WorksheetsMicro Final Review (i)
Total questions: 159
Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Viruses are considered to be this, since they can only replicate inside the cells of a living host
a)
Facultative extracellular parasites
b)
Obligate intracellular parasites
c)
Text for option 4 (optional)
2.
Viruses are surrounded in this protein coat that provides protection, determines its shape, and plays a key role in attachment
a)
envelope
b)
coat
c)
capsid
3.
Made of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates, this bilayer membrane surrounds non-naked viruses
a)
capsid
b)
envelope
c)
coat
4.
Viral spikes are made of this:
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
glycoproteins
5.
The largest viruses are this size range:
a)
1200-1500nm
b)
1500-3000nm
c)
900-1000nm
6.
Enteroviruses are among the smallest viruses, at this size:
a)
15nm
b)
30nm
c)
20nm
7.
Most RNA viruses are single stranded
a)
true
b)
false
8.
A family of viruses characterized by its small size, naked polyhedral shape, (+) sense RNA, and quick interruption of host cell DNA/RNA
a)
Rhabdoviridae
b)
Filoviridae
c)
Picornaviridae
9.
Part of the Picornaviridae family, these viruses are resistant to chemicals and are capable of passing through the digestive system unharmed
a)
Enteroviruses
b)
Hepatoviruses
c)
Rhinoviruses
10.
Polioviruses are a part of this Picornaviridae genus
a)
Enteroviruses
b)
Hepatoviruses
c)
Rhinoviruses
11.
Hepatitis A damages which bodily organ?
a)
lungs
b)
spleen
c)
liver
12.
Hepatoviruses are (+) sense RNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
13.
Enteroviruses are (-) sense RNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
14.
This Picornaviridae genus is responsible for the common cold, but cannot survive in the digestive tract
a)
Rhinoviruses
b)
Enteroviruses
c)
Hepatoviruses
15.
Rhinoviruses are (+) sense RNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
16.
Rhabdoviridae are (+) sense RNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
17.
This family of viruses is characterized by its (-) sense RNA, medium size, and its enveloped "bullet-shaped" capsid
a)
Picornaviridae
b)
Herpesviridae
c)
Rhabdoviridae
18.
This viral genus is responsible for the rabies virus
a)
Picornaviridae
b)
Orthomyxoviridae
c)
Rhabdoviridae
19.
Orthomyxoviridae are (-) sense RNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
20.
This family of viruses is characterized by its (-) sense RNA, medium size, and segmented genome
a)
Picornaviridae
b)
Filoviridae
c)
Orthomyxoviridae
21.
This viral family includes both Influenza viruses
a)
Rhabdoviridae
b)
Filoviridae
c)
Orthomyxoviridae
22.
Filoviridae are (+) sense RNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
23.
This (-) sense RNA family is responsible for the Marburg and Ebola diseases
a)
Filoviridae
b)
Orthomyxoviridae
c)
Rhabdoviridae
24.
Filoviridae viruses are transmitted by:
a)
mucus and saliva
b)
blood and semen
c)
fecaloral
25.
The only known ssDNA virus to cause disease in humans
a)
herpesvirus
b)
adenovirus
c)
parvovirus B19
26.
Adenoviruses and herpesviruses are examples of this:
a)
ssDNA viruses
b)
ssRNA viruses
c)
dsDNA viruses
27.
This medium sized, naked, dsDNA virus is highly resistant to chemicals and is stable from pH 5-9
a)
herpesviridae
b)
adenoviridae
c)
filoviridae
28.
Adenoviruses are stable at this temperature range
a)
15-30C
b)
28-38C
c)
36-47C
29.
This viral family is responsible for sore throats, bronchitis, pneumonia, and pink-eye
a)
Rhabdoviridae
b)
Herpesviridae
c)
adenoviridae
30.
This viral family is characterized by its large, enveloped capsid, linear dsDNA, and affinity towards latency
a)
Herpesviridae
b)
Adenoviridae
c)
Picornaviridae
31.
Varicella and zoster (chickenpox and shingles) are members of this viral family
a)
Hepatoviridae
b)
Herpesviridae
c)
filoviridae
32.
The first stage of the lytic cycle, when the phage attaches to a potential host
a)
adsorption
b)
penetration
c)
synthesis
d)
maturation
33.
The second stage of the lytic cycle, where lysozyme weakens the bacterial cell wall and viral DNA is inserted into the cell
a)
adsorption
b)
penetration
c)
synthesis
d)
maturation
34.
The third stage of the lytic cycle, marked by viral DNA replication
a)
adsorption
b)
penetration
c)
synthesis
d)
maturation
35.
How many genomes does the average virus have?
a)
up to 250,000
b)
up to 2,500
c)
up to 250
36.
During synthesis of the lytic cycle, phage DNA is transcribed to mRNA
a)
true
b)
false
37.
The fourth stage of the lytic cycle, charactized by the assembly of viral parts into full phages
a)
adsorption
b)
penetration
c)
synthesis
d)
maturation
38.
The typical viral burst time
a)
5-10 minutes
b)
15-30 minutes
c)
20-40 minutes
39.
The typical viral burst size (for T4 phages)
a)
1000-2000
b)
50-200
c)
500-600
40.
The relationship that E. coli has to its lambda phage is an example of what?
a)
the lytic cycle
b)
the lysogenic cycle
41.
Rhinoviruses have these in their capsids, that assist with membrane binding
a)
fissures
b)
canyons
c)
spikes
42.
HIV has this protein on its surface to aid in receptor site binding
a)
capsids
b)
spikes
c)
canyons
43.
Naked animal viruses enter cells via:
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
44.
An enzyme used by retroviruses to transcribe viral RNA
a)
integrase
b)
protease
c)
reverse transcriptase
45.
An enzyme used by retroviruses to cleave the ends of its DNA and transfer that DNA into the cell genome
a)
integrase
b)
protease
c)
reverse transcriptase
46.
An enzyme used by retroviruses to process translated mRNA
a)
integrase
b)
protease
c)
reverse transcriptase
47.
Human adenoviruses do not lyse host cells upon release
a)
true
b)
false
48.
Herpesviruses do not lyse skin cells upon virion release
a)
true
b)
false
49.
Most human cancer viruses are dsDNA viruses
a)
true
b)
false
50.
This (+) sense RNA retrovirus causes adult leukemia and lymphoma
a)
HIV-2
b)
Hepatititis
c)
HTLV-I
51.
Epstein-Barr, Human Papillomaviruses, and Hepatitis B are all examples of what?
a)
ssDNA, cancerous viruses
b)
ssRNA cancerous viruses
c)
dsDNA cancerous viruses
52.
A segment of DNA that produces tumor virus proteins
a)
nucleic acid
b)
Okazaki fragment
c)
oncogene
53.
E. coli uses this protein to attach to certain host epithelial cells
a)
spikes
b)
adhesins
c)
coagulase
54.
These bacteria types are known to release digestive enzymes that allow them to invade tissues rapidly
a)
pneumococci, streptococci
b)
streptococci, staphylococci
c)
staphylococci, pneumococci
55.
Streptococcus pyogens disintegrates tissues at this rate:
a)
1 inch per hour
b)
1 cm per minute
c)
1 inch per second
56.
Bubonic plague (Yersinia pestis) mortality rate
a)
45%
b)
55%
c)
35%
57.
Pneumonic plague (Yersinia pestis) mortality rate
a)
95%
b)
96%
c)
98%
58.
Staphylococcus aureus uses this enzyme to create SHIELDS OF BLOOOOOD
a)
coagulase
b)
hyaluronidase
c)
protease
59.
This enzyme is used by bacteria to dissolve blood clots
a)
coagulase
b)
streptokinase
c)
hyaluronidase
60.
Two types of bacteria that invade the body by getting free rides on host cells into deeper tissue
a)
S. pyogenes, C. pneumonia
b)
C. botulinum, Yersinia pestis
c)
M. tuberculosis, N. gonorrhoeae
61.
Clostridium, Bacillus, Staphylococcus, and Streptococcus produce this type of toxin
a)
endotoxin
b)
exotoxin
62.
C. botulinum can cause this, through the ingestion of preformed toxins
a)
toxemia
b)
toxic shock
c)
intoxication
63.
Exotoxins are most commonly found in:
a)
Gram-positive bacteria
b)
Gram-negative bacteria
64.
Endotoxins are only found in:
a)
Gram-positive bacteria
b)
Gram-negative bacteria
65.
A common infection found in burn victims and surgical patients
a)
Legionellosis
b)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c)
Klebsiella
66.
Interferon and compliment can play a role in innate defenses
a)
true
b)
false
67.
Part of the body's chemical barrier, these proteins bind iron, inhibiting bacterial growth
a)
interferon, complement
b)
transferrin, lactoferrin
c)
lymph fluid, histamine
68.
Plasma constitutes what percentage of blood composition?
a)
40%
b)
50%
c)
60%
69.
RBCs, WBCs, and platelets account for what percentage of blood composition?
a)
40%
b)
50%
c)
60%
70.
Granulocytes have an irregularly shaped, lobed nucleus
a)
true
b)
false
71.
Agranulocytes have a round nucleus
a)
true
b)
false
72.
Macrophages and dendritic cells are able to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative cells
a)
true
b)
false
73.
This bacterium can interfere with chemotaxis, since it does not release chemical attractants
a)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b)
Clostridium botulinum
c)
Escherichia coli
74.
The most common bacterial defense mechanism
a)
pseudopodia
b)
toxemia
c)
antiphagocytic capsules
75.
The time it takes for lysosomal enzymes to reduce pathogenic cells into smaller molecules
a)
1 hour
b)
1 day
c)
20 minutes
76.
This bacterium is capable of producing capsules that virtually invulnerable
a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c)
Yersinia pestis
77.
The body's first line of defense against **viral** infections
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Natural Killer cells
c)
Macrophages
78.
The largest lymphatic organ in the body
a)
the spleen
b)
the thymus
c)
hypothalamus
79.
The outer cortex of the lymph node houses a large collection of these:
a)
B cells
b)
T cells
c)
Macrophages
80.
The deep cortex of the lymph node generally houses this cell
a)
B cells
b)
T cells
c)
Macrophages
81.
The medulla of the lymph node contains B cells, macrophages, and plasma cells
a)
true
b)
false
82.
What is the function of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a)?
a)
to cause vasodilation and edema
b)
to soak up red blood cells
c)
to lyse infecting agents
83.
Neutrophils use this to quickly move through the blood
a)
phagocytosis
b)
diapedesis
c)
chemotaxis
84.
Viruses cannot form pus
a)
true
b)
false
85.
The presence of this cell-killing substance is what causes S. pyogenese to create pus
a)
leukostatin
b)
leukocidin
86.
A normal, healthy body temperature
a)
35C/96.1F
b)
32C/97.4F
c)
37C/98.6F
87.
Clinical rectal fever temperature
a)
36.2C/100.4F
b)
38.4C/101.5F
c)
40C/104.5F
88.
Clinical oral fever temperature
a)
37.8C/100.5F
b)
38.4C/101.5F
c)
43C/109.4F
89.
In general, fever temperatures rarely exceed:
a)
43C/109.4F
b)
40C/104.5F
c)
37C/98.6F
90.
The fever temperature at which death occurs
a)
40C/104.5F
b)
38.4C/101.5F
c)
43C/109.4F
91.
Body temperature is regulated and maintained by the:
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
medulla oblongata
92.
What is the function of prostaglandins?
a)
to reset the thermostat of the hypothalamus
b)
to cause vasodilation
c)
to stimulate cytokines
93.
Antipyretics should be given when a patient's fever temperature reaches:
a)
35C
b)
38C
c)
40C
94.
Complement is a set of how many large regulatory proteins?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
30
95.
Complement is produced by which organ?
a)
spleen
b)
liver
c)
thymus
96.
Complement and interferon are examples of which type of defense system?
a)
Chemical defenses
b)
Cellular defenses
c)
Molecular defenses
97.
Complement constitutes this percentage of all plasma proteins
a)
10%
b)
15%
c)
20%
98.
Complement is an adaptive defense mechanism that is slow to respond to threats
a)
true
b)
false
99.
Ready-made antibodies being transferred from one host to another is an example of:
a)
artificially acquired active immunity
b)
artificially acquired passive immunity
c)
naturally acquired passive immunity
100.
A mother passing antibodies along to her offspring is an example of:
a)
artificially acquired active immunity
b)
artificially acquired passive immunity
c)
naturally acquired passive immunity
101.
_____ of all lymphocytes are B cells
a)
1/10th
b)
3/4ths
c)
2/3rds
102.
_____ of all lymphocytes are T cells
a)
1/10th
b)
3/4ths
c)
2/3rds
103.
Cytotoxic, delayed-hypersensitivy, helper, and regulatory are examples of which type of lymphocyte?
a)
T cells
b)
B cells
c)
NK cells
104.
The term for programmed cell death, caused by cytotoxic NK cells against infected cells
a)
diapedesis
b)
chemotaxis
c)
apoptosis
105.
Humoral immunity is carried out by…?
a)
T cells
b)
antibodies
c)
antigens
106.
Cell-mediated immunity is carried out by…?
a)
T cells
b)
antibodies
c)
B cells
107.
Humoral immunity involves B cells and immunoglobulins (antibodies)
a)
true
b)
false
108.
How many antibodies are plasma cells able to release per second?
a)
1000
b)
2000
c)
3000
109.
T cells can be directly activated by antigens
a)
true
b)
false
110.
AIDS/HIV does most of its initial damage to this T cell type
a)
regulatory
b)
cytotoxic
c)
helper
111.
The main class of immunoglobulins, constituting 20% of all plasma proteins
a)
IgA
b)
IgM
c)
IgG
112.
The only Ig that can cross the placental barrier
a)
IgG
b)
IgE
c)
IgD
113.
Primarily found in body secretions, this Ig guards body entrances
a)
IgG
b)
IgA
c)
IgE
114.
Lack of this Ig production can increase one's risk of tooth cavities
a)
IgA
b)
IgD
c)
IgM
115.
The first antibody to be secreted during the primary response, this Ig activates complement
a)
IgM
b)
IgA
c)
IgD
116.
This Ig clumps microorganisms together and is involved in ABO blood typing
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgA
117.
The first antibody formed in the womb
a)
IgD
b)
IgG
c)
IgM
118.
This antibody is also known as reagin
a)
IgG
b)
IgD
c)
IgE
119.
This Ig has an affinity for basophils and mast cells, and plays a damaging role in allergy development
a)
IgM
b)
IgE
c)
IgA
120.
This antibody is rarely secreted but is mostly associated with B cells
a)
IgG
b)
IgD
c)
IgA
121.
When T-independent antigens are recognized, this is the only antibody that is produced
a)
IgM
b)
IgG
c)
IgE
122.
Known as class switching, large amounts of IgG are produced during this response
a)
primary
b)
secondary
123.
Malignant tumors, malnutrition, AIDS, and immunosuppressant drugs can all cause this type of immunodeficiency
a)
primary
b)
secondary
124.
Type I hypersensitivity
a)
cytotoxic
b)
immune complex
c)
cell-mediated
d)
immediate
125.
The main contributing antibody involved in Type I hypersensitivity
a)
IgE
b)
IgG
c)
IgM
126.
A rapid release of preformed mediators during a Type I autoimmune reaction
a)
deregulation
b)
constriction
c)
degranulation
127.
Type II hypersensitivity
a)
cytotoxic
b)
immune complex
c)
cell-mediated
d)
immediate
128.
Transfusion reactions in Type II hypersensitivity involve which molecules?
a)
IgA, IgE
b)
IgM, Rh
c)
Rh, IgG
129.
Hemolytic disease in newborns involves:
a)
IgE
b)
IgG
c)
Rh
130.
To prevent hemolytic disease, Rhogam can be administered to the mother ________ after delivery of the first child
a)
3-5 months
b)
72 hours
c)
10 weeks
131.
Type III hypersensitivity
a)
cytotoxic
b)
immune complex
c)
cell-mediated
d)
immediate
132.
Serum sickness is associated with which hypersensitivity?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
133.
The main antibody involved in Type III hypersensitivity
a)
IgG
b)
IgM
c)
IgE
134.
Type III hypersensitivity results from the formation of:
a)
Ag/Ab complexes
b)
hyaluronidase
c)
histamine
135.
The amount of time that it takes an Arthus reaction to present itself after sensitization
a)
1-3 hours
b)
4-10 hours
c)
6-12 hours
136.
Subcutaneous or intradermal injection of an antigenic substance illicits which hypersensitive response?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
137.
Type IV hypersensitivity
a)
cytotoxic
b)
immune complex
c)
cell-mediated
d)
immediate
138.
Type IV hypersensitivity does nots involve any antibodies
a)
true
b)
false
139.
Type IV hypersensitivity is characterized by its delayed reaction. How many hours does it take for a reaction to occur?
a)
12 hours
b)
24 hours
c)
72 hours
140.
The main cells involved Type IV hypersensitivity are:
a)
basophils
b)
helper T cells
c)
NK cells
141.
Type IV hypersensitivity can be passed down genetically
a)
true
b)
false
142.
Migration inhibiting factor (MIF) is released during which hypersensitive reaction?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
143.
Contact dermatitis and tuberculosis are examples of which type of hypersensitivity?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
144.
The most serious Type IV hypersensitivity
a)
contact dermatitis
b)
tuberculin
c)
granulomatous
145.
Listeriosis and fungal/helminthic infections are the typical causes of this hypersensitivity:
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
d)
Type IV
146.
An auto-immune disorder that causes progressive weakness, muscle fatigue, eyelid drooping, and double vision
a)
Myastenia gravis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
agammaglobulinemia
147.
This auto-immune disorder is the result inflammation and destruction of cartilage in the joints
a)
systemic lupus erythematosus
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Myastenia gravis
148.
In rheumatoid arthritis, damage to the joints is caused by which Ig complexes?
a)
IgA:IgM
b)
IgM:IgG
c)
IgE:IgD
149.
A reddened skin rash common in lupus patients
a)
leproma
b)
listeriosis
c)
erythematose
150.
This auto-immune disorder is caused by immune complexes being deposited: interdermally, in blood vessels, joints, kidneys, and the CNS
a)
DiGeorge syndrom
b)
Myastenia gravis
c)
systemic lupus erythematosus
151.
Lupus is how many times more likely to occur in women than men?
a)
10-20x
b)
2-3x
c)
5-8x
152.
Immunodeficiency diseases are caused by deficient lymphocytes, NK cells, and phagocytes
a)
true
b)
false
153.
Agammaglobulinemia is the result of which lymphocyte deficiency?
a)
T cells
b)
B cells
c)
NK cells
154.
DiGeorge syndrome is the result of which lymphocyte deficiency?
a)
B cells
b)
T cells
c)
NK cells
155.
DiGeorge syndrome impairs both cell-mediated and humoral immunity
a)
true
b)
false
156.
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is the result of:
a)
an absence of B cells
b)
an absence of T cells
c)
an absence of B and T cells
157.
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is part of which viral family?
a)
Picornaviridae
b)
Lentiviridae
c)
filoviridae
158.
Most cases of AIDS in the US, Canada and Europe are caused by:
a)
HIV-1
b)
HIV-2
159.
Most cases of AIDS in West Africa are caused by this less-virulent strain:
a)
HIV-1
b)
HIV-2
100 %
