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Biology - Unit 4

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Stabilizing selection acts to _________ in a species' population.

a)

alter traits

b)

elaborate new traits

c)

maintain a certain phenotype

d)

push for directional change

2.

Gene flow is

a)

the migration of species populations to new areas mating between close relatives

b)

the movement of genes between species populations

c)

the exchange of genes during fertilization

d)

none of the above

3.

Sister chromatids are joined by a:

a)

histone

b)

centromere

c)

chromosome

d)

karyotype

4.

Which of the following is not found in Eukaryotic cells:

a)

plasmids

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

ribosomes

5.

Select the organelles found in prokaryotic cells:

a)

cell wall

b)

bacterial chromosome

c)

nuclear membrane

d)

plasmid

6.

Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base found in RNA:

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

7.

DNA can be described as being in a ________ structure.

a)

halo

b)

heart shaped

c)

helical

d)

spring

8.

DNA replication begins with the unzipping of the double stranded DNA molecule by breaking weak hydrogen bonds. This is achieved by the enzyme:

a)

DNA helicase.

b)

DNA polymerase.

c)

DNA ligase.

d)

DNA primase.

9.

During DNA replication two complete double helices are produced. The parental strands are separated and each receives a new complementary strand. As a result of this process, one parental strand is retained from each replication to the next. This is called:

a)

conservative replication.

b)

discontinuous replication.

c)

semiconservative replication.

d)

continuous replication.

10.

Sister chromatids are the result of:

a)

sexual reproduction, as one comes from each parent.

b)

a disjunction event where an extra chromosome is retained in a cell that has divided.

c)

chromosome duplication in preparation for cell division.

d)

crossing over during cell division

11.

Which of the following is not a DNA nucleotide?

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cystine

12.

A sequence of DNA was found to have the following bases: ATT CCG ATC. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the complementary DNA strand?

a)

UAA GGC UAG

b)

TAA GGC TAG

c)

CGG AAT CGA

d)

ATT CCG ATC

13.

Both DNA and RNA are nucleic acids. How else are they similar?

a)

They both contain deoxyribose.

b)

They both contain uracil and adenine.

c)

They are both the same length.

d)

They both consist of strings of nucleotides.

14.

Which statement about meiosis is correct?

a)

Allows the doubling up of the diploid number of chromosomes at fertilisation

b)

Prevents the doubling up of the haploid number of chromosomes at fertilisation

c)

Allows the doubling up of the haploid number of chromosomes at fertilisation

d)

Homologous chromosomes separate into gamete cells

15.

Non-disjunction can result in:

a)

trisomy conditions

b)

additional sex chromosomes

c)

monosomy conditions

d)

all of these

16.

A sperm contains:

a)

Only a Y chromosome

b)

Both an X and a Y chromosome

c)

Only an X chromosome

d)

An X or a Y chromosome

17.

Identify the enzyme represented by number 9.

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

smallase

18.

What does number 7 represent?

a)

Primer

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA ligase

d)

Okazaki fragment

19.

The process that occurs during meiosis that ensures that each gamete is a mixture of maternal and paternal chromosomes is called:

a)

feritlisation

b)

random assortment

c)

oogenesis

d)

independent assortment

20.

DNA sequences that have been methylated:

a)

have been replicated.

b)

are genes that have been switched on.

c)

are genes that have been silenced.

d)

have been supercoiled.

21.

Transfer RNA collects specific amino acids and transports them to the ribosome. The 3- nucleotide sequence on tRNA that interacts with the mRNA template is called:

a)

A codon

b)

An anticodon

c)

A stop codon

d)

A start codon

22.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding transcription?

a)

It requires the use of RNA and DNA polymerase.

b)

It requires the use of RNA polymerase.

c)

It generates a single stranded RNA molecule.

d)

It uses the template strand of the DNA

23.

The process of translation produces:

a)

a copy of a gene.

b)

a string of amino acids.

c)

mRNA.

d)

pre-mRNA.

24.

Edward’s syndrome is a disorder where individuals have an extra copy of chromosome 18. They suffer mental retardation, congenital defects of all organs and are typically dead by the age of 6 months. Edward’s syndrome is an example of:

a)

a frameshift mutation.

b)

monosomy

c)

aneuploidy from non-disjunction in meiosis.

d)

aneuploidy from mutations in mitosis.

25.

Which of these changes is NOT the result of a mutation?

a)

Recombination between homologous chromosomes in meiosis

b)

The inversion of part of a chromosome

c)

A single base substitution in DNA

d)

A GAA codon is changed to GAC, which caused the production of a different amino acid

26.

A random mutation may undermine the organism’s overall ability to survive. Such mutations are referred to as:

a)

neutral.

b)

deleterious.

c)

beneficial.

d)

complicated.

27.

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that causes difficulty breathing, poor growth and a build-up of mucous in the lungs. The most common cause of CF is a deletion of three nucleotides from chromosome 7, which results in the loss of one amino acid. CF is an example of a:

a)

frameshift mutation

b)

missense mutation

c)

nonsense mutation

d)

neutral mutation

28.

Alternative forms of a gene are known as:

a)

genotypes

b)

phenotypes

c)

alleles

d)

chromosomes

29.

What is the definition of heterozygous?

a)

when an individual has two sets of the same allele

b)

when it is neither dominant or recessive

c)

A pair of genes where one is dominant and one is recessive.

d)

When a mule and donkey mate

30.

Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?

a)

75%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

31.

Assume alleles A and a for a trait. If two heterozygous individuals are crossed, what is the resulting genotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1 (1AA: 2Aa: 1aa)

b)

3:1

c)

1:2

d)

1:4

32.

What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?

a)

Sex-Linked Dominant

b)

Sex-Linked Recessive

c)

Autosomal (normal) Dominant

d)

Autosomal (normal) Recessive

33.

This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits. (Red + White = Pink)

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

recessive pattern

34.

Colourblindness is a recessive, X chromosome sex-link disorder. Cross the parents to figure out which percentage of their offspring will be colourblind.

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

0%

35.

In genetic engineering the ability to produce restriction fragments is essential. This achieved with enzymes called:

a)

restriction enzymes.

b)

DNA ligases

c)

polymerases.

d)

helicases.

36.

The technology that recombines DNA from different sources to modify the DNA sequence is called:

a)

genetic engineering

b)

gene probing

c)

DNA sequencing

d)

recombinant DNA technology

37.

During gel electrophoresis several bands are separated. How do investigators know which band is the product of interest?

a)

Products appear at different levels on the gel

b)

Products are referenced by a molecular marker

c)

Only the product of interest will travel through the gel

d)

The product of interest is the first band to be separated

38.

EcoRI is an example of a:

a)

vector

b)

polymerase enzyme

c)

restriction enzyme

d)

GMO

39.

In a polymerase chain reaction, the first step is to separate the two strands of the DNA molecule. What is used to complete this step?

a)

An electric current

b)

Adding the primers

c)

Decreasing the pH

d)

Temperatures of 95℃

40.

Forensic scientists use DNA profiling in criminal cases because very small samples can provide sufficient DNA. This is because:

a)

the DNA can be amplified using gel electrophoresis

b)

the DNA can be amplified using PCR.

c)

the DNA can be amplified using plasmids.

d)

the DNA is interspersed with short tandem repeats.

41.

Microevolution refers to:

a)

the changes in DNA that do not produce noticeable change between individuals

b)

the changes in DNA that do not produce noticeable change within a species

c)

the changes within a species that do not produce speciation

d)

the changes within a taxonomic group that produce speciation

42.

Macroevolution refers to:

a)

the changes in DNA that do not produce noticeable change between individuals

b)

the changes in DNA that do not produce noticeable change within a species

c)

the changes within a species that do not produce speciation

d)

the changes within a taxonomic group that produce speciation

43.

What percentage of the organisms that have ever lived on Earth are thought to be extinct?

a)

More than 90%

b)

Approximately 60%

c)

Approximately 40%

d)

Less than 10%

44.

The total collection of alleles within a population is referred to as:

a)

an allele.

b)

allele frequency

c)

a gene pool.

d)

gene flow.

45.

What is a major source of variation in a population gene pool?

a)

Different alleles

b)

Genetic mutations

c)

Fixed genes

d)

Gene migration

46.

In wild herds of horses, young male horses are allowed to stay in the herd they were born into until they reach sexual maturity. The stallion will then chase them away. They stay with other young males, or may take over another herd of females if they can remove the existing stallion. If they can breed with the females in the new herd, which of the following will have occurred?

a)

Bottleneck effect

b)

Founder effect

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Gene flow

47.

Which of the following would NOT be as selection pressure for a zebra?

a)

The number of stripes on the zebra compared to other individuals

b)

The number of other zebras in the area

c)

The number of nematode worms being carried

d)

The number of hyenas and leopards in the area

48.

What situations would not produce allopatric speciation?

a)

Members of a species were introduced to a new continent.

b)

Members of a species were separated by rising sea level.

c)

Members of a species were separated by a mountain range.

d)

Members of a species were preyed upon unevenly.

49.

Divergent evolution results in:

a)

similar features appearing in unrelated species.

b)

speciation from an ancestor

c)

genetic drift over time

d)

similar changes occurring in species with close relationships

50.

Which of the following would decrease a species’ risk of extinction?

a)

A low rate of genetic mutation

b)

A genetic bottleneck

c)

A narrow or specialised diet

d)

A large habitable range

51.

Ants are the correct size and weight needed to open the flowers for the peony plant. The peony plant provides food for the ant and the ant fertilizes the peony’s flowers. What type of evolution is this an example of?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Co-evolution

d)

Parallel

52.

North American cactus and the African euphorbia that developed similar adaptation, which is their thick stems and sharp quills to survive the hot, arid climates. These two plant species are of different plant families but live in the same type of environment. What type of evolution is this an example of?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Co-evolution

d)

Parallel

53.

The beaver in North America and the capybara in South America share a common ancestor, but have evolved over time to look different. What type of evolution is this an example of?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Co-evolution

d)

Parallel