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Worksheets

Lower Extremity Practice

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The IP joint of the first digit is found ________ to the PIP joint of the 2nd digit.

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Oblique

d)

Adductal

2.

The largest sesamoid bone in the body is:

a)

Sesamoid of the halux

b)

Sesamoid of the thumb

c)

Patella

d)

Talus

3.

How many Tarsal bones found in both feet combined?

a)

7

b)

14

c)

26

d)

10

4.

Which of the following is considered a tarsal bone?

a)

Triquetrum

b)

Intercondylar

c)

5th metatarsal

d)

Cuboid

5.

The inferior portion of the patella is known as the _________

a)

Base

b)

Apex

c)

Anterior surface

d)

Posterior surface

6.

I is referring to?

a)

Condyles superimposed

b)

Popliteal surface

c)

Tibial plateau

d)

Intercondylar eminence

7.

5 is referring to?

a)

Lateral malleolus

b)

Medial malleolus

c)

Mortise Joint

d)

Talus

8.

14 is referring to the__________.

a)

Intercondylar eminance

b)

Tibial tuberosity

c)

Tibial Plateau

d)

Fibular apex

9.

All joints in the lower extermity are Diarthrodial with the exception of the what?

a)

Distal tibiofibular

b)

Proximal tibiofibular

c)

Knee

d)

Mortise

10.

Flexing the foot so the toes are pointed straight up is known as what kind of movement?

a)

Dorsiflxion

b)

Plantar flexion

c)

Inversion

d)

Eversion

11.

The average kv range for lower extremities is:

a)

70-80

b)

90-100

c)

100-120

d)

50-70

12.

An AP foot requires what degree of CR angulation?

a)

0

b)

10

c)

30

d)

45

13.

The CR for a medial oblique foot should enter where?

a)

Base of the 3rd metatarsal

b)

Base of the 3rd DIP

c)

Base of the 3rd PIP

d)

Ankle joint

14.

Which of the following is considered evaluation criteria for a lateral tib/fib?

a)

Ankle joint included

b)

Knee joint included

c)

True lateral position

d)

All are correct

15.

Evaluation criteria for a plantodorsal calcaneous states what joint must be visualized?

a)

Mortise

b)

Distal tibofibular

c)

Talocalcaneal

d)

Sinus Tarsi

16.

The CR for a mortise view of the ankle enters at __________.

a)

Between lateral and medial malleoli

b)

Distal tibiofibular joint

c)

Talus

d)

Sustentaculum tali

17.

A medial oblique knee will show what distinct anatomy?

a)

Tibia and fibular superimposed

b)

Proximal tibiofibular joint open

c)

Proximal tibiofibular joint closed

d)

Fibular anterior to Tibia

18.

Which of the following views/methods will best demonstrate the intercondylar fossa?

a)

AP weight bearing knees

b)

Settegast

c)

Merchant

d)

Holmblad

19.

The CR for a lateral patella enters where?

a)

Perpendicular to mid femoropatellar joint

b)

Anterior to femoropatellar joint

c)

Popliteal surface

d)

Tibial plateau

20.

Which of the following would allow for a bilateral comparison view of both left and right patellas?

a)

Holmblad

b)

Camp Coventry

c)

Settegast

d)

Merchant

21.

The three bones that fuse to form the acetabulum are the:

a)

a) Ilium, ischium, and sacrum

b)

b) Ilium, ischium, and pubis

c)

c) Pubis, sacrum, and coccyx

d)

d) Ilium, sacrum, and coccyx

22.

The ilioischial and iliopubic columns are used to identify fractures of the:

a)

Pubic symphysis

b)

Femoral neck

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Greater trochanter

23.

The femoral neck forms an angle of approximately ___ with the shaft in an average adult.

a)

d) 145°

b)

c) 125°

c)

b) 110°

d)

a) 90°

24.

Draw your best Pelvis, label if you can.........

25.

For an AP pelvis, the lower limbs should be medially rotated ___ degrees to place the femoral necks parallel to the IR.

a)

15–20°

b)

25–30°

c)

10–15°

d)

5–10°

26.

The Taylor method (AP axial outlet) best demonstrates:

a)

Superior and inferior pubic rami without foreshortening

b)

The pelvic inlet

c)

The sacroiliac joints

d)

The acetabular rims

27.

For the Taylor (outlet) method, the CR is directed ___ for males and ___ for females.

a)

10° cephalad; 10° caudad

b)

15° cephalad; 15° caudad

c)

30–45° caudad; 20–25° caudad

d)

20–25° cephalad; 30–45° cephalad

28.

The Bridgeman (inlet) projection demonstrates:

a)

Obturator foramina symmetry

b)

Entire pelvic ring or inlet

c)

Posterior rim of the acetabulum

d)

Superior ramus only

29.

The central ray for the Bridgeman method is directed:

a)

15° caudad

b)

20°–25° cephalad

c)

40° caudad

d)

Perpendicular to the ASIS

30.

In the Judet method, the internal oblique position demonstrates the:

a)

Ilioischial column and anterior rim

b)

Iliopubic column and posterior rim

c)

Ischial tuberosity

d)

Pubic symphysis only

31.

The external oblique Judet projection requires rotation of the patient:

a)

60°

b)

45°

c)

30°

d)

25°

32.

The CR for the internal oblique Judet projection enters:

a)

Pubic symphysis

b)

2 inches inferior to ASIS of affected side

c)

1 inch superior to pubic symphysis

d)

1 inch inferior to iliac crest

33.

The Danelius-Miller projection demonstrates:

a)

The ilium in profile

b)

A lateral view of the hip and femoral neck

c)

The entire pelvis in an AP view

d)

Bilateral acetabula

34.

The Clements-Nakayama modification is indicated when:

a)

The patient can rotate both legs 45°

b)

There is a bilateral hip fracture or limited movement of the unaffected leg

c)

The patient is ambulatory

d)

The pelvis cannot be rotated

35.

Which pathology causes fusion of the sacroiliac joints and spine, leading to a “bamboo spine” appearance?

a)

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

b)

Ankylosing spondylitis

c)

Metastatic carcinoma

d)

Paget’s disease

36.

A flattened, laterally displaced femoral head in a child is indicative of:

a)

Osteogenesis imperfecta

b)

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease

c)

Osteoarthritis

d)

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

37.

During an AP pelvis projection, rotation is present if:

a)

The obturator foramina appear symmetric

b)

The sacrum is aligned with the pubic symphysis

c)

One obturator foramen appears closed

d)

Iliac wings appear equal in size

38.

The greater sciatic notch and ischial spine are part of the:

a)

Femur

b)

Ischium

c)

Pubis

d)

Ilium

39.

The iliac crest corresponds approximately to which vertebral level?

a)

T12

b)

S1

c)

L4–L5

d)

L1

40.

Describe this semester in 1-2 words.

2 lines
41.

What has been your favorite part of this semester?

4 lines