WorksheetsIntern Round 9 OP
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The most common malignancy arising in fibrous dysplasia is
a)
Fibrosarcoma
b)
Osteosarcoma
c)
Ewing’s sarcoma
d)
Multiple myeloma
2.
The common site of involvement of polyostotic form of fibrous dysplasia is
a)
Bones of skull and face
b)
Femur
c)
Ribs
d)
Spine
3.
Christmas disease is also known as
a)
von Willebrand’s disease
b)
Hemophilia A
c)
Hemophilia C
d)
Hemophilia B
4.
Glossodynia refers to painful
a)
Ears
b)
Tongue
c)
Nose
d)
Mouth
5.
Myasthenia gravis is a chronic disease characterized by progressiveweakness of _____ muscles.
a)
Facial
b)
Skeletal
c)
Cardiac
d)
Smooth
6.
Immediately after removal of the biopsied specimen, it must be fixed in ______ percent formalin.
a)
10
b)
100
c)
50
d)
75
7.
Healing by primary intention is that type of healing which occurs when
a)
It occurs within 72 hours
b)
It is filled in by keloid
c)
It is followed by significant loss of tissue
d)
The edges of the wound are closely approximated
8.
All except ___________ are complications of wound healing.
a)
Keloid/hypertrophic scar
b)
Pigmentary changes
c)
Infection
d)
Callus
9.
Cementicles are considered to represent areas of
a)
Dystrophic calcification
b)
Metastatic calcification
c)
Ectopic calcification
d)
Dysplastic calcification
10.
Cicatricial pemphigoid affects primarily the _____ within the oral cavity.
a)
Tongue
b)
Gingivae
c)
Lips
d)
Palate
11.
The characteristic “Butterfly rash” is seen in
a)
Pemphigus
b)
Lichen planus
c)
Systemic lupus erythematosus
d)
Pityriasis rosea
12.
The site where recurrent aphthous ulcer does not commonly occur is
a)
Labial mucosa
b)
Tongue
c)
Gingiva
d)
Soft palate
13.
Which of these oral structures is not affected in hereditary ectodermal dysplasia?
a)
Enamel
b)
Bones
c)
Hair
d)
Sweat glands
14.
The chief oral manifestation of scarlet fever is
a)
Stomatitis nicotina
b)
Stomatitis scarlatina
c)
Stomatitis palatina
d)
Stomatitis uvea
15.
Lipschutz bodies are seen in
a)
Chickenpox
b)
Herpangina
c)
Smallpox
d)
Herpetic stomatitis
16.
This space is one of the most commonly involved of all facial spaces
a)
Submental
b)
Sublingual
c)
Submandibular
d)
Buccal
17.
The giant cells found in a tubercular granuloma are called as
a)
Langerhans giant cells
b)
Langhans giant cells
c)
Touton giant cells
d)
Reed-Sternberg Giant cells
18.
Most common site for Pyogenic granuloma is
a)
Palate
b)
Tongue
c)
Gingiva
d)
Lip
19.
Neurofibroma arises from
a)
Perineural fibroblasts
b)
Schwann cells
c)
Both A and B
d)
Fibroblasts
20.
Which one of the following odontogenic cysts grows in an anteroposterior direction within the medullary spaces of bone?
a)
Dentigerous cyst
b)
Odontogenic keratocyst
c)
Gingival cyst of adults
d)
Radicular cyst
21.
An eruption cyst is a soft tissue analogue of
a)
Radicular cyst
b)
Gingival cyst of newborn
c)
Dentigerous cyst
d)
Odontogenic keratocyst
22.
A swelling of the upper lip lateral to the midline resulting in elevation of the ala of the nose is most likely to be
a)
Nasopalatine duct cyst
b)
Nasolabial cyst
c)
Medial mandibular cyst
d)
Globulomaxillary cyst
23.
A malignant ulcer is characterized by:
a)
Necrotic floor
b)
Raised everted edge
c)
Indurated base
d)
All of the above
24.
Chronic non suppurative, low grade infection with periosteal bone formation is termed as:
a)
Garre's osteomyelitis.
b)
Acute periosteitis
c)
Chronic periosteitis
d)
Periapical Osteitis
25.
The following Vitamins have been implicated in the etiology of Enamel hypoplasia:
a)
Vit. A & D
b)
Vit. B & D
c)
Vit. C & B
d)
Vit. A & B
26.
Unilateral vesicular eruptions along the course of the nerve in oro-facial region are:
a)
Herpes zoster
b)
Herpes simplex
c)
Molluscum contagiosum
d)
Infectious mononucleosis
27.
Bone pain renal calcinosis, and giant cell jaw lesions are most likely to be seen in:
a)
Fibrous dysplasia
b)
Pagets disease
c)
Hyperparathyroidism
d)
Hyperthyroidism
28.
Which is not a radiographic variant of OKC
a)
Replacement type
b)
Envelopmental type
c)
Extraneous type
d)
Supplementary
29.
Mottled enamel is produced by:
a)
Syphilis
b)
Febrile diseases
c)
Fluorine
d)
Acids
30.
The most common route by which infection may reach the pulp is through:
a)
The blood stream
b)
Traumatic injuries
c)
Dental caries
d)
Erosion
31.
Which of the following is TRUE in regards to lateral periodontal cyst
a)
It is more common in anterior region
b)
It occurs more in maxilla than mandible
c)
Probable origin is from dentigerous cyst which develops laterally
d)
Seen in the cuspid-premolar region of the mandible, derived from the remnants of the dental lamina
32.
Dry socket is a form of
a)
Osteomyelitis
b)
Osteitis
c)
Osteoma
d)
Alveolar Osteitis
33.
Features of familial multiple neurofibroma with café-au-lait spots of the skin are typical of
a)
Von Recklinghausen’s disease of skin
b)
Peget’s disease of skin
c)
Familial fibrous dysplasia
d)
Papillion Lefevre Syndrome
34.
The chemical disintegration of enamel is referred to as:
a)
Abrasion
b)
Attrition
c)
Erosion
d)
Hypoplasia
35.
Inflammation of the lips is referred to as:
a)
Stomataitis
b)
Glossitis migrican
c)
Cheilitis
d)
Vincent Angina
36.
Ameloblastoma on radiograph appear as
a)
Soap bubble, multilocular
b)
cumulus cloud
c)
thumb prints
d)
sunburst appearance
37.
Paralysis of the tongue is referred to as:
a)
Ankyloglossia
b)
Glossoplegia
c)
Macroglossia
d)
Pyroglossia
38.
OKC is present in which age group most commonly
a)
Congenital
b)
Bimodal age predilection
c)
Third decade only
d)
Fifth decade only
39.
The lamina dura is absent in which condition
a)
Von Recklinghausen
b)
Paget’s disease
c)
Periapical granuloma
d)
Ossifying fibroma
40.
Party wall appearance can be seen in
a)
Pleomorphic adenoma
b)
Myoepithelioma
c)
Sickle cell anaemia
d)
Canalicular adenoma
41.
Which one of the following is expansile lesion of jaw bone
a)
Odontogenic keratocyt
b)
Central haemangioma
c)
Radicular cyst
d)
Osteomyelitis
42.
Saw tooth rete ridges are seen in
a)
Lichen Planus
b)
Psoriasis
c)
Pemhigus
d)
Erythema multiforme
43.
White, radiating striae on buccal musoca are characteristic of
a)
Leukoplakia
b)
Erythroplakia
c)
OSF
d)
Lichen Planus
44.
Acromegaly is characterized by
a)
Large tongue
b)
Hypoglycemia
c)
Crowding of teeth
d)
Micrognathia
45.
Phelgmon is
a)
STD
b)
Type of cellulitis
c)
Type of osteomyelitis
d)
Veneral disease
46.
Most common tumour of parotid gland is
a)
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
b)
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
c)
Pleomorphic adenoma
d)
Warthin tumprs
47.
Most common site for sialoliths is
a)
Parotid duct
b)
Parotid gland
c)
Submandibular gland and duct
d)
Sublingual gland
48.
Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is
a)
Carbamazepine
b)
valproate
c)
Diazepam
d)
Phenytoin
49.
Gingival pigmentation in pregnancy is called
a)
Melanoma
b)
Epulis
c)
Melasma
d)
Melanosis
50.
All are benign salivary gland tumours except:
a)
Pleomorphic adenoma
b)
Basal cell adenocarcinoma
c)
Myoepithelioma
d)
Oncocytoma
100 %
