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Worksheets

Revision UPS3

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Gene mutation usually occurs during:

a)

DNA repair

b)

DNA replication

c)

Cell division

d)

DNA transcription

2.

A mutation in which only one nucleotide is altered is called a:

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Insertion Mutation

3.

When do random, or spontaneous, mutations happen?

a)

During cell division

b)

When cells are exposed to hazardous chemicals

c)

When cells are exposed to certain viruses

d)

When cells are exposed to radiation

4.

What type of mutation is shown in the diagram?

a)

Point mutation - missense

b)

Frameshift Mutation - deletion

c)

Frameshift Mutation - addition

d)

Point mutation - nonsense

5.

A type of mutation that affect every codon beyond the point of mutation.

a)

Point Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Nonsense Mutation

d)

Frameshift Mutation

6.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Nonsense mutation

b)

Missense mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Frameshift mutation

7.

The original gene is ABCDEF. The new sequence of gene is AEDCBF. What is the type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

Insertion

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Translocation

8.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

9.

Identify which of the following is a genetic mutation disease..

a)

Common head cold

b)

Cystic fibrosis

c)

Heart attack

d)

Chicken pox

10.

Which of the following is an example of a beneficial mutation?

a)

When an organism's lifespan becomes shorter.

b)

When an organism becomes unable to reproduce.

c)

When an organism's body becomes deformed.

d)

When an organism develops immunity to a disease.

11.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

12.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

13.

ATT-TGA-GCC- Original

ATT-GAG-CC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

14.

What type of gene mutation has occurred here?

  • Normal -AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
  • Mutant-AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)

deletion frameshift

b)

insertion frameshift

c)

substitution

d)

nonsense

15.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
16.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

17.
Which mutation will cause translation to stop? 
a)
Mutations 1 and 3 only
b)
Mutation 1 only
c)
Mutation 2 only
d)
Muations 1, 2, 3
18.

Which of these are the effect if base substitution mutation? Tick all correct answers

a)

Missense

b)

Silence

c)

Nonsense

d)

Frameshift

19.

If a nucleotide is substituted yet the amino acid produce is the same, the effect of mutation is ___________

a)

silence

b)

missense

c)

nonsense

d)

frameshift

20.

If a nucleotide is substituted, and it change one amino acid to to another. This effect is called

a)

Missense

b)

Nonsense

c)

Silence

d)

Frameshist

21.

In sickle-cell anemia..

a)

Glutamic acid is substituted with valine on Beta-polypeptide chain

b)

Valine is substituted with glutamic acid on Beta-polypeptide chain

c)

Glutamic acid is substituted with valine on alpha-polypeptide chain

d)

Valine is substituted with glutamic acid on alpha-polypeptide chain

22.

The polypeptide produced is truncated and short. The most likely type of point mutation that causes this is

a)

Base substitution - nonsense mutation

b)

Base substitution - missense mutation

c)

Insertion mutation

d)

Inversion mutation

23.

The insertion of a base pair into the genetic code will cause frameshift mutation, unless the number of the base pairs inserted is

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

24.

A nonsense mutation

a)

Usually results in the formation of an abnormally short polypeptide

b)

causes one amino acid to be changed to another

c)

caused by insertion mutation

d)

resulted from deletion of one or two bases

25.

This individual suffers from which chromosomal genetic disorder?

a)

Klienfelter's Syndrome

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Cris-du-Chat Syndrome

d)

Andrew's Syndrome

26.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Inversion
b)
Duplication
c)
Deletion
d)
Translocation
27.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Deletion
b)
Inversion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
28.

Nondisjunction

a)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off.

b)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches.

c)

When a segment of a chromosome is copied or doubles.

d)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks and attaches to a non homologous chromosome.

e)

When entire chromosomes don't separate evenly during meiosis.

29.

Nondisjunction in Meiosis I is more deleterious than nondisjunction in Meiosis II

a)

True

b)

False

30.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Down Syndrome
a)
Flattened face
b)
Eyes slanting upward
c)
Unusual palm crease
d)
Less flexible
31.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Klinefelter Syndrome?
a)
Tall stature
b)
Development of male breasts
c)
Poor muscle tone
d)
Webbed neck
32.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Turner's Syndrome?
a)
Webbed neck
b)
Shorter stature
c)
Ear malformations
d)
Slanted eyes
33.

Why is nondisjunction in Meiosis I is more deleterious than nondisjunction in in Meiosis II?

a)

All gametes formed are abnormal

b)

75% of the gametes formed are abnormal

c)

50% of the gametes formed are abnormal

d)

25% of the gametes formed are normal

34.

Polyploidy refers to

a)

Multiple ribosomes present on a single mRNA

b)

a chromosome which has replicated but not divided

c)

an individual with extra sets of chromosomes

d)

extra copies of gene adjacent to each other on a chromosome

35.

Which one of the following is a polyploidy cell

a)

1n

b)

2n

c)

4n

d)

non of them

36.

polyploidy is important to the field of

a)

medicines

b)

embryology

c)

agriculture

d)

physics

37.

Human cell with 3n is

a)

big cell

b)

dead cell

c)

cancer cell

d)

skin cell

38.

How to produce fertile individuals from sterile individuals with unusual number of chromosomes?

a)

Double the chromosomes number

b)

Reduce the chromosomes number

39.

These are the reasons why sterile offspring may be produced from fusion of two different species.. EXCEPT

a)

No homologous pair

b)

No meiosis

c)

No gamete

d)

No mitosis

40.

Which of the followings is an example of modifying enzymes?

a)

BamH1

b)

SMA1

c)

DNA ligase

d)

DNA polymerase

41.
Which is true about plasmids?
a)
Plasmids can be cut at specific sequences called restriction sites.
b)
Plasmids contain a promoter sequence that defines where transcription begins.
c)
Plasmids can contain an antibiotic resistance gene.
d)
All of the statements are true about plasmids.
42.
A ____________ is required to transfer genes from one organism to another.
a)
vector
b)
reverse transcriptase
c)
transport molecule
d)
genetic probe
43.
What is a cloning vector?
a)
The DNA probe used to locate a particular gene in the genome.
b)
An agent such as plasmid, used to transfer DNA from an in vitro solution into a living cell.
c)
The laboratory apparatus used to clone genes.
d)
An enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments.
44.
Which of the following model organisms is often used in rDNA technology to make insulin?
a)
small squid
b)
mouse
c)
fruit fly
d)
E. coli
45.
What are the typical characteristics of a cloning vector?
a)
Bacterial cells cannot survive without it when grown under certain conditions.
b)
It contains restriction sites that allow the insertion of foreign DNA segments.
c)
It can replicate in bacterial cells.
d)
All of the above.
46.
 Which of the following statement about plasmid is correct?
I ) It can replicate by itself
II ) Hybrid plasmid is introduced into bacteria by transformation
III ) Other than bacteria, plasmid can also be found in bacteriophage
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
I,II and III
47.

Which restriction enzyme listed below was isolated from E. coli bacteria?

a)

EcoRI

b)

HindIII

c)

HaeII

d)

SmaI

48.

Which of these is the sequence recognised by EcoR1?

a)

5'- GAATTC -3'

b)

3'- GAATTC- 5'

c)

3'- CAATTG- 5'

d)

5'- CAATTG-3'

49.

Which of these sequences is recognised by SMA1

a)

5'- CCCGGG -3'

b)

5'- CCGCGG -3'

c)

5'-GGGCCC -3'

d)

5'-GGCGCC -3'

50.

What type of cut is this photo?

a)

Blunt

b)

sticky

51.
Which of the following accurately describe the steps of recombinant DNA technology using bacteria?
a)
plasmid & genes are cut --> cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
b)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected
c)
plasmid & genes are cut -->bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply --> bacteria are broken open & protein is collected-->cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria
d)
cut DNA joined with ligase to make rDNA plasmids --> rDNA plasmids are inserted into the bacteria --> bacteria & rDNA plasmid multiply 
52.
Which of the following terms describes the process of the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?
a)
rDNA technology
b)
transferrence
c)
transformation
d)
rDNA plasmid
53.
What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into bacterium?
I) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
II) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV) Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.
V) Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA

a)
I, II, IV, III, V
b)
III, II, IV, V, I
c)
II, III, V, IV, I
d)
III, IV, V, I, II
54.

Following transformation and amplification, the bacteria with NO plasmid will...

a)

Not forming colony

b)

Will stain blue

c)

Will stain white

d)

Will form patches

55.

Following transformation and amplification, the bacteria with ORIGINAL plasmid will...

a)

Not forming colony

b)

Will stain blue

c)

Will stain white

d)

Will form patches

56.

Following transformation and amplification, the bacteria with RECOMBINANT plasmid will...

a)

Not forming colony

b)

Will stain blue

c)

Will stain white

d)

Will form patches

57.

Which structure of plasmid that is important for selection of transformed bacteria with plasmid?

a)

ampR gene

b)

Ori

c)

lacZ

d)

GAATTC restriction site

58.

Tick all correct answers.


Insertion of target genes...

a)

Will cause the lacZ gene unable to be expressed

b)

Will cause the lacZ gene able to be expressed

c)

Will cause the bacteria to be stained blue

d)

Will cause the bacteria to be stained white

59.

Why is it critical to cut both DNA with target genes and plasmid by using the same restriction enzymes?

a)

To produce nucleotide ends that are complementary to each other

b)

To produce one recombinant plasmid with no nucleotide gaps

c)

To allow screening to occur

d)

To allow transformation to happen

60.

Which enzyme completes the production of double-stranded cDNA?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Reverse transcriptase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

RNA polymerase

61.

Which of these is used by reverse transcriptase as template to produce cDNA?

a)

mRNA

b)

template strands of DNA

c)

codding strands of DNA

d)

rRNA

62.

Tick all correct answers on what makes cDNA is suitable to be used in genetic engineering

a)

Represent the genes without exons

b)

It can be used directly to express the desired protein

c)

Derived from processed mRNA

d)

Gene can be expressed without damaging the DNA