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pathophysiology exam 1

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the manifestations of a disease are best defined as the

a)

subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness

b)

signs and symptoms of a disease

c)

factors the precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness

d)

early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection

2.

the term homeostasis refers to

a)

the causative factors in a particular disease

b)

maintenance of a stable internal environment

c)

a condition that triggers an acute episode

d)

a collection of signs and symptoms

3.

when a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called

a)

ischemia

b)

gangrene

c)

hypoxia

d)

necrosis

4.

a type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as

a)

hypertrophy

b)

metaplasia

c)

anaplasia

d)

atrophy

5.

the term prognosis refers to the

a)

period of recovery and return to a normal state

b)

mortality and morbidity rates for a given population

c)

expected outcome of the disease

d)

typical collection of signs and symptoms

6.

all of the following statements are correct about cell damage except:

a)

the initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions

b)

if the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state

c)

if the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies

d)

initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function

7.

caseation necrosis refers to an area where

a)

cell proteins have been denatured

b)

cells are liquified by enzymes

c)

dead cells form a thick cheesy substance

d)

bacterial invasion has occurred

8.

pathophysiology involves the study of

a)

structure of the human body

b)

the functions of various organs in the body

c)

functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes

d)

various cell structures and related functions

9.

to which of the following does the term apoptosis refer

a)

increased rate of mitosis by certain cells

b)

ischemic damage to cells

c)

liquefaction of necrotic tissue

d)

preprogrammed cell self-destruction

10.

which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research

a)

neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy

b)

both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy

c)

the research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy

d)

only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy

11.

which of the following is usually included in a medical history

  1. past illnesses or surgeries
  2. current illnesses, acute and chronic
  3. prescribed medication or other treatments
  4. nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
  5. current allergies
a)

1,3

b)

2,4,5

c)

1,3,4

d)

1,2,3,4,5

12.

the term pathogenesis refers to the

a)

determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant neoplasm

b)

the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes involved in the disease process

c)

the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a chronic disease

d)

the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis

13.

which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology

a)

the science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases

b)

the relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease

c)

identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms

d)

the global search for emerging diseases

14.

which of the following statements is true

a)

alteration of DNA does not change cell function

b)

damaged cells may be able to repair themselves

c)

all types of cells die at the same time

d)

mild ischemia causes immediate cell death

15.

a circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed

a)

latent stage

b)

predisposing factor

c)

incidence

d)

precipitating factor

16.

the term cancer refers to

a)

dysplasia

b)

hyperplasia

c)

metaplasia

d)

malignant neoplasm

17.

rigorous weight lifting/ body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing

a)

hypertrophy

b)

dysplasia

c)

atrophy

d)

regeneration

18.

which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease

a)

swelling of the knee

b)

pain in the neck

c)

fever

d)

red rash on the face

19.

when prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as

a)

atrophy

b)

liquefactive necrosis

c)

apoptosis

d)

infarction

20.

which of the following can cause cell injury or death

  1. hypoxia
  2. exposure to excessive cold
  3. excessive pressure on a tissue
  4. chemical toxins
a)

1,2

b)

2,4

c)

1,3,4

d)

1,2,3,4

21.

a change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called

a)

metaplasia

b)

atrophy

c)

dysplasia

d)

hypertrophy

22.

cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as

a)

abnormal metabolic processes

b)

certain food additives

c)

genetic defects

d)

localized hypoxia

23.

the term disease refers to

a)

the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state

b)

a deviation from the normal state of health and function

c)

the treatment measures used to promote recovery

d)

a basic collection of signs and symptoms

24.

a situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an

a)

exacerbation

b)

epidemic

c)

morbidity

d)

pandemic

25.

why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals

a)

to predict the prognosis

b)

to determine treatments

c)

to develop preventive measures

d)

to develop morbidity statistics

26.

which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease

a)

an inherited disorder

b)

a combination of specific etiological factors

c)

an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug

d)

prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment

27.

the best definition of the term prognosis is the

a)

precipitating factors causing an acute episode

b)

number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness

c)

predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease

d)

exacerbations occurring during chronic illness

28.

a deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called

a)

ischemia

b)

apoptosis

c)

hypertrophy

d)

necrosis

29.

a collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an)

a)

acute disease

b)

multiorgan disorder

c)

syndrome

d)

manifestation

30.

short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called

a)

acute

b)

latent

c)

chronic

d)

manifestation

31.

if the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called

a)

the placebo effect

b)

evidence-based research

c)

blind research studies

d)

approval for immediate distribution

32.

all of the following are part of the seven steps to health except:

a)

follow cancer screening guidelines

b)

use sun block agents whenever exposed

c)

participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis

d)

choose high fiber, lower fat foods

33.

etiology is defined as the study of the

a)

causes of disease

b)

course of a disease

c)

expected complications of a disease

d)

manifestations of a disease

34.

which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established

a)

symptoms

b)

occurrence

c)

manifestations

d)

complication

35.

routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of

a)

an iatrogenic cause of cancer

b)

a preventive measure

c)

a precipitating factor

d)

a predisposing condition

36.

during the evaluation process for a new therapy's effectiveness and safety, a double blind study may be conducted during

a)

the first stage

b)

the second stage

c)

the third stage

d)

any of these stages

37.

which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

calcium

d)

iron

38.

which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading

a)

fluid excess

b)

fluid deficit

c)

increased sodium level

d)

decreased erythrocytes

39.

when the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the

a)

blood into the cells

b)

interstitial compartment into the cells

c)

interstitial compartment into the blood

d)

cells into the interstitial compartment

40.

which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide

  1. it is secreted by heart muscle cells
  2. it is a hormone secreted by the kidneys
  3. it helps to control water and sodium balance
  4. it is released in response to low blood pressure
a)

1,3

b)

1,4

c)

2,3

d)

2,4

41.

which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia

a)

skeletal muscle twitch and cramps

b)

oliguria

c)

elevated serum pH

d)

cardiac arrhythmias

42.

what is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance

a)

respiratory system

b)

buffer systems in the blood

c)

kidneys

d)

brain

43.

what would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate

a)

metabolic alkalosis

b)

metabolic acidosis

c)

respiratory alkalosis

d)

respiratory acidosis

44.

which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range

a)

carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quanities

b)

all excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys

c)

the concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant

d)

the ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20

45.

which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis

a)

bradycardia and deep rapid breathing

b)

drowsiness and general lethargy

c)

increased nervous system irritability

d)

decreased urine pH

46.

which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration

a)

rapid, strong pulse

b)

low hematocrit

c)

increased urine output

d)

rough oral mucosa

47.

which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body

a)

K+, Na+

b)

Cl- and HCO3-

c)

Ca++, Na+

d)

Na+, Cl-

48.

in the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to

a)

a deficient sodium level

b)

an excess phosphate level

c)

an excess sodium level

d)

an excessively low phosphate level

49.

which of the following would be considered normal serum pH

a)

4.5-8

b)

7.0

c)

7.4

d)

8.0

50.

which of the following causes tetany

a)

increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium

b)

excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH)

c)

excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms

d)

increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex

51.

prolonged diarrhea results in

a)

loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis

b)

increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis

c)

loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis

d)

surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis

52.

hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because

a)

permeability of nerve membranes increases

b)

insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction

c)

low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction

d)

excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle

53.

in patients with impaired expiration associated with emphysema, effective compensation for the acid-base imbalance would be

a)

increased rate and depth of respiration

b)

decreased rate and depth of respiration

c)

increased urine pH and decreased serum bicarbonate

d)

decreased urine pH and increased serum bicarbonate

54.

one of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is

a)

proportionally smaller body surface area

b)

higher metabolic rate

c)

smaller respiratory capacity

d)

greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes

55.

serum potassium levels are affected by

  1. ADH
  2. aldosterone
  3. serum H+ levels
  4. insulin levels
a)

2 only

b)

1,2

c)

1,3

d)

2,3,4

e)

1,2,3

56.

which of the following would cause edema

a)

decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

b)

increased capillary osmotic pressure

c)

decreased capillary permeability

d)

increased capillary permeability

57.

choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body

a)

30%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

4%

58.

which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema

a)

metabolic acidosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

respiratory acidosis

d)

respiratory alkalosis

59.

which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations

a)

increased carbonic acid

b)

decreased carbonic acid

c)

increased bicarbonate ion

d)

decreased bicarbonate ion

60.

an anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to

a)

increased PCO2

b)

decreased PCO2

c)

respiratory acidosis

d)

metabolic acidosis

61.

which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity

a)

dehydration

b)

third-spacing

c)

hypovolemia

d)

water retention

62.

the control center for thirst is located in the

a)

kidneys

b)

thalamus

c)

medula

d)

hypothalamus

63.

in the initial stage, vomiting results in

a)

metabolic acidosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

respiratory alkalosis

d)

none of the above

64.

strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in

a)

hypokalemia

b)

hypernatremia

c)

hyperchloremia

d)

hypovolemia

65.

hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has a very low level of which ion

a)

sodium

b)

phosphate

c)

calcium

d)

potassium

66.

what is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body

a)

bicarbonate ion levels decrease

b)

bicarbonate ions levels increase

c)

carbonic acid levels increase

d)

pH increases

67.

the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. the balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels is controlled by the

a)

liver and pancreas

b)

lungs and kidneys

c)

lungs and plasma proteins

d)

kidneys and bone marrow

68.

which of the following is the primary control of serum Na+ levels

a)

ADH

b)

aldosterone

c)

serum H+ levels

d)

serum K+ levels

69.

choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult's body:

a)

30%

b)

45%

c)

60%

d)

70%

70.

which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia

a)

loss of the thirst mechanism

b)

excessive sweating

c)

excessive aldosterone secretion

d)

prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations

71.

the direct effects of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the

a)

digestive system

b)

urinary system

c)

nervous system

d)

respiratory system

72.

which of the following results from hypocalcemia

  1. low serum phosphate levels
  2. nausea and constipation
  3. skeletal muscle twitch and spasms
  4. weak cardiac contractions
a)

1,2

b)

1,4

c)

2,3

d)

3,4

73.

when many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to serum pH? the pH

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains constant

d)

varies based on metabolism

74.

what are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH

a)

hypothalamus, metabolic changes by digestive system, lymphatic system filtration

b)

buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate

c)

neural feedback, increase in heart rate, decrease in calcium intake

d)

modification of water intake, increased capillary permeability, decrease in blood volume

75.

insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through

a)

perspiration only

b)

feces only

c)

perspiration and expiration

d)

urine and feces

76.

which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins

a)

increased osmotic pressure

b)

decreased osmotic pressure

c)

increased hydrostatic pressure

d)

decreased hydrostatic pressure

77.

the full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent

a)

undesirable side effects

b)

development of resistant microbes

c)

an allergic response

d)

proper metabolism and excretion of drug

78.

a placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule

a)

that contains high amounts of a drug to determine the maximum dose allowed

b)

that does not contain an active drug

c)

that contains a different drug to be used for its psychological effect

d)

that contains a small amount of active drug for use in clinical trials

79.

the form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as

a)

reflexology

b)

naturopathy

c)

physiotherapy

d)

registered massage therapy

80.

a medical history should include all

  1. legally prescribed drugs
  2. vitamin or mineral supplements
  3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items)
  4. herbal treatments
a)

1,3

b)

1,2,4

c)

1 only

d)

1,2,3,4

81.

traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by

a)

chiropractors

b)

naturopaths

c)

osteopaths

d)

homeopaths

82.

what is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide us

a)

chemical name

b)

trade name

c)

proprietary name

d)

generic name

83.

which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action

a)

intramusclar

b)

sublingual

c)

oral

d)

intravenous

84.

after they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the

a)

large intestine

b)

pancreas

c)

kidneys

d)

lungs

85.

a drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may

  1. stimulate activity in those cells
  2. inhibit activity in those cells
  3. change specificity and attach to other cells
  4. be disabled by macrophages
a)

1,3,4

b)

1,2

c)

3,4

d)

2,3

86.

contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify

a)

the maximum shelf life of the medication

b)

the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug

c)

those typical side effects associated with this drug

d)

those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used

87.

what is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects

a)

beneficial

b)

antagonism

c)

synergism

d)

potentiation

88.

in traditional asian medicine, acupoints are usually located

a)

where blood vessel branch

b)

on designated meridians

c)

over pain or other sensory receptors

d)

over joints

89.

which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug

a)

reduction of the allergic response

b)

unusual, unexpected mild effects

c)

additional, mild, unwanted effects

d)

serious, possibly life-threatening effects

90.

at which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion

a)

lymphoid tissue

b)

kidneys

c)

liver

d)

circulating blood

91.

what is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain

a)

ibuprofen

b)

acetaminophen

c)

codeine

d)

meperidine

92.

cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and

a)

pain associated with the treatment of the disease

b)

phantom pain as a result of amputation

c)

pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves

d)

pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes

93.

which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain

a)

severe but short term

b)

fatigue and lower pain tolerance

c)

a perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort

d)

depression and debilitation

94.

which of the following applies to spinal anethesia

a)

the transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body

b)

the drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord

c)

it causes analgesia with loss of consciousness

d)

the drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord

95.

in which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord

a)

reticular formation

b)

spinothalamic tract

c)

relevant dermatone

d)

corticospinal tract

96.

a headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ____ headache

a)

migraine

b)

tension

c)

sinus

d)

intracranial

97.

which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site

a)

codeine

b)

acetaminophen

c)

intravenous general anesthesia

d)

morphine

98.

a headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an

a)

intrameningeal headache

b)

migraine headache

c)

intracranial headache

d)

cerebral headache

99.

the impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by

a)

unmyelinated C fibers

b)

nocireceptors

c)

myelinated A delta fibers

d)

any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold

100.

ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating

a)

intracranial pain

b)

pain caused by inflammation

c)

severe pain

d)

pain in young infants

101.

which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain

a)

it is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain

b)

it involves tissue damage to a specific organ

c)

it usually initiates a physiological stress response

d)

it always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety

102.

pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of

a)

chronic pain

b)

phantom pain

c)

subjective pain response

d)

referred pain

103.

what is the role of nociceptors? they are

a)

pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means

b)

responsible for the state of arousal with pain

c)

spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin

d)

useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body

104.

pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as

a)

neurogenic pain

b)

neuropathic pain

c)

referred pain

d)

central pain

105.

what is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action

a)

pain tolerance

b)

referred pain

c)

pain threshold

d)

phantom pain

106.

pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a specific area of the body is referred to as

a)

chronic pain

b)

central pain

c)

ischemic pain

d)

cardiovascular pain

107.

what is the definition of endorphins

a)

pain-causing chemical mediators

b)

opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system

c)

transmitters for sensory impulses

d)

neurotransmitters at the nociceptors

108.

intractable pain is best defined as

a)

pain coming from a specific dermatome

b)

pain that is perceived as occurring in an amputated limb

c)

severe pain that cannot be controlled by medication

d)

pain perceived as coming from a source other than the actual source

109.

which of the following statements is true

a)

the brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed

b)

chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects

c)

acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses

d)

young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure

110.

according to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally block

a)

by referring the pain to other parts of the body

b)

by the stress hormone

c)

by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord

d)

at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses