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Vitamin Assessment Quiz

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a static test for assessing nutrient status?

a)

Methionine load test

b)

Plasma retinol concentration

c)

Dark adaptation test

d)

Rhodopsin response test

2.

The Relative Dose-Response (RDR) test for vitamin A assesses:

a)

Total vitamin A in diet

b)

Plasma vitamin A changes after supplementation

c)

Retinol-binding protein function

d)

Liver enzyme levels

3.

What is the formula for calculating the RDR value?

a)

(Vit A0 – Vit A5) / Vit A5 × 100

b)

Vit A5 / Vit A0 × 100

c)

(Vit A5 – Vit A0) / Vit A5 × 100

d)

Vit A5 × Vit A0 / 100

4.

Which test is considered the gold standard for Vitamin A status?

a)

Serum retinol test

b)

Retinol-binding protein assay

c)

Conjunctival impression cytology

d)

Liver biopsy

5.

What is the main circulating form of Vitamin D used to assess status?

a)

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

b)

Ergocalciferol

c)

25-hydroxyvitamin D

d)

Retinyl palmitate

6.

Vitamin D deficiency in adults can lead to:

a)

Scurvy

b)

Osteomalacia

c)

Rickets

d)

Pellagra

7.

What is the clinical deficiency disease for Vitamin C?

a)

Pellagra

b)

Beriberi

c)

Rickets

d)

Scurvy

8.

A serum Vitamin C concentration below 11.4 μmol/L indicates:

a)

Toxicity

b)

Normal range

c)

Deficiency

d)

Infection

9.

What is the major urinary metabolite used to assess recent Vitamin B6 intake?

a)

PLP

b)

4-pyridoxic acid

c)

Pyridoxine

d)

Homocysteine

10.

Which is the most frequently used biochemical indicator of Vitamin B6 status?

a)

Urinary PL

b)

Methionine test

c)

Plasma PLP

d)

Plasma pyridoxine

11.

Which of the following reflects long-term folate status?

a)

Serum folate

b)

Urinary folate

c)

RBC folate

d)

Homocysteine

12.

A low serum folate concentration is defined as:

a)

<2 ng/mL

b)

<100 ng/mL

c)

<5 μmol/L

d)

<11.4 μmol/L

13.

What is a direct marker of Vitamin B12 status?

a)

Total homocysteine

b)

Serum MMA

c)

Total serum cobalamin

d)

Plasma folate

14.

Elevated methylmalonic acid (MMA) in serum may indicate:

a)

Folate deficiency

b)

Vitamin A toxicity

c)

Vitamin B12 deficiency

d)

Iron overload

15.

A limitation of MMA and tHcy testing is that levels may also be elevated in:

a)

Liver cancer

b)

Renal dysfunction

c)

Obesity

d)

High protein diets

16.

ALT is commonly elevated in which condition?

a)

Asthma

b)

Liver disease

c)

Bone fracture

d)

Dehydration

17.

Which enzyme is elevated in both liver and muscle damage?

a)

ALT

b)

ALP

c)

AST

d)

LDH

18.

ALP levels are normally higher in:

a)

Elderly males

b)

Adolescents during skeletal growth

c)

Postmenopausal women

d)

Diabetic patients

19.

What is the primary function of albumin in blood?

a)

Bone formation

b)

Oxygen transport

c)

Maintenance of osmotic pressure

d)

Hormone synthesis

20.

A serum bilirubin >2 mg/dL indicates:

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Jaundice

d)

Kidney failure

21.

Elevated unconjugated bilirubin usually results from:

a)

Bile duct obstruction

b)

Liver cirrhosis

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Alcoholism

22.

What is the primary waste product used to assess kidney function?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Uric acid

c)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

d)

Ammonia

23.

Azotemia refers to elevated levels of:

a)

Creatinine

b)

Sodium

c)

BUN

d)

Albumin

24.

What is the normal range of serum calcium?

a)

3.5–5.0 mg/dL

b)

4.5–5.6 mg/dL

c)

9.0–10.5 mg/dL

d)

10.5–13.0 mg/dL

25.

Hyperkalemia is commonly caused by:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Excess dietary intake

c)

Renal failure

d)

Anemia

26.

The major extracellular cation in the body is:

a)

Potassium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sodium

d)

Chloride

27.

Which electrolyte often mirrors changes in sodium and is important in acid-base balance?

a)

Potassium

b)

Chloride

c)

Calcium

d)

Phosphorus

28.

A normal phosphorus level in adults is:

a)

1.5–2.5 mg/dL

b)

3.0–4.5 mg/dL

c)

5.5–7.0 mg/dL

d)

8.0–10.0 mg/dL

29.

Which blood component is elevated in myocardial infarction and liver disease?

a)

AST

b)

LDH

c)

ALT

d)

ALP

30.

Which test is commonly used in diabetes diagnosis?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Fasting plasma glucose (FPG)

d)

LDL cholesterol

31.

Which test is used to assess epithelial changes in Vitamin A deficiency?

a)

Liver biopsy

b)

Dark adaptation test

c)

Conjunctival impression cytology

d)

Serum retinol-binding protein

32.

Which vitamin is essential for collagen formation and iron absorption?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin B12

d)

Vitamin A

33.

Which form of vitamin B6 is most abundant in plasma and used for assessment?

a)

Pyridoxamine

b)

Pyridoxine

c)

Pyridoxal 5′-phosphate (PLP)

d)

Pyridoxal

34.

What is the main disadvantage of using RBC PLP for vitamin B6 status?

a)

Too expensive

b)

Invasive technique

c)

Interference by hemoglobin binding

d)

Easily altered by hydration status

35.

What is the normal lifespan of erythrocytes, affecting RBC folate measurements?

a)

60 days

b)

100 days

c)

120 days

d)

180 days

36.

What is the function of folate in DNA synthesis?

a)

Methyl group donor for proteins

b)

Iron carrier

c)

Synthesis of purines and pyrimidines

d)

Cholesterol conversion

37.

Which vitamin is mainly obtained from animal-based foods or fortified products?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin B6

d)

Folate

38.

What is the major circulating protein that transports Vitamin A in plasma?

a)

Albumin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Retinol-binding protein

39.

In MRDR test, which compound is given orally?

a)

Retinyl palmitate

b)

Dehydroretinol

c)

Beta-carotene

d)

Isotopic retinol

40.

In the dark adaptation test, which photopigment is directly involved?

a)

Melanin

b)

Rhodopsin

c)

Retinaldehyde

d)

Carotene

41.

A result of low plasma PLP may occur due to all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Coronary heart disease

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Asthma

d)

High protein diet

42.

Which condition is associated with low RBC folate?

a)

Hyperparathyroidism

b)

Megaloblastic anemia

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Hypocalcemia

43.

What method is used for minimally invasive total body vitamin A assessment?

a)

Plasma retinol test

b)

Retinol isotope dilution

c)

Serum RBP

d)

Conjunctival test

44.

Which enzyme is NOT primarily associated with liver function?

a)

ALT

b)

AST

c)

LDH

d)

Creatine kinase

45.

A high BUN level can be caused by:

a)

Excess water intake

b)

Liver disease

c)

Dehydration

d)

Hypokalemia

46.

Which of the following is a product of protein metabolism?

a)

Creatinine

b)

Uric acid

c)

Urea

d)

Homocysteine

47.

An increased serum creatinine level is a sign of:

a)

Good hydration

b)

Liver disease

c)

Renal impairment

d)

Bile duct obstruction

48.

Which condition may result in hypokalemia?

a)

Addison’s disease

b)

Diuretic use

c)

Kidney failure

d)

Hemolysis

49.

Which ion is essential in nerve impulse transmission?

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosphate

c)

Potassium

d)

Chloride

50.

Which electrolyte imbalance is seen in vomiting and diarrhea?

a)

Hypernatremia

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypercalcemia

51.

A low serum chloride (hypochloremia) may indicate:

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Dehydration

c)

Alkalosis

d)

High blood pressure

52.

Hyperphosphatemia is commonly seen in:

a)

Vitamin D deficiency

b)

Rickets

c)

Renal failure

d)

Pregnancy

53.

Which of these markers is influenced by kidney function and may lead to false results in elderly?

a)

Plasma PLP

b)

MMA and tHcy

c)

ALT and AST

d)

Total cholesterol

54.

Which condition would most likely result in elevated ALT and AST?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Viral hepatitis

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

Hypocalcemia

55.

ALT is found in greatest concentrations in which organ?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Heart

c)

Liver

d)

Muscle

56.

ALP can be elevated in all EXCEPT:

a)

Liver cirrhosis

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Bone growth

d)

Diabetes

57.

A low serum albumin level may indicate:

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Malnutrition

c)

Elevated calcium

d)

Overhydration

58.

What condition is associated with elevated conjugated (direct) bilirubin?

a)

Bile duct obstruction

b)

Hemolytic anemia

c)

Fasting

d)

Bone fracture

59.

Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to:

a)

Urea

b)

Globulin

c)

Albumin

d)

Calcium

60.

Elevated BUN and creatinine are both indicative of:

a)

Liver disease

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Renal dysfunction

d)

Rickets

61.

What is the main difference between BUN and creatinine?

a)

BUN is more specific

b)

Creatinine is more stable

c)

Creatinine fluctuates with hydration

d)

BUN is not affected by protein intake

62.

Which of the following can lead to decreased BUN?

a)

High protein diet

b)

Liver failure

c)

Dehydration

d)

Obstruction of the urinary tract

63.

Which condition is associated with elevated serum calcium?

a)

Hypoparathyroidism

b)

Rickets

c)

Hyperparathyroidism

d)

Iron deficiency anemia

64.

Hypokalemia may be caused by all EXCEPT:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Diuretics

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Kidney failure

65.

What condition is most associated with hyperkalemia?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Excess potassium intake

c)

Renal failure

d)

Fasting

66.

Hyponatremia may occur in:

a)

Excess sodium intake

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Fever

d)

Obesity

67.

What does serum CO₂ reflect in blood chemistry tests?

a)

Oxygenation

b)

Base excess

c)

Acid-base balance

d)

Electrolyte levels

68.

Elevated serum phosphorus may be caused by:

a)

Overhydration

b)

Chronic renal failure

c)

Vitamin D deficiency

d)

Diuretics

69.

Which mineral is closely regulated with phosphorus in serum levels?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Calcium

c)

Sodium

d)

Iron

70.

LDH levels are usually elevated during:

a)

Liver enzyme suppression

b)

Dehydration

c)

Tissue breakdown

d)

Muscle relaxation

71.

Which is NOT part of the typical blood chemistry panel?

a)

Creatinine

b)

LDH

c)

Glucose

d)

Vitamin K

72.

Which test is commonly used to screen for cardiovascular risk?

a)

AST

b)

HDL/LDL ratio

c)

ALT

d)

Creatinine

73.

A high fasting triglyceride level can result from all EXCEPT:

a)

Excess alcohol

b)

High carbohydrate diet

c)

Obesity

d)

Iron overload

74.

What is the most commonly used serum protein in assessing protein status?

a)

Prealbumin

b)

Albumin

c)

Retinol-binding protein

d)

Transferrin

75.

The formula for calculating nitrogen balance is:

a)

UUN - PRO / 6.25

b)

PRO x 6.25 - UUN

c)

(PRO / 6.25) - (UUN + 4)

d)

(UUN + 4) / PRO x 6.25

76.

Which indicator is most sensitive for detecting early iron deficiency?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Serum ferritin

c)

Hematocrit

d)

Serum iron

77.

Which is NOT a limitation of biochemical tests?

a)

Can reflect long-term intake only

b)

Influenced by non-nutritional factors

c)

Can be technically challenging

d)

Some tests are nonspecific

78.

Creatinine-height index (CHI) is used to assess:

a)

Iron absorption

b)

Calcium metabolism

c)

Muscle mass depletion

d)

Iodine status

79.

What fraction of serum calcium is physiologically active?

a)

Protein-bound

b)

Ionized

c)

Complexed

d)

Bound to albumin

80.

What is the most feasible current approach to assess calcium status?

a)

Serum calcium

b)

Bone mineral content

c)

Urinary calcium

d)

Plasma phosphate

81.

In protein-energy malnutrition, CHI value below 40% indicates:

a)

Mild depletion

b)

Normal status

c)

Severe depletion

d)

Moderate depletion

82.

Which marker increases during early iron-deficient erythropoiesis?

a)

Serum ferritin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Soluble transferrin receptor (sTfR)

d)

Hematocrit

83.

Plasma zinc concentration is:

a)

A reliable indicator of zinc status

b)

Affected by stress and infection

c)

Completely unaffected by hormones

d)

Best used after supplementation only

84.

Iron deficiency anemia is associated with:

a)

Increased serum ferritin

b)

Increased MCV

c)

Decreased transferrin saturation

d)

Normal hemoglobin levels

85.

What does the erythrocyte protoporphyrin level indicate?

a)

Protein intake

b)

Early iodine deficiency

c)

Impaired heme synthesis

d)

Serum calcium status

86.

Which urinary biomarker is most widely used to assess iodine status?

a)

Creatinine

b)

UUN

c)

Urinary Iodine (UI)

d)

TSH

87.

Which serum protein has the shortest half-life?

a)

Albumin

b)

Transferrin

c)

Prealbumin

d)

Ferritin

88.

What is the cause of hypercalcemia?

a)

Hypoparathyroidism

b)

Vitamin C deficiency

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Iron deficiency

89.

Which test best indicates iron overload?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

TIBC

c)

Serum ferritin

d)

MCH

90.

Zinc in hair reflects:

a)

Short-term dietary changes

b)

Diurnal variations

c)

Long-term nutritional status

d)

Serum iron level

91.

Which is the most reliable model to assess iron status in inflammatory conditions?

a)

MCV model

b)

Ferritin model

c)

Body iron model

d)

CHI

92.

Hematocrit is a measure of:

a)

Oxygen capacity

b)

Total blood calcium

c)

% of RBCs in whole blood

d)

Zinc concentration

93.

What could lead to falsely low zinc levels?

a)

Hair growth

b)

Fasting

c)

Inflammation

d)

Supplementation

94.

What is NOT a function of zinc?

a)

Wound healing

b)

Hormone production

c)

Enzyme component

d)

Bone mineralization

95.

What is the main reason for calcium status not being accurately assessed biochemically?

a)

Limited intake

b)

Stable serum levels due to homeostasis

c)

Low absorption

d)

Excess losses

96.

Which hormone is most sensitive to neonatal iodine status?

a)

TSH

b)

T4

c)

Thyroglobulin

d)

Insulin

97.

What does MCV stand for?

a)

Mean Cell Volume

b)

Mean Corpuscular Volume

c)

Maximum Cell Volume

d)

Membrane Cellular Volume

98.

Which protein binds most of the iron in serum?

a)

Albumin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Ferritin

99.

Which marker of protein status is most affected by hydration?

a)

Retinol-binding protein

b)

Albumin

c)

CHI

d)

Creatinine excretion

100.

A patient has low serum zinc and high metallothionein. What does it suggest?

a)

Zinc deficiency

b)

Acute infection response

c)

Iodine overload

d)

Poor protein intake

101.

The ratio of serum iron to TIBC is called:

a)

Ferritin index

b)

Iron index

c)

Transferrin saturation

d)

Iron capacity ratio

102.

What is the function of metallothionein in zinc assessment?

a)

Reflects long-term zinc stores

b)

Unreliable for all assessments

c)

Helps differentiate between redistribution and deficiency

d)

Increases with true deficiency only

103.

Urinary zinc analysis is less preferred because:

a)

It is extremely accurate

b)

Not influenced by diseases

c)

It’s only possible with children

d)

Influenced by non-nutritional factors and difficult collection

104.

Which component is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?

a)

Zinc

b)

Iron

c)

Calcium

d)

Iodine

105.

The creatinine-height index (CHI) compares:

a)

Protein intake vs. excretion

b)

Measured vs. expected urinary creatinine

c)

Serum creatinine vs. plasma creatinine

d)

Dietary protein vs. nitrogen output

106.

Which fraction of serum calcium is inactive?

a)

Ionized

b)

Complexed

c)

Protein-bound

d)

Free

107.

One key drawback of hair zinc measurement is:

a)

It is invasive

b)

It fluctuates daily

c)

Easily contaminated

d)

Requires fasting

108.

Which hormone regulates serum calcium homeostasis?

a)

Insulin

b)

Parathyroid hormone

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Cortisol

109.

Soluble transferrin receptor (sTfR) levels rise in:

a)

Iodine excess

b)

Early iron deficiency

c)

Calcium deficiency

d)

Zinc deficiency

110.

In iron depletion's first stage, which marker decreases?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

MCV

c)

Serum ferritin

d)

sTfR

111.

The best sample to estimate recent iodine intake in individuals is:

a)

Hair

b)

Saliva

c)

24-hour urine

d)

Feces

112.

Retinol-binding protein is used to assess:

a)

Zinc status

b)

Iodine status

c)

Protein-energy status

d)

Bone mineral density

113.

What condition may cause hypocalcemia?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Hypervitaminosis D

c)

Hypoparathyroidism

d)

Excess protein intake

114.

Which of the following is a functional indicator of nutrient deficiency?

a)

Serum iron

b)

Plasma calcium

c)

Dark adaptation test

d)

UUN

115.

CHI of 75% indicates:

a)

Normal muscle mass

b)

Moderate depletion

c)

Severe depletion

d)

Mild depletion

116.

What is the primary method of iron loss in premenopausal women?

a)

Urinary excretion

b)

Menstruation

c)

Sweat loss

d)

Hemorrhoids

117.

Metallothionein helps interpret:

a)

Calcium excretion

b)

Plasma zinc levels during stress

c)

TSH in neonates

d)

Urinary iodine

118.

MCV reflects:

a)

Plasma protein concentration

b)

Red blood cell size

c)

Bone mineralization

d)

Zinc-binding capacity

119.

Hemoglobin is not a good indicator of early iron deficiency because:

a)

It is unreliable

b)

It’s too sensitive

c)

It only drops in later stages

d)

It is affected by calcium

120.

Which of the following is LEAST invasive for nutrient assessment?

a)

Plasma zinc

b)

24-hour urine

c)

Hair zinc

d)

Liver biopsy

121.

A person with high protein intake and low phosphate intake may have:

a)

Increased calcium excretion

b)

Decreased zinc excretion

c)

Increased iodine retention

d)

Decreased serum calcium

122.

A major cause of iron overload is:

a)

Poor iron absorption

b)

Multiple blood transfusions

c)

Low dietary fiber

d)

Overuse of calcium

123.

Which value is calculated by dividing hemoglobin by RBC count?

a)

MCV

b)

MCH

c)

TIBC

d)

CHI

124.

Which specimen type is least commonly used in routine biochemical assessment?

a)

Blood

b)

Urine

c)

Saliva

d)

Feces

125.

What is the main protein used for short-term assessment of protein status?

a)

Albumin

b)

Prealbumin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Retinol-binding protein

126.

Which condition is associated with zinc deficiency?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

Hypoparathyroidism

c)

Dwarfism

d)

Osteoporosis

127.

What factor increases the risk of iron deficiency during adolescence?

a)

Reduced blood volume

b)

Increased dietary fiber

c)

Rapid growth

d)

Calcium overload

128.

Which test is LEAST useful in diagnosing calcium deficiency?

a)

Bone mineral content

b)

Serum calcium

c)

Urinary calcium

d)

Calcium isotope tracer

129.

Which component measures the amount of iron bound to transferrin?

a)

TIBC

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Serum iron

d)

CHI

130.

What does MCH represent?

a)

Total RBC volume

b)

Hemoglobin per red cell

c)

Calcium per liter

d)

Transferrin concentration

131.

Why is plasma zinc not reliable during acute illness?

a)

Increases rapidly

b)

Not absorbed in illness

c)

Levels fall due to redistribution

d)

Zinc is destroyed by fever

132.

Serum ferritin is a marker of:

a)

Iron stores

b)

Iron excretion

c)

Zinc absorption

d)

Hemoglobin transport

133.

What is the primary function of urinary urea nitrogen (UUN) in assessment?

a)

Iron absorption

b)

Protein catabolism estimation

c)

Calcium loss

d)

Iodine excretion

134.

Transferrin saturation is calculated using:

a)

Serum ferritin / Hemoglobin

b)

MCH x MCV

c)

Serum iron / TIBC

d)

Hematocrit / Serum iron

135.

Zinc levels in hair can be affected by:

a)

TSH

b)

Hair color and age

c)

Serum iodine

d)

Ferritin

136.

The test measuring total iron-binding capacity provides an estimate of:

a)

Hemoglobin concentration

b)

Transferrin availability

c)

Ferritin stores

d)

Plasma zinc

137.

Which test is most useful for assessing population iodine status over time?

a)

TIBC

b)

Serum ferritin

c)

Goiter rate

d)

CHI

138.

What value is typically low in microcytic anemia?

a)

MCV

b)

TIBC

c)

UUN

d)

Serum calcium

139.

What increases erythrocyte protoporphyrin?

a)

Excess calcium

b)

Iron overload

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

Vitamin A deficiency

140.

A normal serum ferritin but low hemoglobin and low MCV may indicate:

a)

Acute infection

b)

Zinc excess

c)

Iron overload

d)

Early-stage protein malnutrition

141.

Which is NOT a limitation of using urinary zinc for status assessment?

a)

Affected by disease

b)

Hard to collect

c)

Reflects long-term intake

d)

Inconsistent excretion

142.

What is the ideal biomarker for diagnosing iron deficiency in inflammation?

a)

CHI

b)

Serum ferritin

c)

sTfR

d)

Albumin

143.

Which of the following decreases during severe protein-energy malnutrition?

a)

UUN

b)

Transferrin

c)

Plasma zinc

d)

All of the above

144.

Which of the following contributes the most to total energy expenditure?

a)

Physical activity

b)

Thermic effect of food

c)

Basal metabolism

d)

Adaptive thermogenesis

145.

What does a bomb calorimeter measure?

a)

Rate of food digestion

b)

Absorption of calories

c)

Heat released from burning food

d)

Physical energy during activity

146.

Which is NOT a component of energy expenditure?

a)

Thermic effect of food

b)

Basal metabolism

c)

Physical activity

d)

Water consumption

147.

What is the typical percentage of energy used for the thermic effect of food?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

148.

Which source is used in Malaysia to obtain nutrient data for foods?

a)

USDA Food Composition

b)

EFSA Database

c)

Malaysian Food Composition Database (MYFCD)

d)

FAO Nutrient Atlas

149.

Which of the following is considered the gold standard method for measuring total energy expenditure?

a)

Direct calorimetry

b)

Doubly labeled water

c)

Harris-Benedict Equation

d)

Quick Method

150.

When energy intake equals energy output, the person is said to be in:

a)

Positive energy balance

b)

Negative energy balance

c)

Energy surplus

d)

Energy balance

151.

The Quick Method of estimating energy needs typically uses:

a)

Detailed food diary

b)

Body weight and activity factor

c)

Basal metabolic rate only

d)

Doubly labeled water test

152.

If a person’s TEI is 2000 kcal/day and 30% is from fat, how many kcal comes from fat?

a)

400 kcal

b)

500 kcal

c)

600 kcal

d)

700 kcal

153.

Which macronutrient provides the highest kcal per gram?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Fat

d)

Water

154.

Which of the following methods measures heat released by the body to determine energy expenditure?

a)

Indirect calorimetry

b)

Direct calorimetry

c)

Respiratory quotient

d)

Doubly labeled water

155.

The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is typically measured:

a)

After exercise and a full meal

b)

While standing and active

c)

After an overnight fast and rest

d)

During intense physical activity

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