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Worksheets

Endocrine

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 5hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the endocrine system?

a)

Uses electrical impulses to control short-term responses

b)

Uses chemical messengers transported in blood to regulate distant targets

c)

Only controls voluntary muscle activity

d)

Functions independently of the nervous system

2.

The endocrine system is primarily responsible for:

a)

Rapid transmission of nerve signals

b)

Maintaining homeostasis through hormones

c)

Muscle contraction and reflex arcs

d)

Digestion only

3.

Which communication method involves signaling through gap junctions?

a)

Paracrine signaling

b)

Synaptic transmission

c)

Direct cell-to-cell communication

d)

Endocrine signaling

4.

(Select all that apply) Which of the following are examples of paracrine signaling?

a)

Nitric oxide causing vasodilation

b)

Neurotransmitter release into a synapse

c)

Histamine released from mast cell

d)

Insulin entering the bloodstream

5.

Endocrine glands differ from exocrine glands because endocrine glands:

a)

Release hormones through ducts

b)

Have no ducts and secrete hormones into the bloodstream

c)

Secrete enzymes directly into organs

d)

Function only in digestion

6.

Which of the following hormones are not hydrophilic?

a)

Peptide hormones

b)

Monoamines

c)

Steroid hormones

d)

Protein hormones

7.

A hormone that acts on the same cell that secreted it is called:

a)

Endocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Autocrine

d)

Exocrine

8.

The endocrine system differs from the nervous system in that endocrine responses:

a)

Are faster

b)

Are slower but longer lasting

c)

Use electrical impulses

d)

Affect single target organs only

9.

Which hormones are derived from cholesterol?

a)

Steroid hormones

b)

Peptide hormones

c)

Amine hormones

d)

Glycoprotein hormones

10.

Peptide hormones are generally:

a)

Lipid-soluble and bind inside the cell

b)

Water-soluble and bind to surface receptors

c)

Stored in adipose tissue

d)

Transported by albumin only

11.

(Select all that apply) Which of the following are examples of amine (monoamine) hormones?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Cortisol

12.

Which of the following best defines a hormone?

a)

A neurotransmitter released across a synapse

b)

A chemical messenger released into the bloodstream

c)

A digestive enzyme secreted into the stomach

d)

A local paracrine molecule

13.

Steroid hormones bind to receptors located:

a)

On the plasma membrane

b)

In the cytoplasm or nucleus

c)

On ribosomes

d)

In lysosomes

14.

Hydrophilic hormones usually activate:

a)

Direct gene transcription

b)

Second messenger systems

c)

Nuclear DNA binding

d)

Enzyme inhibition

15.

The secondary messenger cAMP is most directly activated by:

a)

Protein kinases

b)

Adenylyl cyclase

c)

G proteins

d)

ATP synthase

16.

Which best describes enzyme amplification?

a)

One hormone activates many enzymes, producing a large effect

b)

Hormones are broken down quickly

c)

Enzymes deactivate hormones

d)

Hormone concentration equals response strength

17.

Hormone signals are terminated primarily by:

a)

Renal or hepatic degradation

b)

Storage in vesicles

c)

Neural inhibition only

d)

Dilution in plasma

18.

The half-life of a hormone refers to:

a)

The time for full activation

b)

The time to reduce its concentration by 50 %

c)

Its rate of synthesis

d)

The time it binds receptors

19.

Down-regulation of receptors results in:

a)

Increased cell sensitivity

b)

Decreased cell sensitivity

c)

Hormone overproduction

d)

Enhanced enzyme amplification

20.

(Select all that apply) Examples of synergistic hormone effects include:

a)

Epinephrine and glucagon increasing blood glucose

b)

Estrogen and progesterone regulating uterine lining

c)

Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone acting together

d)

Insulin and glucagon acting oppositely

21.

Permissive hormone effects occur when:

a)

Two hormones oppose each other

b)

One hormone enhances the effect of another

c)

Hormones have identical targets

d)

Both hormones inhibit receptor binding

22.

Antagonistic effects are demonstrated by:

a)

Cortisol and growth hormone

b)

Insulin and glucagon

c)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

LH and FSH

23.

Which hormone is transported without a binding protein in plasma?

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Cortisol

d)

Estradiol

24.

(Select all that apply) Hormones that bind to transport proteins in blood include:

a)

Cortisol

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Testosterone

d)

Epinephrine

25.

The general characteristics of endocrine signaling include:

a)

Rapid and short-term effects

b)

Slow onset and prolonged effects

c)

Localized and transient actions

d)

Electrical impulse conduction

26.

A single hormone can influence many different tissues because:

a)

It binds non-specifically

b)

Receptors for that hormone are expressed in many tissues

c)

It mutates frequently

d)

It is electrically conductive

27.

Which best defines the metabolic clearance rate (MCR)?

a)

The rate of hormone synthesis

b)

The rate of hormone removal from blood

c)

The diffusion rate into tissues

d)

The enzyme activation rate

28.

(Select all that apply) Which of these can act as both hormones and neurotransmitters?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

ADH

d)

Aldosterone

29.

Endocrine cells release their products:

a)

Through ducts to epithelial surfaces

b)

Into extracellular fluid and blood

c)

Only during neural stimulation

d)

Into cerebrospinal fluid

30.

Endocrine glands typically have:

a)

Sparse blood supply

b)

Dense capillary networks

c)

No vascularization

d)

Duct openings

31.

Which class of hormones is derived from amino acids?

a)

Steroid

b)

Peptide

c)

Amine

d)

Lipid

32.

Hydrophobic hormones must bind transport proteins mainly because:

a)

They are degraded by plasma enzymes

b)

They are insoluble in water

c)

They lack receptors

d)

They act too rapidly otherwise

33.

A bound hormone is one that:

a)

Is stored in vesicles

b)

Is attached to a transport protein

c)

Has bound to its receptor

d)

Is degraded

34.

The specificity of hormone action depends on:

a)

Hormone concentration only

b)

Target cell receptors

c)

Electrical charge

d)

Organ location

35.

(Select all that apply) Hydrophobic hormones include:

a)

Cortisol

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Thyroxine (T₄)

d)

Epinephrine

36.

Up-regulation refers to:

a)

Loss of receptors

b)

Increased receptor number on target cells

c)

Reduced hormone affinity

d)

Hormone degradation

37.

The endocrine system regulates which of the following?

a)

Muscle contraction only

b)

Growth, metabolism, and reproduction

c)

Reflex arcs

d)

Neuron firing

38.

(Select all that apply) Common second messenger systems include:

a)

cAMP

b)

IP₃

c)

DAG

d)

ATP synthase

39.

The most common mechanism for regulating hormone secretion is:

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

c)

Feed-forward activation

d)

Osmotic regulation

40.

In a negative feedback loop controlling thyroid hormone levels, elevated T₃/T₄ will:

a)

Stimulate the hypothalamus

b)

Inhibit TRH and TSH secretion

c)

Activate the pituitary

d)

Promote more thyroglobulin synthesis

41.

The hypothalamus is anatomically located:

a)

In the cerebral cortex

b)

Forming the floor of the third ventricle

c)

Within the cerebellum

d)

Above the corpus callosum

42.

The hypothalamus primarily controls the endocrine system through its influence on the:

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Pineal gland

43.

The stalk connecting the pituitary gland to the hypothalamus is called the:

a)

Sella turcica

b)

Infundibulum

c)

Median eminence

d)

Hypophyseal portal vein

44.

(Select all that apply) The pituitary gland is composed of:

a)

Adenohypophysis

b)

Neurohypophysis

c)

Intermediate lobe/rudimentary

d)

Medullary lobe

45.

The anterior pituitary develops embryologically from:

a)

An outgrowth of the pharynx (Rathke’s pouch)

b)

The diencephalon

c)

Neural ectoderm of the brain

d)

The notochord

46.

The posterior pituitary is derived from:

a)

The hypothalamic neural tissue

b)

Oral ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Endoderm

47.

The posterior pituitary stores and releases which two hormones?

a)

FSH and LH

b)

GH and PRL

c)

ADH and oxytocin

d)

TSH and ACTH

48.

The hormone that causes uterine contractions and milk ejection is:

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

ADH

d)

LH

49.

ADH acts primarily on the:

a)

Liver

b)

Kidneys

c)

Heart

d)

Pancreas

50.

The main effect of ADH is to:

a)

Increase urine output

b)

Promote water retention

c)

Lower blood pressure

d)

Increase sodium loss

51.

(Select all that apply) Tropic hormones from the anterior pituitary include:

a)

FSH

b)

GH

c)

ACTH

d)

LH

52.

Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates milk production after childbirth?

a)

LH

b)

Prolactin

c)

Oxytocin

d)

ACTH

53.

Growth hormone stimulates the liver to release:

a)

IGF-1 and IGF-2

b)

T₃ and T₄

c)

Cortisol

d)

Aldosterone

54.

Which anterior pituitary hormone triggers ovulation?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

ACTH

d)

TSH

55.

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in males acts on:

a)

Interstitial (Leydig) cells

b)

Sertoli (sustentacular) cells

c)

The prostate

d)

Adrenal cortex

56.

The target organ of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is the:

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Adrenal cortex

d)

Parathyroid gland

57.

ACTH primarily stimulates the:

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Thyroid

d)

Pancreas

58.

Excess secretion of GH before epiphyseal plate closure results in:

a)

Dwarfism

b)

Gigantism

c)

Acromegaly

d)

Cretinism

59.

After epiphyseal closure, GH hypersecretion causes:

a)

Gigantism

b)

Acromegaly

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Pituitary dwarfism

60.

Which hormone acts to increase the metabolic rate in nearly all tissues?

a)

GH

b)

Thyroid hormone (T₃/T₄)

c)

Cortisol

d)

Epinephrine

61.

(Select all that apply) Hypothalamic releasing hormones include:

a)

TRH

b)

CRH

c)

GnRH

d)

Somatostatin

62.

The hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system connects the:

a)

Posterior pituitary to thyroid

b)

Adrenal medulla to cortex

c)

Pineal gland to hypothalamus

d)

Hypothalamus to anterior pituitary

63.

Neurosecretory cells send their axons through which tract to the posterior pituitary?

a)

Corticospinal tract

b)

Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract

c)

Optic tract

d)

Reticulospinal tract

64.

In the milk-ejection reflex, the sensory signal from a suckling infant ultimately causes release of:

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

GH

d)

ACTH

65.

The hypothalamus controls the anterior pituitary primarily via:

a)

Neural impulses

b)

Direct axonal synapses

c)

Electrical gap junctions

d)

Releasing and inhibiting hormones

66.

Which feedback mechanism regulates most pituitary-target hormone systems?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Feed-forward activation

c)

Negative feedback

d)

Autonomic feedback

67.

The hormone that stimulates adrenal cortex cortisol release is:

a)

ACTH

b)

TSH

c)

GH

d)

CRH

68.

Low ADH secretion causes:

a)

Diabetes mellitus

b)

Diabetes insipidus

c)

Cushing disease

d)

Addison disease

69.

The pituitary sits in a bony depression of the sphenoid bone called the:Foramen ovale

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Foramen ovale

c)

Sella turcica

d)

Cribriform plate

70.

(Select all that apply) Direct effects of growth hormone include:

a)

Increased lipid breakdown

b)

Increased water reabsorption by kidneys

c)

Decreased glucose utilization

d)

Increased protein synthesis

71.

Which factor most strongly increases GH secretion?

a)

High blood glucose

b)

Chronic stress

c)

Deep sleep

d)

Low protein intake

72.

Prolonged stress causes elevated levels of which anterior pituitary hormone?

a)

TSH

b)

ACTH

c)

LH

d)

PRL

73.

Which of the following is a non-tropic hormone of the anterior pituitary?

a)

ACTH

b)

TSH

c)

LH

d)

GH

74.

Excess prolactin in males may result in:

a)

Decreased LH sensitivity

b)

Increased testosterone

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Elevated GH

75.

(Select all that apply) The anterior pituitary secretes:

a)

ADH

b)

ACTH

c)

PRL

d)

GH

76.

Which hypothalamic hormone inhibits GH and TSH release?

a)

CRH

b)

TRH

c)

GnRH

d)

Somatostatin

77.

The hypophyseal portal veins carry hormones:

a)

From anterior pituitary to hypothalamus

b)

From hypothalamus to anterior pituitary

c)

From posterior pituitary to thyroid

d)

From adrenal gland to hypothalamus

78.

What is the principal cell type of the posterior pituitary?

a)

Chromophobes

b)

Somatotropes

c)

Pituicytes

d)

Thyrotropes

79.

The small mass of tissue connecting the hypothalamus to the pituitary is called the:

a)

Paraventricular nucleus

b)

Pineal recess

c)

Tectum

d)

Median eminence

80.

The hypothalamic nuclei that produce ADH and oxytocin are the:

a)

Arcuate and ventromedial nuclei

b)

Mammillary nuclei

c)

Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

d)

Preoptic and lateral nuclei

81.

The thyroid gland is located:

a)

Behind the sternum

b)

Around the trachea just below the larynx

c)

Above the pituitary

d)

Adjacent to the kidneys

82.

The structural and functional units of the thyroid are called:

a)

Follicles

b)

Lobules

c)

Acini

d)

Cilia

83.

The hormones produced by follicular cells of the thyroid are:

a)

Calcitonin

b)

ACTH and TSH

c)

Aldosterone and Cortisol

d)

T₃ (triiodothyronine) and T₄ (thyroxine)

84.

The parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid secrete:

a)

T₃ and T₄

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Parathyroid hormone

d)

Cortisol

85.

Thyroid hormone synthesis requires which mineral?

a)

Sodium

b)

Iodine

c)

Iron

d)

Zinc

86.

(Select all that apply) Thyroid hormones increase:

a)

Mitochondrial enzyme activity

b)

Blood calcium levels

c)

Basal metabolic rate

d)

Heat production

87.

The hormone that raises blood Ca²⁺ levels is:

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

d)

Aldosterone

88.

The parathyroid glands are found:

a)

Inside the thyroid follicles

b)

On the adrenal cortex

c)

In the pancreas

d)

Embedded on the posterior surface of the thyroid

89.

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) stimulates:

a)

Decreased bone resorption

b)

Increased bone resorption

c)

Decreased Ca²⁺ absorption in the gut

d)

Decreased kidney Ca²⁺ reabsorption

90.

Hypocalcemia would trigger release of:

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Aldosterone

c)

PTH

d)

Insulin

91.

(Select all that apply) The adrenal glands consist of:

a)

An outer cortex

b)

An inner medulla

c)

A fibrous capsule

d)

A parathyroid zone

92.

The adrenal cortex produces:

a)

Catecholamines

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Peptide hormones

93.

The adrenal medulla acts as part of the:

a)

Parasympathetic division

b)

Somatic system

c)

Sympathetic nervous system

d)

Endocardium

94.

The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secretes:

a)

Glucocorticoids

b)

Catecholamines

c)

Sex steroids

d)

Mineralocorticoids

95.

The zona fasciculata primarily produces:

a)

Cortisol

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Testosterone

d)

Epinephrine

96.

The zona reticularis secretes:

a)

Estrogen and progesterone

b)

Androgens (e.g., DHEA)

c)

Cortisol

d)

Aldosterone

97.

Long-term use of glucocorticoids can cause:

a)

Increased immune function

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Immune suppression

98.

The adrenal medulla releases:

a)

Cortisol and aldosterone

b)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

c)

Estrogen and testosterone

d)

PTH and calcitonin

99.

Epinephrine promotes which metabolic effect?

a)

Fat storage

b)

Glycogen synthesis

c)

Glycogen synthesis

d)

Protein anabolism

100.

(Select all that apply) Short-term stress responses include:

a)

↑ Heart rate

b)

↑ Blood pressure

c)

↑ Blood glucose

d)

↓ Respiratory rate

101.

Aldosterone acts primarily on which organ?

a)

Heart

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Thyroid

102.

The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS) is activated by:

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Hyperkalemia only

c)

Low blood pressure or Na⁺

d)

Increased blood volume

103.

Renin converts ________ to ________.

a)

Angiotensin I → Angiotensin II

b)

Angiotensin II → Aldosterone

c)

Cortisol → Cortisone

d)

Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin I

104.

The enzyme converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II is:

a)

Renin

b)

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)

c)

Aldosterone synthase

d)

Pepsin

105.

Angiotensin II causes:

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Decreased ADH

d)

Decreased thirst

106.

(Select all that apply) Aldosterone increases:

a)

Ca²⁺ secretion

b)

Na⁺ reabsorption

c)

K⁺ excretion

d)

Water retention

107.

The alarm reaction of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)** involves elevation of:**

a)

Cortisol and ACTH

b)

Insulin and glucagon

c)

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

d)

GH and IGF

108.

The resistance stage of GAS** is dominated by:**

a)

Catecholamines

b)

Cortisol

c)

Insulin

d)

Oxytocin

109.

The exhaustion stage of GAS is characterized by:

a)

Fat reserve depletion

b)

Enhanced immunity

c)

Elevated glucose homeostasis

d)

Increased strength

110.

Chronic cortisol excess may produce:

a)

Addison disease

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Gigantism

d)

Cushing syndrome

111.

Adrenal insufficiency with low cortisol and aldosterone is known as:

a)

Cushing syndrome

b)

Acromegaly

c)

Addison disease

d)

Diabetes insipidus

112.

(Select all that apply) Cortisol promotes:

a)

Gluconeogenesis

b)

Anti-inflammatory effects

c)

Increased protein synthesis

d)

Fat and protein catabolism

113.

Excess aldosterone secretion causes:

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypernatremia and hypokalemia

c)

Acidosis

d)

Hypotension

114.

The hormone that directly stimulates thirst during RAAS activation is:

a)

Cortisol

b)

Angiotensin II

c)

ADH

d)

ACTH

115.

ACE inhibitors are used clinically to:

a)

Increase renin secretion

b)

Stimulate aldosterone release

c)

Increase BP

d)

Lower BP by blocking angiotensin II formation

116.

The pancreas has both ________ and ________ functions.

a)

Nervous; endocrine

b)

Endocrine; exocrine

c)

Somatic; sympathetic

d)

Renal; digestive

117.

The endocrine portions of the pancreas are called:

a)

Canaliculi

b)

Ducts of Santorini

c)

Acini

d)

Islets of Langerhans

118.

The β (beta) cells of the pancreas secrete:

a)

Glucagon

b)

Somatostatin

c)

Insulin

d)

Cortisol

119.

The α (alpha) cells of the pancreas secrete:

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Amylase

d)

Somatostatin

120.

Somatostatin from δ (delta) cells acts to:

a)

Increase glucagon secretion

b)

Inhibit both insulin and glucagon secretion

c)

Stimulate growth hormone release

d)

Promote digestion

121.

(Select all that apply) Insulin functions to:

a)

Raise blood glucose

b)

Promote glucose uptake by cells

c)

Promote protein and fat storage

d)

Stimulate glycogen synthesis

122.

Glucagon’s primary target organ is the:

a)

Liver

b)

Stomach

c)

Heart

d)

Brain

123.

Insulin secretion increases in response to:

a)

Fasting

b)

Low blood amino acids

c)

Elevated blood glucose

d)

Stress hormones

124.

Low blood glucose triggers secretion of:

a)

ADH

b)

Insulin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Thyroxine

125.

(Select all that apply) Prolonged diabetes mellitus results in:

a)

Polyuria

b)

Polydipsia

c)

Polyphagia

d)

Hypocalcemia

126.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is due to:

a)

Insulin receptor defects

b)

Autoimmune destruction of beta cells

c)

Overproduction of glucagon

d)

Dietary sugar excess

127.

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is primarily caused by:

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Viral infection

c)

Autoimmunity

d)

Lack of glucagon

128.

In diabetes mellitus, glycosuria occurs because:

a)

Kidneys over-secrete glucose

b)

Insulin suppresses reabsorption

c)

Renal glucose transporters are saturated

d)

Glucagon binds to nephrons

129.

The primary function of estrogen in females is to:

a)

Stimulate milk ejection

b)

Promote development of reproductive organs and secondary sex characteristics

c)

Increase glycogen breakdown

d)

Promote bone resorption

130.

The corpus luteum secretes:

a)

Estrogen and progesterone

b)

FSH and LH

c)

Cortisol

d)

Oxytocin

131.

Progesterone’s role includes:

a)

Stimulating follicle growth

b)

Triggering ovulation

c)

Increasing uterine contractions

d)

Sustaining pregnancy and preparing mammary glands

132.

(Select all that apply) Inhibin secreted by gonads:

a)

Suppresses FSH secretion

b)

Provides negative feedback to pituitary

c)

Increases GnRH release

d)

Stimulates testosterone secretion

133.

Testosterone is produced by:

a)

Sertoli cells

b)

Interstitial (Leydig) cells

c)

Spermatogonia

d)

Adrenal medulla

134.

Testosterone functions to:

a)

Promote male secondary sex characteristics

b)

Inhibit sperm production

c)

Reduce bone density

d)

Stimulate lactation

135.

The pineal gland produces:

a)

ADH

b)

Prolactin

c)

Cortisol

d)

Melatonin

136.

Melatonin synthesis is greatest:

a)

During daylight

b)

During exercise

c)

At night

d)

After meals

137.

(Select all that apply) Melatonin may influence:

a)

Sleep cycles

b)

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

c)

Puberty timing

d)

Appetite suppression

138.

The hormone secreted by the heart in response to high blood pressure is:

a)

Renin

b)

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Aldosterone

139.

The kidneys produce:

a)

Angiotensinogen

b)

Melatonin

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

ACTH

140.

The skin participates in endocrine function by:

a)

Releasing insulin

b)

Producing aldosterone

c)

Secreting androgens

d)

Converting cholesterol to vitamin D₃

141.

The liver contributes to endocrine function by producing:

a)

Angiotensinogen

b)

Erythropoietin

c)

Calcitonin

d)

IGF-1

142.

The placenta secretes which hormones during pregnancy?

a)

Estrogen and progesterone

b)

Cortisol and aldosterone

c)

Insulin and glucagon

d)

Melatonin and ANP

143.

Calcitriol (active vitamin D₃) increases:

a)

Calcium excretion

b)

Calcium deposition into bone only

c)

Calcium absorption from the intestine

d)

Sodium reabsorption

144.

(Select all that apply) Paracrine secretions differ from hormones in that they:

a)

Have systemic effects

b)

Are not secreted by neurons

c)

Do not travel through the bloodstream

d)

Act locally on nearby cells

145.

Histamine functions as a paracrine by:

a)

Causing vasoconstriction

b)

Causing vasodilation and capillary permeability

c)

Inhibiting smooth muscle contraction

d)

Stimulating insulin release

146.

Nitric oxide (NO) acts as a:

a)

Hormone

b)

Digestive enzyme

c)

Neurotransmitter and paracrine vasodilator

d)

Growth factor

147.

Eicosanoids are derived from:

a)

Arachidonic acid

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Iodine

148.

Leukotrienes are involved primarily in:

a)

Lipid digestion

b)

Glucose storage

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Inflammatory and allergic responses

149.

Prostaglandins function to:

a)

Prevent smooth muscle contraction

b)

Regulate diverse local processes

c)

Replace damaged hormones

d)

Promote gene transcription

150.

Prostacyclin differs from thromboxane because prostacyclin:

a)

Promotes clotting

b)

Inhibits clotting and causes vasodilation

c)

Stimulates platelet aggregation

d)

Causes bronchoconstriction

151.

Thromboxanes are produced by:

a)

Neurons

b)

Adipose cells

c)

Blood platelets

d)

Skeletal muscle

152.

(Select all that apply) Chronic stress can lead to:

a)

Suppressed immunity

b)

Muscle wasting

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypoglycemia

153.

The stage of the stress response when glycogen reserves are depleted and cortisol dominates is:

a)

Alarm reaction

b)

Stage of resistance

c)

Stage of exhaustion

d)

Homeostasis

154.

The hormone primarily responsible for long-term stress adaptation is:

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Cortisol

d)

Insulin

155.

During the exhaustion stage of stress, death can result from:

a)

Hypokalemia and alkalosis

b)

Hyperglycemia and euphoria

c)

High insulin levels

d)

Bone overgrowth

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