

a)

A molecule of GTP

b)

The small subunit of the ribosome

c)

A tRNA aminoacylated with N-formylmethionine

d)

5′ -cap structure of mRNA

37.

The repressor protein (lacI) binds to the

a)

Promoter

b)

Operator

c)

CAP protein

d)

Enhancer

38.

A prokaryotic cell is in conditions of low glucose and no lactose. Which of the following are occurring? [Check all that apply]

a)

Lac genes are strongly expressed.

b)

Adenylyl cyclase is active.

c)

The repressor protein is bound to the operator.

d)

The cAMP-CAP complex is bound to the CAP binding site.

39.

RNA polymerase is most likely to activate transcription efficiently when:

a)

Cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high.

b)

Cyclic AMP levels are low and lactose levels are high.

c)

Cyclic AMP levels are high and lactose levels are low.

d)

Cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both low.

40.

Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of:

a)

Genetic mutations

b)

Epigenetic phenomena

c)

Chromosomal rearrangements

d)

Karotypes

41.

In eukaryotes, transcription is generally associated with:

a)

Euchromatin only

b)

Heterochromatin only

c)

Both euchromatin and histone acetylation

d)

Both heterochromatin and histone acetylation

42.

Which of the following repair mechanisms is responsible for the repair of double stranded breaks?

a)

Base-excision repair

b)

Nucleotide-excision repair

c)

Homologous recombination

d)

Mismatch repair

43.

Soluble secretory proteins undergo modifications in the ER. Which of the following is NOT a modification that they undergo.

a)

Proper folding and assembly of multi-subunit proteins.

b)

Formation and rearrangement of hydrogen bonds.

c)

Specific proteolytic cleavage.

d)

Addition and processing of carbohydrates (glycosylation).

44.

A nonsense mutation may result in:

a)

An abnormal elongation of a polypeptide.

b)

A large deletion within the reading frame of a gene.

c)

A modification of mRNA

d)

A premature termination of the synthesis of a polypeptide.

45.

Cancer derived from connective tissue or mesenchymal cells:

a)

Lymphoma

b)

Sarcoma

c)

Leukemia

d)

Blastoma

46.

Cells that penetrate normal tissue boundaries are called:

a)

Dysplastic

b)

Invasive

c)

Hyperchromic

d)

Pleotropic

47.

An unmutated gene that promotes neoplasia is called a(n):

a)

Oncogene

b)

Proto-oncogene

c)

Tumor suppressor gene

d)

Autosomal dominant gene

48.

How does mismatch repair machinery recognize which base to change?

a)

It activates ATM kinase.

b)

It recognizes the methylation patterns on the parental strand.

c)

It creates an abasic site recognizable by an AP endonuclease.

d)

It distinguishes a purine from a pyrimidine.

49.

Which of the following are characteristic of a malignant neoplasm? [Check all that apply]

a)

Cells that display uncontrolled growth.

b)

Cells that invade and destroy adjacent tissue.

c)

Cells that metastasize.

d)

All of the above

50.

Oncogenes usually follow an ___ inheritance pattern. Tumor suppressor genes usually follow an ___ inheritance pattern.

a)

autosomal dominant / autosomal recessive

b)

autosomal recessive / autosomal dominant

c)

X-linked dominant / autosomal recessive

d)

X-linked dominant / X-linked recessive