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RADTHERA QUIZ

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

These are other names of brachytherapy, EXCEPT?

 

a)

Implant radiation therapy

b)

External radiotherapy

c)

Endocurietherapy

d)

Curie radiotherapy

2.

The following are benefits of brachytherapy, EXCEPT?

 

a)

Can be performed on an outpatient basis

b)

Is very effective in treating cancer

c)

Has a minimized risk of side effects

d)

Is an invasive technique

3.

The treatment time for EBRT

 

a)

3-5 weeks

b)

1-5 days

c)

6-8 weeks

d)

2-5 days

4.

The following are side effects of brachytherapy, EXCEPT?

 

a)

Erection problem

b)

Effects on liver

c)

Effects on the bladder

d)

Infertility

5.

Different types of brachytherapy can be defined according to, EXCEPT?

 

a)

Duration of dose delivery

b)

None

c)

Placement of radiation source

d)

The rate of the radiation intensity delivered to the body

6.

Brachytherapy that involves placement of the radiation source in a space next to the target tissue

a)

Contact

b)

Intraluminal

c)

None

d)

Interstitial

7.

When a part of an artery with a stent gets blocked

 

a)

ISR

b)

CIR

c)

IST

d)

RIS

8.

A radiation source that can also be placed in blood vessels

 

a)

Intraluminal

b)

Intracavitary

c)

Intravenous

d)

NONE

9.

Temporary brachytherapy is also known as?

 

a)

High dose rate brachytherapy

b)

Permanent brachytherapy

c)

none

d)

Low dose rate brachytherapy

10.

Seeds are used in permanent seed implant therapy involving injecting approximately 30-100 radioactive seeds into the prostate gland

 

a)

Pd- 103

b)

l-131

c)

Au-198

d)

Cs-137

11.

It is commonly used in lung cancer, prostate cancer, breast cancer, and osteosarcoma

 

a)

P-132

b)

Lu-177

c)

Sm -155

d)

l-125

12.

Yttrium 90 (Y-90) is used for the following, EXCEPT?

 

 

a)

Metastatic colon cancer

b)

Neuroendocrine tumors

c)

Prostate cancer

d)

Liver cancer

13.

Used in medicine for cancer radiation therapy, especially for eye and skin tumors

 

 

a)

Tu-106

b)

Cf-252

c)

Pd-103

d)

l-125

14.

Sources for the treatment of carcinoma of cervix uteri.

 

a)

Pd-103

b)

P-132

c)

lr-192

d)

Cs-137

15.

This is a boost technique frequently used to deliver an additional dose of radiation therapy to the tumor bed following breast conserving surgery and combined with external beam radiation therapy to the entire breast for patients with early breast cancer.

a)

Ir-192

b)

Pd-103

c)

P-132

d)

Cs-137

16.

It’s goal is to determine the treatment position that will be use daily, to make devices that will help the patient maintain that position and to obtain the necessary images from treatment planning.

 

a)

  Simulation

b)

  Treatment Delivery

c)

None

d)

  Treatment planning

17.

Helps implement the treatment plan by determining the number and duration of the treatment session.

a)

  Therapy nurse

b)

  Medical physiscist

c)

Dosimetrist

d)

Oncologist

18.

Specially trained to operate the sophisticated systems of computer used for radiation treatment.

a)

  Oncologist

b)

  Medical physicist

c)

  Dosimetrist

d)

  Radiologic Technologist

19.

Helps patients understanding and cope with the side effects of radiation.

a)

  Dosimetrist

b)

  Radiologic Technologist

c)

  Medical physiscist

d)

  Therapy Nurse

20.

A board certified specialist/physician who evaluates the patient, determines the appropriate therapy and area to be treated.

a)

  Medical physicist

b)

  Radiologic Technologist

c)

  Oncologist

d)

  Dosimetrist

21.

Assists the team by assuring the quality and calibration of the therapy systems used for patient care making proper radiation dose given and assisting with the development of new applications.

a)

  Oncologist

b)

  Dosimetrist

c)

  Radiation Physicist

d)

  Radiologic Technologist

22.

The following are advantages of Teletherapy, EXCEPT?

a)

  Invasive

b)

  Large field even the whole body can be accommodated.

c)

  Any anatomical site can be treated

d)

  Usually done in an OUT patient basis

23.

The following are disadvantages of Radiotherapy, EXCEPT?

 

a)

  It requires specially designed room for radiation protection

b)

  IMPOTENCE is up to 77% of men

c)

  None

d)

  No significant dose to the staff, Family members.

24.

The following are treatment Therapy Process, EXCEPT?

a)

  Diagnosis

b)

  Simulation

c)

none

d)

  Treatment planning

25.

The following are common side effects of radiation therapy, EXCEPT?

 

a)

  fatigue

b)

  Skin rashes

c)

  Vomiting

d)

  Loss of hair

26.

The following are ionizing radiations used in radiotherapy, EXCEPT?

 

 

a)

none

b)

gamma

c)

x-ray

d)

beta

27.

Gamma rays are produced spontaneously as certain elements such as the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Radium

b)

  Cobalt 60

c)

  Uranium,

d)

  Iodine 131

28.

A gamma knife treatment delivers a total of_________ beams of radiation intersect to form a powerful tool focused on a targeted area of abnormal or cancerous  tissue within the brain.

a)

100

b)

200

c)

201

d)

300

29.

The following can be used as simulation machines, EXCEPT?

a)

  Nuclear Medicine

b)

  CT scan

c)

  MRI

d)

  X-ray

30.

During __________ the area of the patients body to be treated is marked directly on the patients skin with markers.

  Treatment delivery

  Simulation

  None

  Diagnosis

a)

  Treatment delivery

b)

  Simulation

c)

  None

d)

  Diagnosis

31.

The Dosimetrist, Oncologist, Physicist will generate treatment plan that delivers the appropriate dose to the tumour while minimizing dose to surrounding normal tissue.

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Treatment process can take 10-15 minutes each week.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Some patient may experienced nausea from radiation therapy. In such cases nausea usually occurs during the 1st few days after radiation.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

Patient should only use soap and lukewarm water on the skin during radiation treatment.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Fatigue can also result from stress of dealing with diagnosis and treatment of cancer.

a)

true

b)

false

36.

The process of energy absorption or scattering, describe by the percent of radiation remaining after x-rays passes through object.

a)

Tomography

b)

Attenuation

c)

Artifacts

d)

DAS

37.

The month and year where Polonium was discovered.

a)

July 1898

b)

Nov. 1898

c)

Dec. 1898

d)

Jan. 1898

38.

Radiotherapy may combine with the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Surgery

b)

Hormone therapy

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

none

39.

The most commonly treated cancers are the following, EXCEPT?

a)

Prostate

b)

Lungs

c)

Cervix

d)

None

40.

The date when radium was discovered.

a)

February 1895

b)

January 1923

c)

July 1898

d)

December 1898

41.

1st therapeutic use of x-rays was reported to have taken place when a patient with carcinoma of the breast was treated.

a)

Nov. 8, 1898

b)

December 28, 1895

c)

January 29, 1898

d)

February 26,1898

42.

The 1st cancer of basal cell epithelioma had been cured by radiation in what year?

 

a)

1895

b)

1899

c)

1923

d)

1898

43.

They found that by administering Fractionated doses of radiation that is smaller daily doses rather than large single dose they could achieved the same tumor response but without serious injury to the adjacent normal tissue.

a)

Dotter & Seldinger

b)

Becquerel & Curie

c)

Regaud & Coutard

d)

Hounsfield & Radon

44.

The radiation dose necessary to cause redness of the skin.

a)

Tolerance dose

b)

Erythema dose

c)

Maximum permissible dose

d)

none

45.

Fractionated doses of radiation exposure was recognized in what year?

a)

1963

b)

1950

c)

1989

d)

1970

46.

During the___methods of measuring dose where developed and quantitative measurements.

a)

1920

b)

1911

c)

1968

d)

1930

47.

The atomic mass number of electrons.

a)

2

b)

0

c)

1

d)

9.1

48.

The atomic mass number of nucleus.

a)

2

b)

1.67

c)

0

d)

1

49.

If there is an excess of electrons or an electron is removed the atom is said to be

a)

Disintegrated

b)

Radioactivity

c)

Attenuated

d)

none

50.

The number of neutron in an atom is the difference between the

a)

atomic mass no. and atomic no.

b)

Protons and electrons

c)

Proton and neutron

d)

none

51.

Atoms that have the same no. Of neutrons but different no of protons.

a)

Isotopes

b)

Isotones

c)

Isobars

d)

Isomers

52.

Atoms that contains the same no. of protons but varying no. of neutrons.

a)

Isotones

b)

Isotopes

c)

Isomers

d)

 Isobars

53.

They are identical atoms and exist in the different energy state.

a)

Isomers

b)

Isobars

c)

Isotones

d)

isotopes

54.

Attraction between electrons and the nucleus of an atom.

a)

Attractive force

b)

Nuclear force

c)

Repulsive force

d)

Centrifugal force

55.

The electrons stays on their respective orbits due to these two forces.

a)

Attractive and Centrifugal

b)

Nuclear and Repulsive

c)

Centrifugal and Repulsive

d)

Repulsive and attractive

56.

Responsible for calibration and maintenance of the radiation-producing equipment.

a)

Oncologist

b)

Radiotherapist

c)

Medical Dosimetrist

d)

Medical Physicist

57.

Devices a plan for delivering the treatments in a manner to best meet the physician's goals of irradiating the tumor while protecting vital normal structures.

a)

Oncologist

b)

Radiotherapist

c)

Medical Dosimetrist

d)

Medical Physicist

58.

This treatment intent is used to relieve symptoms caused by the cancer at an advance stage, extends the quality of life of the patient.

a)

Curative

b)

Palliative

c)

Prophylactic

d)

none

59.

This is a cancer treatment that uses drugs for prevention of cancer cell production.

a)

Hormone therapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Biologic Therapy

d)

Radiotherapy

60.

This is also termed as immunotherapy.

a)

Chemotherapy

b)

Hormone therapy

c)

Biologic Therapy

d)

Hyperthermia

61.

The following are factors for cancer treatment, EXCEPT?

 

a)

Stage

b)

Tumor location

c)

none

d)

Tumor type

62.

The spread of a malignancy into body cavities can occur via penetrating the surface of the peritoneal, pleural, pericardial, or subarachnoid spaces.

a)

Seedings

b)

None

c)

Hematogenous spread

d)

Lymphatic spread

63.

This is typical route of metastasis for sarcomas, but it is also the favored route for certain types of carcinoma, such as those originating in the kidney (renal cell carcinoma). Because of their thinner walls, veins are more frequently invaded than are arteries, and metastasis tends to follow the pattern of venous flow.

a)

Hematogenous spread

b)

Seedings

c)

none

d)

Lymphatic Spread

64.

Stage or period of absence of cancer.

a)

metastases

b)

Recurrence

c)

Remission

d)

Cured

65.

Type of recurrence where Ca returns at a lymph node or tissue located near the previous Ca.

a)

Regional

b)

Local

c)

Distant

d)

none

66.

This is a subtype of CA which involves blood forming tissue.

a)

Sarcoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

none

d)

Carcinoma

67.

A type of biopsy where the entire lump removed.

a)

Surgery

b)

Core needle

c)

Incisional

d)

Excisional

68.

Small lesion confined to organ of origin with no evidence of vascular or lymphatic spread or metastasis.

a)

Stage 4

b)

Stage 3

c)

Stage 1

d)

Stage 2

69.

Determines the volume of tissue that needs to be encompassed within the radiation field.

a)

Treatment Plan

b)

Treatment delivery

c)

Treatment delivery

d)

Simulation

70.

This is a type of brachytherapy where placement of Radioactive source on or in close proximity to the lesion

a)

Interstitial

b)

Intracavitary

c)

none

d)

Mould technique

71.

medical use of ionizing radiation as part of cancer treatment​

(a)  

72.

(a)   .is concerned with the generation, conservation, and dissemination of knowledge concerning the causes, prevention, and treatment of cancer with particular emphasis on the role of ionizing radiation

73.

The year when Henri Becquerel discovered radioactivity.

a)

1896

b)

1869

c)

1898

d)

1986

74.

      He observed the darkening of photographic plates by Uranium salts and realized that these rays were emitted spontaneously and continuously from Uranium.​

a)

Henri Becquerel

b)

Marie Curie

c)

John Dalton

d)

Earnest Rutherford

75.

The 1st use of Radium in the U.S. was around _________

a)

1989

b)

1908

c)

1911

d)

none

76.

______when madame Marie Curie began to developed the accurate standard of quantities of pure Radium salts.

a)

1911

b)

1908

c)

1920

d)

1999

77.

During the _____ methods of measuring dose where developed and quantitative measurements

a)

1930s

b)

1990s

c)

1920s

d)

1950s

78.

_____ portable survey meters and ionization chambers became standard equipments for hospitals. ​

a)

1930s

b)

1920s

c)

1950s`

d)

1960s

79.

____ Fractionated doses of radiation exposure was recognized.

a)

none

b)

1930s

c)

1950s

d)

1920s

80.

an English school teacher published a book summarizing his experiment according to him element could be classified according to integral values of atomic mass each reacting the same way in chemical reaction .

They look alike, they were constructed alike and they reacted alike but they are different from the atoms of any element.​

·            ​

a)

John Dalton

b)

Dmitri Mendeleeve 

c)

J.J. Thompson 

d)

Earnest Rutherford

81.

According to him elements were arrange in order of increasing atomic mass a periodic repetition of similar chemical properties occurred. This was the first periodic table.​

a)

John Dalton

b)

J.J Thompson

c)

Dmitri Mendeleeve 

d)

Niel Bohr

82.

He concluded that electrons were an integral part of all atoms. He described that an atom is like a Plum Pudding.

·            Discovered “ Corpuscles” later called “ Electrons”.​

a)

J.J Thompson

b)

Earnest Rutherford

c)

Niel Bohr

d)

James Chadwick

83.

He introduces the Nuclear model, according to him the atom is containing a small dense positive charge center surrounded by a negative cloud randomly located. He called the center of the atom Nucleus.

a)

Earnest Rutherford

b)

Erwin Schrodinger

c)

John Dalton

d)

none

84.

Discovered the “Nucleus “

a)

1922

b)

1911

c)

1920

d)

1930

85.

Discovered “ Proton”

a)

1911

b)

1920

c)

1930

d)

1908

86.

according to him the atom is like a miniature solar system in which the orbital electrons revolved around the nucleus in a prescribed shell or energy levels.​

a)

Erwin Schrodinger

b)

James Chadwick

c)

Earnest Rutherford

d)

Niel Bohr

87.

He discovered “ Neutron”.​

a)

James Chadwick

b)

Niel Bohr

c)

Erwin Schrodinger

d)

Curie brothers

88.

           The smallest particle of matter that has the property of an element and can react chemically.​

a)

Atom

b)

electrons

c)

molecules

d)

nucleus

89.

He used mathematical equations to describe the likelihood of freeing an electron in a certain position. The atomic model is known as “ Quantum Mechanical Model

a)

Niel Bohr

b)

James Chadwick

c)

Erwin Schrodinger

d)

Marie Curie

90.

He assumes that electrons is a wave and tries to describe the regions in space or orbitals where the electrons are most likely to be found.​

a)

Erwin Schrodinger

b)

Niel Bohr James Chadwick

c)

Earnest

d)

none

91.

Particles much smaller than atoms.​

a)

subatomic particles

b)

atom

c)

molecules

d)

electron

92.

Is the smallest particle of a chemical compound.​

a)

atom

b)

nucleus

c)

subatomic particles

d)

molecules

93.

·            Atoms that have the same atomic no. But different atomic mass no.​

(a)  

94.

·            Atoms that contains the same no. of protons but varying no. of neutrons.​

(a)  

95.

·            Atomic nuclei that have the same atomic mass no. But different no. Of neutrons.​

(a)  

96.

·              Atoms with different atomic no. And different atomic mass no.​

(a)  

97.

Atoms that have the same no. Of neutrons but different no of protons

(a)  

98.

·              Atoms with the same atomic no. And the same atomic mass no.​

(a)  

99.

·              They are identical atoms and exist in the different energy state.​

·              ​

(a)  

100.

  an outward force away from the center.​

a)

centrifugal force

b)

attractive force

c)

nuclear force

d)

repulsive force

101.

occurs between the protons.​

a)

repulsive force

b)

centrifugal force

c)

attractive force

d)

nuclear force

102.

    holds the atomic nucleus together due to neutrons.​

a)

repulsive force

b)

nuclear force

c)

centrifugal force

d)

attractive force

103.

   given to destroy left-over microscopic cells that may be present after the known tumor is removed by surgery.

Is given to prevent a possible cancer reoccurrence.

a)

adjuvants

b)

neo-adjuvant

c)

PROPHYLACTIC TREATMENT

d)

PALLIATIVE TREATMENT

104.

     given prior to the surgical procedure.

may be given to attempt to shrink the cancer so that the surgical procedure may not need to be as extensive.

a)

adjuvant

b)

neo-adjuvant

c)

palliative treatment

d)

curative treatment

105.

 to shrink any cancerous tumors and/or stop the cancer from growing and spreading.

a)

PALLIATIVE TREATMENT

b)

HEMATOGENOUS SPREAD

c)

CURATIVE TREATMENT

d)

PROPHYLACTIC TREATMENT

106.

may be used to relieve symptoms caused by the cancer at an advance stage, extends the quality of life of the patient.

a)

CURATIVE TREATMENT

b)

PROPHYLACTIC TREATMENT

c)

PALLIATIVE TREATMENT

d)

HEMATOGENOUS SPREAD

107.

used for small tumors

a)

surgery

b)

CHEMOTHERAPY

c)

none

d)

HORMONE THERAPY

108.

a malignant tumor that expands by invasion or systemically by metastasis.

             - A disease process that involves an unregulated, uncontrolled replication of cells.

a)

cancer

b)

metastasis

c)

hyperthermia

d)

none

109.

allows the transport of tumor cells to lymph nodes and ultimately, to other parts of the body

a)

SEEDINGS

b)

LYMPHATIC SPREAD

c)

HEMATOGENOUS SPREAD

d)

none

110.

all signs and symptoms of Ca are gone.

(a)  

111.

the malignant tumor shrunk, but does not disappear.

(a)  

112.

FREE OF SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS FOR FIVE (5) YEARS

(a)  

113.

PATIENT IS DIAGNOSED WITH NEW CANCER THAT’S COMPLETELY UNRELATED WITH THE PREVIOUS CANCER.

(a)  

114.

return of cancer after treatment and after a period of time during which the cancer cannot be detected.

 

(a)  

115.

Ca returns at the original site.

(a)  

116.

originating from epithelial tissue.

(a)  

117.

originating from connective tissue.

(a)  

118.

involves blood forming tissue.

(a)  

119.

-  medical removal of tissue from living subject to determine presence or extent of disease.

(a)  

120.

small sample tissue

(a)  

121.

sample fluid

(a)  

122.

small solid sample

(a)  

123.

Occult lesion; no evidence clinically

(a)  

124.

Small lesion confined to organ of origin with no evidence of vascular or lymphatic spread or metastasis

(a)  

125.

Tumor of less than 5cm. invading surrounding tissue and first-station lymph nodes but no evidence of metastasis

(a)  

126.

Extensive lesion greater than 5cm. with fixation to deeper structure and with bone and lymph

(a)  

127.

More extensive lesion than above or with distant metastasis

(a)  

128.

made of 2 chemicals that can be mixed together to form a styro-like material that may take shape of the patient.

(a)  

129.

electron accelerator that uses magnetic induction to accelerate electrons in circular path; also capable of producing photons.

a)

betatron

b)

xbrt

c)

cobalt 60

d)

none

130.

treating lesions on or near the surface of the skin.

a)

betatron

b)

cobalt 60

c)

Superficial Machine

d)

Orthovoltage

131.

Placement of Radioactive directly into the tumor site and adjacent tissue.

a)

Interstitial

b)

Intracavitary

c)

Mould Technique

d)

none

132.

The year when betatron was introduced by Kerst

a)

1941

b)

1911

c)

1961

d)

1914

133.

moderately superficial tissues

a)

Superficial Machine

b)

Orthovoltage

c)

Betatron

d)

Cobalt 60

134.

artificially produced isotope formed in a nuclear reactor

a)

Cobalt 60

b)

betatron

c)

Orthovoltage

d)

none

135.

refers to the way the treatment is planned or simulated on a specially calibrated diagnostic x-ray machine known as a simulator

a)

Conventional 

b)

simulation

c)

conformal

d)

none

136.

is derived from the technique of shaping the beams to conform to the shape of the tumor.

a)

conformal

b)

conventional

c)

simulation

d)

none

137.

is an advanced technique that incorporates the use of imaging technologies to generate three-dimensional images of a patient’s tumor and nearby organs and tissues.

a)

3DCRT

b)

4DXRT

c)

IMRT

d)

2DXRT

138.

-      is a collimator or beam-limiting device that is made of individual "leaves" of a high atomic numbered material, usually tungsten, that can move independently in and out of the path of a radiotherapy beam in order to shape it and vary its intensity.

a)

2DXRT

b)

MLC

c)

IMRT

d)

4DXRT

139.

The technique of using customized field blocking to protect sensitive normal tissue during megavoltage radiation treatment

(a)  

140.

is the use of imaging during radiation therapy to improve the precision and accuracy of treatment delivery.

a)

4DXRT/IGRT

b)

IMRT

c)

MLC

d)

2DXRT

141.

is used to treat tumors in areas of the body that move, such as the lungs.

a)

IGRT

b)

3DXRT

c)

IMRT

d)

MLC

142.

is a highly precise form of radiation therapy initially developed to treat small brain tumors and functional abnormalities of the brain.

a)

IMRT

b)

SRS

c)

SBRT

d)

none

143.

When SRS is used to treat body tumors is called _____

a)

SBRT

b)

SRS

c)

2DXRT

d)

4DCRT

144.

is a form of radiation treatment used to destroy tumor cells.

(a)  

145.

is the unit used to measure the total amount of radiation that the patient is exposed to.

(a)  

146.

Adjuvant therapy doses typically range from 45 to 60 Gy for the treatment of breast, head, and neck cancers.

a)

true

b)

false

147.

•    means that the patient is subjected to smaller but more frequent doses of radiation over the same period of time.

a)

hyperfractionated

b)

hypofractionated

148.

•    breaks the total dose into larger doses, often giving a dose less than once each day.

a)

hypofrationated

b)

hyperfractionated

149.

Standard treatment with radiation therapy lasts for five to eight weeks

a)

true

b)

false

150.

refers to when the total dose is administered over a shorter period of time than usual. This involves more frequent doses, usually more often than once daily, to administer the equivalent total dose over a shorter period of time.

a)

accelerated radiation

b)

hypofractionated

c)

hyperfractionated

d)

none

151.

the total dose to deliver is divided between several sessions

a)

repair

b)

fractionation

c)

protraction

d)

none

152.

•    total duration of the treatment (number of days between the 1st and last session).

a)

protraction

b)

repair

c)

fractionation

153.

When tumor cells are hypoxic they are less susceptible to the indirect effects of radiation.

a)

true

b)

false

154.

is a treatment regimen that delivers higher doses of radiation in fewer visits

a)

hypofractionation

b)

hyperfractionation

155.

•    is dividing the same total dose into more deliveries, so that treatments are given more than once a day.

a)

hyperfractionation

b)

hypofractionation

156.

•    (two deliveries per day and/or deliveries on weekends as well) has also been investigated.

a)

accelerated fractionation

b)

fractionation

c)

hyperfractionation

d)

hypofractionation

157.

•    is a term used in radiotherapy treatment planning to help calculate absorbed dose to water in conditions other than those directly measured.

a)

Tissue Air Ration (TAR)

b)

Tissue Max Ration (TMR)

158.

•    is a special case of TPR and may be defined as the ratio of the dose at a given point in phantom to the dose at the same point at the reference depth of maximum dose.

a)

Tissue Max Ratio (TMR)

b)

Tissue Air Ration (TAR)