wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Communication Engineering

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In PCM the quantization noise depends on

a)

sampling rate

b)

signal strength

c)

number of quantization levels

d)

none of the above

2.

Quantization noise occurs in

a)

FSK

b)

PCM

c)

QPSK

d)

None of above

3.

The modulation method that represents bits as different phase shifts of a carrier is known as

(a)  

4.

The number of different phase shifts used in QPSK are

(a)  

5.

16QAM technique is based on .......... and ............parameters of carrier signal

a)

amplitude

b)

phase

c)

frequency

6.

In FSK the frequency of sinusoidal carrier is shifted between .......... discrete values, in response to value of digital signal

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

7.

In FSK demodulator, envelope detector are simple (a)   which rectify and filter their inputs to generate a dc voltage proportional to ac input.

8.

The baud rate and bit rate for these systems are same

a)

ASK

b)

BFSK

c)

BPSK

d)

QPSK

e)

64QAM

9.

Let us assume using QAM we want to transmit a symbol consisting of 4 bits . So how many different possible symbol can we have

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

e)

64

10.

32QAM technique is based on .......... and ............parameters of carrier signal

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

phase

11.

Which is called as on-off keying?

a)

Amplitude shift keying

b)

Uni-polar PAM

c)

Amplitude shift keying & Uni-polar PAM

d)

None of the mentioned

12.

FSK reception is

a)

Phase Coherent

b)

Phase non coherent

c)

Phase Coherent & non coherent

d)

None of the mentioned

13.

QAM uses ______ as the dimensions.

a)

In phase

b)

Quadrature

c)

In phase & Quadrature

d)

None of the mentioned

14.

Which has same probability of error?

a)

BPSK and QPSK

b)

BPSK and ASK

c)

BPSK and PAM

d)

BPSK and QAM

15.

Which system uses QAM?

a)

Digital microwave relay

b)

Dial up modem

c)

Digital microwave relay & Dial up modem

d)

None of the mentioned

16.

Modulation process corresponds to ______ the amplitude, frequency or phase.

a)

Switching

b)

Keying

c)

Switching or keying

d)

None of the mentioned

17.

In DPSK technique, the technique used to encode bits is

a)

AMI

b)

Differential code

c)

Uni polar RZ format

d)

Manchester format

18.

In binary data transmission DPSK is preferred to PSK because

a)

a coherent carrier is not required to be generated at the receiver

b)

for a given energy per bit, the probability of error is less

c)

the 1800 phase shifts of the carrier are unimportant

d)

more protection is provided against impulse noise

19.

For the signal constellation shown in the figure, the type of modulation is

a)

QPSK

b)

FSK

c)

ASK

d)

PSK

20.

A DPSK wave is obtained by

a)

BPSK

b)

Differential encoding followed by BPSK

c)

Differential Encoding

d)

None

21.

For coherent FSK modulation probability of error

a)

Pe=12erfc(Eb2No)Pe=\frac{1}{2}erfc\left(\sqrt{\frac{Eb}{2No}}\right)

b)

Pe=12erfc(12EbN0)Pe=\frac{1}{2}erfc\left(\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{Eb}{N0}}\right)

c)

Pe=12erfc(EbN0)Pe=\frac{1}{2}erfc\left(\sqrt{\frac{Eb}{N0}}\right)

d)

None

22.

QPSK uses a phase shift of

a)

π\pi

b)

π2\frac{\pi}{2}

c)

π4\frac{\pi}{4}

d)

2π2\pi

23.

QPSK uses a phase shift of

a)

π\pi

b)

π2\frac{\pi}{2}

c)

π4\frac{\pi}{4}

d)

2π2\pi

24.

The Maximum bandwidth is occupied by

a)

ASK

b)

BPSK

c)

FSK

d)

None

25.

In Amplitude Modulation, the instantaneous values of the carrier amplitude changes in accordance with the amplitude and frequency variations of the modulating signal.

a)

a) True

b)

b) False

26.

What is the line connecting the positive and negative peaks of the carrier waveform called?

a)

a) Peak line

b)

b) Maximum amplitude ceiling

c)

c) Modulation index

d)

d) Envelope

27.

What is the line connecting the positive and negative peaks of the carrier waveform called?

a)

a) Peak line

b)

b) Maximum amplitude ceiling

c)

c) Modulation index

d)

d) Envelope

28.

What is the reference line for the modulating signal?

a)

a) Zero line

b)

b) Carrier peak line

c)

c) Modulated peak line

d)

d) Un-modulated peak line

29.

What is the reference line for the modulating signal?

a)

a) Zero line

b)

b) Carrier peak line

c)

c) Modulated peak line

d)

d) Un-modulated peak line

30.

What happens when the amplitude of the modulating signal is greater than the amplitude of the carrier?

a)

a) Decay

b)

b) Distortion

c)

c) Amplification

d)

d) Attenuation

31.

What is the effect of distortion?

a)

a) Total information loss

b)

b) Error information

c)

c) Attenuated information

d)

d) Amplified information

32.

What is the circuit used for producing AM called?

a)

a) Modulator

b)

b) Transmitter

c)

c) Receiver

d)

d) Duplexer

33.

The ratio between the modulating signal voltage and the carrier voltage is called?

a)

a) Amplitude modulation

b)

b) Modulation frequency

c)

c) Modulation index

d)

d) Ratio of modulation

34.

What is the modulation index value if Vmax=5.9v and Vmin=1.2v?

a)

a) 0.5

b)

b) 0.662

c)

c) 0.425

d)

d) 0.14

35.

What is the modulating signal voltage if the maximum and the minimum voltages on the wave was observed to be 5.9v and 1.2v respectively?

a)

a) 2.35v

b)

b) 2.12v

c)

c) 1.85v

d)

d) 3.21v

36.

What is the condition for greatest output power at the transmitter without distortion?

a)

a) Modulating signal voltage > Carrier voltage

b)

b) Modulating signal voltage < Carrier voltage

c)

c) Modulating signal voltage = Carrier voltage

d)

d) Modulating signal voltage = 0

37.

What happens when the amplitude of the modulating signal is greater than the amplitude of the carrier?

a)

a) Decay

b)

b) Distortion

c)

c) Amplification

d)

d) Attenuation

38.

What is the condition for greatest output power at the transmitter without distortion?

a)

a) Modulating signal voltage > Carrier voltage

b)

b) Modulating signal voltage < Carrier voltage

c)

c) Modulating signal voltage = Carrier voltage

d)

d) Modulating signal voltage = 0

39.

What is the maximum frequency deviation allowed in commercial FM broadcasting?

a)

100 KHz

b)

75 KHz

c)

150 KHz

d)

20 KHz

40.

In Frequency Modulation –

a)

Amplitude of the carrier remains same

b)

Frequency of the carrier varies in accordance with the modulating signal

c)

The number of side bands are infinite

d)

Amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the modulating signal

41.

A 100 MHz carrier is deviated 50 kHz by a 4 kHz signal. The modulation index is _______.

a)

5

b)

8

c)

12.5

d)

20

42.

FM bandwidth can be approximated by:

a)

Armstrong Rule

b)

Bessel's Rule

c)

Carson's Rule

d)

none of these

43.

FREQUENCY MODULATION

a)

Changing the frequency to increase energy of a electromagnetic wave

b)

A method of transmitting signals by changing the amplitude of the wave

c)

Changing the volume of a broadcast signal

d)

A method of transmitting signals by changing the frequency of the wave

44.

How are amplitude modulation and frequency modulation techniques similar?

a)

Both are used by radio stations to transmit sound.

b)

Both are used by MTV

c)

They modulate frequency

d)

They modulate amplitude

45.

Transmitted power in FM system is

a)

always constant

b)

dependent on the number of sidebands

c)

dependent on the total bandwidth

d)

all of above

46.

What type of wave modulation is represented here?

a)

FM modulation

b)

AM modulation

47.

What type of modulation is represented by this wait?

a)

FM modulation

b)

AM modulation

48.

Spread spectrum modulation involves

1.PN sequence for modulation

2. Large bandwidth

3. Multiple users

a)

1) and 2) are correct

b)

1) and 3) are correct

c)

2) and 3) are correct

d)

All the three are correct

49.

PN sequence at the decoder acts as a locally generated carrier at the receiver and decodes the signal using

a)

Correlator

b)

Adder

c)

Frequency divider

d)

PLL

50.

In spread spectrum technique, the multiple users are assigned

a)

Same spectrum and same PN code

b)

Same spectrum and different PN code

c)

Different spectrum and different PN code

d)

Different spectrum and same PN code

51.

Advantage of using Spread Spectrum modulation is/are

1.Interference rejection capability

2. Frequency planning is not required

3. Resistance to multipath fading

4. ISI is lesser

a)

1) and 2) are correct

b)

1), 2) and 3) are correct

c)

2) and 3) are correct

d)

All the four are correct

52.

Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses

a)

DPSK

b)

FSK

c)

ASK

d)

QPSK

53.

Fast hopping is

a)

More than one frequency hop during each symbol

b)

Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate

c)

One or more symbols transmitted between frequency hops

d)

Both a) and b)

54.

Slow frequency hopping refers to

a)

One or more symbols transmitted in time interval between frequency hops

b)

More than one frequency hop during each symbol

c)

Hopping rate greater than or equal to information symbol rate

d)

Both a) and c) are correct

55.

The transmission bandwidth of spread spectrum techniques is equal to the minimum required signal bandwidth.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

The transmission bandwidth of spread spectrum techniques is equal to the minimum required signal bandwidth.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following is not a property of spread spectrum techniques?

a)

Interference rejection capability

b)

Multipath fading

c)

Frequency planning elimination

d)

Multiple user, multiple access interface

58.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of PN sequence?

a)

Nearly equal number of 0s and1s

b)

Low correlation between shifted version of sequence

c)

Non deterministic

d)

Low cross-correlation between any two sequences

59.

PN sequence can be generated using sequential logic circuits.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The period of a PN sequence produced by a linear m stage shift register cannot exceed _____ symbols.

a)

2m

b)

m

c)

2m

d)

2m-1

61.

DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a pseudo noise sequence.

a)

Adding

b)

Subtracting

c)

Multiplying

d)

Dividing

62.

Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______

a)

Signal

b)

Frequency

c)

Phase

d)

Amplitude

63.

The processing gain of FH systems is given by ratio of _______

a)

Hopping bandwidth and hopping period

b)

Instantaneous bandwidth and hopping duration

c)

3 dB bandwidth and bit rate

d)

Total hopping bandwidth and instantaneous bandwidth

64.

In fast frequency hopping, hopping rate is less than the information symbol rate. State whether True or False.

a)

False

b)

True

65.

Pseudorandom signal ________ predicted.

a)

Can be

b)

Cannot be

c)

maybe

d)

None of the mentioned

66.

The properties used for pseudorandom sequence are

a)

Balance

b)

Run

c)

Correlation

d)

All of the mentioned

67.

If the initial pulse of 1000 is fed to shift register, after how many clock pulses does the sequence repeat?

a)

15

b)

16

c)

14

d)

17

68.

The sequences produced by shift register depends on

a)

Number of stages

b)

Feedback tap connections

c)

Initial conditions

d)

All of the mentioned

69.

The ratio (J/S)reqd gives the measure of

a)

Vulnerability to interference

b)

Invulnerability to interference

c)

All of the mentioned

d)

None of the mentioned

70.

Modulation refers to a low frequency signal controlling the

a)

amplitude of the carrier

b)

frequency of the carrier

c)

phase of the carrier

d)

any of the above

71.

In an AM wave the majority of the power is in

a)

lower sideband

b)

Carrier

c)

Upper Sideband

d)

None of the above

72.

If level of modulation is increased ................ power is increased.

a)

carrier

b)

carrier as well as sideband

c)

sideband

d)

None of the above

73.

At 100% modulation the power in each sideband is ............ of that of carrier.

a)

50%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

25%

74.

Overmodulation results in

a)

weakening of the signal

b)

excessive carrier power

c)

distortion

d)

none of the above

75.

The major advantage of FM over AM is

a)

reception is less noisy

b)

higher carrier frequency

c)

smaller bandwidth

d)

small frequency deviation

76.

Which are the additional stages in FM receiver

a)

AF amplifier

b)

limiter

c)

descriminator

d)

selector

e)

None of the above

77.

The antenna length is smaller for FM broadcasting because the wavelength of FM is short

a)

True

b)

False

78.

For FM the value of modulation index can be greater than 1

a)

True

b)

False

79.

AM wave contains three frequencies

a)

True

b)

False

80.

In FM the amplitude of the wave is

a)

remains same as carrier

b)

reduces

c)

increases

d)

none of the above

81.

The bandwidth of AM wave is ....... times signal frequency

a)

0

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

e)

None of the above

82.

The maximum peak to peak voltage of an AM wave is 16 mV while the minimum peak to peak voltage is 8 mV. Find the percent modulation

a)

33.33%

b)

55%

c)

60%

d)

66%

83.

An AM transmitter supplies 10 kW to the antenna when unmodulated. Determine the total power radiated by the transmitter when modulated to 30%

a)

11%

b)

10.45%

c)

9.5%

d)

12.45%

84.

The r.m.s antenna current of an AM transmitter increases by 15 % over the unmodulated value when sinusoidal modulation is applied. What is the modulation index

a)

0.7

b)

0.5

c)

0.8

d)

1

85.

The r.m.s value of carrier voltage is 100 V. After amplitude modulation by an audio signal, r.m.s value becomes 110.Calculate the modulation index

a)

64.8%

b)

68.4%

c)

66.45%

d)

60%

86.

A certain AM transmitter radiates 8kW with carrier unmodulated and 9kW when the carrier is modulated. Find the percentage modulation

a)

25%

b)

60%

c)

50%

d)

0.5%

87.

By suppressing carrier component from AM wave, we have

a)

SSB

b)

VSB

c)

DSB-SC

d)

DSB-FC

88.

The ring modulator is used for which type a modulation ___

a)

AM

b)

SSB

c)

DSB-SC

d)

VSB

89.

The bandwidth of VSB is ___

a)

fm-fv

b)

fm+fv

c)

fm ±fv

d)

none

90.

For Television signal broad casting the following modulation is useful

a)

SSB

b)

DSB-SC

c)

VSB

d)

AM

91.

The bandwidth of SSB is ___

a)

ωm

b)

m

c)

ωm/2

d)

ωm/4

92.

SSB can be used to transmit

a)

two side bands

b)

one side band

c)

one side band and vestigial side band

d)

Vestigial side band

93.

Vestigial side band signals are detected by

a)

Filters

b)

Synchronous detection

c)

Balanced modulator

d)

None of the above

94.

Phase shift method is

a)

Includes two balanced modulators

b)

Two phase shifting networks

c)

Avoids the use of filters

d)

All of the above

95.

Phase shift method is

a)

Includes two balanced modulators

b)

Two phase shifting networks

c)

Avoids the use of filters

d)

All of the above

96.

Limitations of Frequency discrimination method are:

a)

Cannot be used for video signals

b)

Designing of band pass filter is difficult

c)

Both -option1 and option2

d)

None of the above

97.

The most commonly used filters in SSB generation are

a)

mechanical

b)

RC

c)

LC

d)

low-pass

98.
What does modulation refer to?
a)
Putting audio onto the RF carrier signal
b)
The height of an audio wave
c)
How many times a wave repeats itself in a second
d)
How loud your audio is
99.
What does frequency refer to?
a)
Putting audio onto the RF carrier signal
b)
The height of an audio wave
c)
How many times a wave repeats itself in a second
d)
How loud your audio is
100.
What is the FCC assigned frequency range for AM stations?
a)
540 to 1700
b)
520 to 1100
c)
560 to 880
d)
530 to 1600
101.
What is the FCC assigned frequency range for FM stations?
a)
81.9 to 101.7
b)
87.9 to 107.9
c)
89.9 to 108.1
d)
88.1 to 106.9
102.
What happens if you overmodulate?
a)
Maybe distortion, Maybe interferance
b)
Too much power output
c)
Distortion but not interferance
d)
Interferance but not distortion
103.

What is quantization process

a)

Rounding

b)

truncation

c)

Both

d)

none of the above

104.

Aperture effect occurs in PAM which can be avoided by

a)

diversity

b)

equalizer

c)

modulator

d)

Filtering

105.

Aliasing occurs due to

a)

Fs < 2Fm

b)

Fs= 2Fm

c)

Fs> Fm

d)

Fs>= Fm

106.

Nyquist sampling Criteria

a)

Fs> 2Fm

b)

Fs>= 2 Fm

c)

Fs< Fm

d)

Fs>=Fm

107.

Types of Sampling not includes

a)

Impulse sampling

b)

Natural Sampling

c)

Pulse sampling

d)

Flat top Sampling

108.

The sequence of operations in which PCM is done is

a)

Quantization , encoding , Sampling

b)

encoding ,Quantization , Sampling

c)

Sampling, encoding ,Quantization ,

d)

Sampling, Quantization , encoding

109.

In PCM encoding, quantization level varies as a function of ________

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Square of frequency

d)

Square of amplitude

110.

One of the disadvantages of PCM is

a)

large bandwidth

b)

Very high noise

c)

cannot be decoded

d)

All the above

111.

The error probability of a PCM is

a)

Calculated using noise and inter symbol interference

b)

Gaussian noise + error component due to inter symbol interference

c)

Calculated using power spectral density

d)

All of the above

112.

Quantization noise can be reduced by ________ the number of levels

a)

Decreasing

b)

increasing

c)

doubling

d)

reduced to half

113.

In uniform quantization process

a)

The step size remains same

b)

Step size varies according to the values of the input signal

c)

The quantizer has linear characteristics

d)

Both a and c are correct

114.

Source coding reduces

a)

Redundancy

b)

Average bit rate

c)

Redundancy & Average bit rate

d)

None of the mentioned

115.

The modulation techniques used to convert analog signal into digital signal are

a)

a.Pulse code modulation

b)

b.Delta modulation

c)

c.Amplitude modulation

d)

Both a and b

116.

A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at point first point, and power is P2 at second point. The dB is zero means

a)

P2 is zero

b)

P2 equal to P1

c)

P2 larger than P1

d)

P2 smaller than P1

117.

What is Manchester encoding?

a)

Digitisation of Oasis tracks

b)

A system of representing digital information by transitions

c)

Coding where 1 = on, 0 = off

d)

A filter pipeline

118.

Eye pattern

a)

Is used to study ISI

b)

May be seen on CRO

c)

Resembles the shape of human eye

d)

All of the above

119.

The time interval over which the received signal may be sampled without error may be explained by

a)

Width of eye opening of eye pattern

b)

Rate of closure of eye of eye pattern

c)

Height of the eye opening of eye pattern

d)

All of the above

120.

The criterion used for pulse shaping to avoid ISI is

a)

Nyquist criterion

b)

Quantization

c)

Sample and hold

d)

PLL

121.

The Nyquist theorem

a)

Relates the conditions in time domain and frequency domain

b)

Helps in quantization

c)

Limits the bandwidth requirement

d)

Both a) and c)

122.

Equalization in digital communication

a)

Reduces inter symbol interference

b)

Removes distortion caused due to channel

c)

Is done using linear filters

d)

All of the above

123.

Zero forced equalizers are used for

a)

Reducing ISI to zero

b)

Sampling

c)

Quantization

d)

None of the above

124.

The transmission bandwidth of the raised cosine spectrum is given by

a)

Bt = 2w(1 + α)

b)

Bt = w(1 + α)

c)

Bt = 2w(1 + 2α)

d)

Bt = 2w(2 + α)

125.

A pulse shaping filter should satisfy two requirements. They are

a)

Should be realizable

b)

Should have proper roll off factor

c)

Should be realizable & have proper roll off factor

d)

None of the mentioned

126.

Equalization process includes

a)

Maximum likelihood sequence estimation

b)

Equalization with filters

c)

Maximum likelihood sequence estimation & Equalization with filters

d)

None of the mentioned

127.

Transversal equalizers are ________ and decision feedback equalizers are ______

a)

Feed forward, feed back

b)

Feed back, feed forward

c)

Feed forward, feed forward

d)

Feedback, feedback

128.

For M equally likely messages, the average amount of information H is

a)

H = log10M

b)

H = log2M

c)

H = log10M2

d)

H = 2log10M

129.

The channel capacity is

a)

The maximum information transmitted by one symbol over the channel

b)

Information contained in a signal

c)

The amplitude of the modulated signal

d)

All of the above

130.

According to Shannon Hartley theorem,

a)

The channel capacity becomes infinite with infinite bandwidth

b)

The channel capacity does not become infinite with infinite bandwidth

c)

Has a tradeoff between bandwidth and Signal to noise ratio

d)

The channel capacity does not become infinite with infinite bandwidth and has a tradeoff between bandwidth and Signal to noise ratio

131.

The channel capacity according to Shannon's equation is

a)

Maximum error free communication

b)

Defined for optimum system

c)

Information transmitted

d)

All of the above

132.

The technique that may be used to increase average information per bit is

a)

Shannon-Fano algorithm

b)

ASK

c)

FSK

d)

Digital modulation techniques

133.

Code rate r, k information bits and n as total bits, is defined as

a)

r = k/n

b)

k = n/r

c)

r = k * n

d)

n = r * k

134.

Information rate is defined as

a)

Information per unit time

b)

Average number of bits of information per second

c)

rH

d)

All of the above

135.

The mutual information

a)

Is symmetric

b)

Always non negative

c)

Is symmetric & Always non negative

d)

None of the above

136.

Entropy is

a)

Average information per message

b)

Information in a signal

c)

Amplitude of signal

d)

All of the above

137.

The memory less source refers to

a)

No previous information

b)

No message storage

c)

Emitted message is independent of previous message

d)

None of the above

138.

The expected information contained in a message is called

a)

Entropy

b)

Efficiency

c)

Coded signal

d)

None of the above

139.

In discrete memoryless source, the current letter produced by a source is statistically independent of _____

a)

Past output

b)

Future output

c)

Past output & Future output

d)

None of the above

140.

Huffman coding technique is adopted for constructing the source code with ________ redundancy.

a)

Maximum

b)

Constant

c)

Minimum

d)

Unpredictable

141.

Which type of channel does not represent any correlation between input and output symbols?

a)

Noiseless Channel

b)

Lossless Channel

c)

Useless Channel

d)

Deterministic Channel

142.

In digital communication system, smaller the code rate, _________are the redundant bits.

a)

less

b)

more

c)

equal

d)

unpredictable

143.

Which among the following is/are the essential condition/s for a good error control coding technique?

a)

Faster coding & decoding methods

b)

Better error correcting capability

c)

Maximum transfer of information in bits/sec

d)

All of the above

144.

Select the source coding techniques.

a)

prefix coding

b)

Shannon-fano coding

c)

Huffman coding

d)

All of the mentioned.

145.

_________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations.

a)

Controlled access

b)

Channelization

c)

Random access

d)

None of these

146.

In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.

a)

None of these

b)

TDMA

c)

FDMA

d)

CDMA

147.

In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

a)

None of these

b)

TDMA

c)

FDMA

d)

CDMA

148.

TDMA allows the user to have

a)

Use of same frequency channel for same time slot

b)

Use of same frequency channel for different time slot

c)

Use of same time slot for different frequency channel

d)

Use of different time slot for different frequency channels

149.

TDMA is a multiple access technique that has

a)

Different users in different time slots

b)

Each user is assigned unique frequency slots

c)

Each user is assigned a unique code sequence

d)

Each signal is modulated with frequency modulation technique

150.

GSM is an example of

a)

TDMA cellular systems

b)

FDMA cellular systems

c)

CDMA cellular systems

d)

SDMA cellular systems

151.

Preamble contains ________

a)

Address

b)

Data

c)

Guard bits

d)

Trail bits

152.

__________ are utilized to allow synchronization of the receivers between different slots and frames.

a)

Preamble

b)

Data

c)

Guard bits

d)

Trail bits

153.

Because of _______ transmissions in TDMA, the handoff process in __________

a)

Continuous, complex

b)

Continuous, simple

c)

Discontinuous, complex

d)

Discontinuous, simple

154.

_________ synchronization overhead is required in TDMA due to _______ transmission.

a)

High, burst

b)

High, continuous

c)

Low, burst

d)

No, burst

155.

Because of _______ transmissions in TDMA, the handoff process in __________

a)

Continuous, complex

b)

Continuous, simple

c)

Discontinuous, complex

d)

Discontinuous, simple

156.

A TDMA system uses 25 MHz for the forward link, which is broken into radio channels of 200 kHz. If 8 speech channels are supported on a single radio channel, how many simultaneous users can be accommodated?

a)

25

b)

200

c)

1600

d)

1000

157.

In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time.

a)

None of these

b)

TDMA

c)

FDMA

d)

CDMA

158.

In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands.

a)

None of these

b)

TDMA

c)

FDMA

d)

CDMA

159.

In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time.

a)

CDMA

b)

None of these

c)

TDMA

d)

FDMA

160.

FDM consists of

a)

upstream frequency channels

b)

downstream frequency channels

c)

all of above