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Worksheetslecture final exam questions
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins
Which of the following lists the 4 types of tissues?
muscular, skeletal, integumentary, connective
nervous, integumentary, epithelium, endocrine
epithelium, nervous, muscle, connective
skeletal, cardiac, connective, nervous
Which of the following functions is associated with the endocrine system?
hormone secretion
blood flow
respiration
movement
How many organ systems are there?
Which of the following cavities contain the lungs and the heart?
abdominal
thoracic
vertebral
cranial
The chemical level of structural organization can be described as:
the smallest units of living things
groups of similar cells with a common function
interactions between atoms and molecules
several tissues performing the same function
A sagittal section refers to a cut lengthwise dividing the body into:
anterior and posterior parts
right and left parts
superior and inferior parts
none of the above
Appendicular is a term associated with which organ system?
urinary
respiratory
integumentary
skeletal
Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?
breaks down food into absorbable units that enter the blood for distribution to body cells
eliminates nitrogenous wastes from the body
supplies blood with oxygen and removes carbon dioxide
provides a framework muscles use to cause movement
Which part of the body does the term "plantar" refer to?
the bottom of the foot
the neck
the wrist
the armpit
A homeostatic mechanism in which an original stimulus is shut off or its intensity is reduced is an example of:
metabolism
positive feedback
an imbalance
negative feedback
What kind of energy travels in waves through light or x-ray?
chemical
electrical
mechanical
radiant or electromagnetic
Which of the following describes the structural characteristics of RNA and DNA?
What are the 5 nitrogen bases represented by their initials?
N, O, C, H, and K
A, G, C, T, and U
Cl, O, S, C, and K
Mg, Ca, K, Na, and Cl
Which of the following best describes chemical reactions?
unequal electron pair sharing
charged particles
attractions formed by linkage
formation, rearrangement, or breakage of chemical bonds
What does the nucleus contain in an atom?
neutrons and electrons
protons
protons and neutrons
protons and electrons
Linkage between globular polypeptides is an example of which protein structure?
primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary
What is the normal pH range of blood?
7.35-7.45
8.35-8.45
6.25-6.35
8.15-8.25
Which of the following about solutions is true?
The amount of solute and solvent is equal in a solution.
The solvent makes up the least quantity in a solution.
Gases do not dissolve in solution.
Solutions can have different tonicities and affect cell volumes.
What is the maximum number of electrons that the second valence shell can hold?
6
2
8
18
If an atom loses an electron, the resulting charge of that atom is:
more negative
neutral
more positive
unchanged from its original charge
Anchoring junctions are characteristic of:
tight junctions
desmosomes
gap junctions
transport proteins
Cytoskeletal elements include all of the following EXCEPT:
intermediate filaments
pseudopods
microfilaments
microtubules
What are the 3 main parts of a cell?
nucleolus, cytoplasm, cell membrane
cytoplasm, ribosomes, nucleus
nucleolus, mitochondria, plasma membrane
nucleus, cytoplasm, plasma membrane
Diffusion will occur most quickly when particles are ___ and the temperature is ___.
(a)
How many types of RNA are there in terms of the processes of transcription and translation?
1
2
3
4
The Na-K ATPase does which of the following?
pumps sodium ions into the cell
pumps sodium ions out of the cell
pumps potassium ions out of the cell
pumps sodium and potassium out of the cell in a symport
DNA replication occurs in which phase?
prophase
interphase
telophase
cytokinesis
Which of the following is the correct order of mitosis?
metaphase → prophase → anaphase → telophase
anaphase → prophase → metaphase → telophase
telophase → prophase → metaphase → anaphase
prophase → metaphase → anaphase → telophase
During what phase of mitosis would chromosomes cluster in the middle of the cell?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
The cell membrane is made up of which of the following?
phospholipids, glycolipids, and cholesterol
ribosomes
ER, ribosomes, and lysosomes
ER, mitochondria, and ribosomes
Which of the following are types of cartilage?
areolar, adipose, and reticular
osteoblast, osteocytes, and osteons
hyaline, elastic, and articular
cutaneous, mucous, and serous
What type of epithelial tissue lines hollow urinary organs and stretch when they fill?
transitional
stratified
glandular
pseudostratified
Bone is an example of which tissue type?
epithelial
connective
muscle
nervous
What are the 3 main components of connective tissue?
fibers, tissues, and alveolar cells.
ground substances, fibers, and cells
cells, blood, and simple glands
tissue, epithelium, and columnar
Which of the following would be considered a function of connective tissue?
insulation
secretion
nerve impulse conduction
filtration
Which muscle tissue is involuntary and striated?
cardiac
skeletal
smooth
all of the above
Which of these is NOT a type of epithelial tissue shape?
squamous
cuboidal
basal
columnar
Which of the following are components of muscle cells that bring about movement?
tendons
intercalated discs
myofilaments
none of the above
Articular cartilage is a type of:
elastic cartilage
fibrocartilage
hyaline cartilage
none of the above
Which of the following is a type of loose connective tissue?
dense regular
elastic
dense irregular
adipose
A full thickness burn is an example of which of the following?
1st degree
2nd degree
3rd degree
all of the above
When hemoglobin is oxygenated poorly, the condition is known as cyanosis and indicated by what color?
red
yellow
black
blue
The ABCD rule stands for which of the following?
asymmetry, border, color, diameter
asymmetry, border, core, detail
asymmetry, border, core, diameter
asymmetry, border, color, distance
Which of the following protects DNA from UV radiation by absorbing rays?
melanin
carotene
hemoglobin
none of the above
The region beneath the free edge of the nail is the:
lunule
cuticle
eponychium
hyponychium
What cells in the epidermis arise from bone marrow and play a role in how the immune system deals with foreign substances?
keratinocytes
melanocytes
tactile cells
dendritic cells
The dermal tissue containing capillaries and supplying nutrients to the hair is called the:
follicle
bulb
receptor
papilla
All of the following are layers of keratinized hair cells in the hair root EXCEPT:
medulla
cortex
glassy membrane
cuticle
The deepest layer of the epidermis is the stratum:
corneum
lucidum
spinosum
basale
The rule of nines refers to:
the estimation of fluid lost as a result of a burn
the nine degree classification of burns (1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th...)
the nine different types of infections which result from a burn
the nine different allergies of skin (ex. contact dermatitis)
What vitamin is responsible for bone mass?
a. D
b. K
c. C
d. B
What is the “shaft” part of a bone called?
a. epiphysis
b. diaphysis
c. periosteum
d. endosteum
What are the four classifications used to describe bone?
a. long, short, flat, and irregular
b. long, flat, wide, and short
c. flat, short, regular, and irregular
d. axial, appendicular, cartilage, and fibrous
How many bones make up the body?
a. 189
b. 206
c. 230
d. 150
Which of the following diseases is described as poorly mineralized bone due to a vitamin D deficiency?
a. osteopetrosis
b. osteomalacia
c. osteoporosis
d. Paget’s disease
What forms the long axis of the body?
a. axial skeleton
b. appendicular skeleton
c. long bones
d. short bones
A type of cartilage which is compressible and has strength such as that found between vertebrae is called:
a. hyaline cartilage
b. elastic cartilage
c. fibrocartilage
d. all of the above
______ cartilage is found in the external ear.
hyaline
elastic
costal
fibrous
What stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone, releasing calcium into blood?
calcitonin
parathyroid hormone
thyroid hormone
prolactin
Phalanges are examples of what shape bone?
flat
long
short
irregular
Which bone is inferior to the patella?
femur
radius
tibia
ulna
What are true ribs connected to?
sternum
manubrium
xiphoid process
vertebral column
The longest single bone of the thigh is the:
humerus
fibula
femur
radius
Which is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone?
maxilla
mandible
hyoid
sphenoid
There are ______ cervical vertebrae.
a. 8
b. 5
c. 12
d. 7
The bone of the leg which does not bear weight is the ______.
mandible
femur
fibula
tibia
What is the name of the lower jawbone?
(a)
The bone which articulates with the radius and the ulna found in the upper arm is the:
(a)
The (a) bone makes up the skull’s posterior and base.
Which of the following is NOT part of the hip bone?
a. ilium
b. coccyx
c. pubis
d. ischium
Which description best describes flexion?
a. The up and down movement of the foot at the ankle
b. Movement along the sagittal plane that increases the angle between the articulating bones and typically straightens a flexed limb or body part
c. Movement of the limb toward the body midline
d. Bending movement, that decreases the angle of the joint and brings the articulating bones closer together
The hip joint is an example of which of the following?
hinge
ball and socket
condylar
saddle
What holds the skeleton together and gives it mobility?
sutures
joints
tendon sheaths
insertion
Which of the following is true about the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint?
It is a ball and socket joint
It is reinforced by ligaments
It is reinforced by tendons
All of the above are true
What are the three structural classifications of joints?
Fibrous, Cartilaginous, Synovial
Synarthroses, Amphiarthroses, Diarthroses
Sutures, Syndesmoses, Gomphoses
Ligaments, Joints, Bursae
Which of the following joint(s) is/are freely movable?
synovial
cartilaginous
fibrous
all of the above
Which type of arthritis is also called wear and tear arthritis?
rheumatoid arthritis
gouty arthritis
osteoarthritis
none of the above
Which of the following is NOT classified as a type of synovial joint?
Saddle
Ball and Socket
Pivot
Rotation
In the functional classification of joints, the immovable joints of the body are referred to as:
synarthroses
fibrous
diarthroses
all of the above
Which of the following is not correctly paired with its description?
shoulder; ball and socket
temporomandibular; jaw joint
elbow; pivot joint
coxal; ball and socket
In the generation of an action potential along the sarcolemma, the stage in which the voltage gated Na+ channels open allowing the action potential to spread is known as:
repolarization
synchronization
hyperpolarization
depolarization
Which of the following best describes aerobic respiration?
produces lactic acid
does not require oxygen
is not associated with ATP production
occurs in the mitochondria
Thin filaments are called _______.
myosin
tropomyosin
Ach
Which of the following is an example of isometric contraction?
walking up a steep hill
picking up a book
writing with a pencil
trying unsuccessfully to lift a piano by oneself
Which of the following is not a function of muscles?
stabilize joints
filter wastes
maintain posture
produce movement
Which of the following muscle types is both voluntary and striated?
cardiac muscle only
smooth muscle only
skeletal muscle only
cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
All of the following describe the characteristics of the muscle tissue except _______.
elasticity
contractility
excitability
When a nerve impulse reaches the end of an axon, what is the next IMMEDIATE step?
Acetylcholine is stimulated to be released into the synaptic cleft.
Acetylcholine binds to its receptors on the muscle fiber.
Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
An action potential is generated in the muscle fiber
Which of the following correctly occurs during skeletal muscle contraction?
Calcium binds to troponin.
Tropomyosin shifts revealing the myosin binding sites on actin.
Cross bridges occur between troponin and tropomyosin.
Thick and thin filaments are pulled apart during contraction (sarcomeres lengthen)
Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of smooth muscle?
voluntary muscle
slow and sustained contractions
walls of hollow organs
activation of calmodulin
What are the 4 function groups in the muscular system?
Agonist, Antagonist, Synergist, Fixators
Prime movers, agonists, synergist, fixators
Primer movers, agonists, fixators, antagonist
Fixators, agonist, synergist, synergy
What characteristic(s) is/are used to name skeletal muscles?
Muscle action
Number of origins
Direction of muscle fibers
All of the above
What kind of lever is a wheelbarrow classified as?
2nd class
3rd class
4th class
1st class
A seesaw can be considered as a ______ class lever.
second
third
fourth
Levers are analogous to which body structure?
joints
bones
muscle contraction
all of the above
Which of the following muscle categories oppose or reverse a particular movement?
agonist
synergist
antagonist
fixator
The superficial muscle of the medial thigh responsible for adduction is the ______.
fibularis longus
trapezius
gastronemius
The ________ is the triangular muscle forming the shoulder muscle mass.
biceps brachii
deltoid
triceps brachii
sternocleidomastoid
The ________ extends from the cheekbone to the corners of the mouth and is responsible for the action of smiling.
opponens pollicis
sartorius
zygomaticus
orbicularis oculi
Which of the following has fibers that run downward and medially, flexes the vertebral column and compresses the abdominal wall?
buccinator
tibialis anterior
levator scapulae
external oblique
Which of the following are types of neuron processes?
synapse, nerve
axon, synapse
dendrite, synapse
dendrite, axon
What is the correct order of the generation of an action potential?
depolarization-> hyperpolarization-> repolarization
repolarization- > depolarization-> hyperpolarization
repolarization-> hyperpolarization-> depolarization
depolarization-> repolarization-> hyperpolarization
Which of the following neuroglia is not part of the CNS
Astrocytes
satellite cells
ependymal cells
microglial cells
Saltatory conduction refers to...
a fast type of nerve impulse conduction where action potentials are generated at nodes of Ranvier
a type of nerve impulse conduction where action potentials are generated along the whole axon continuously
the different stages of action potentials
the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles
Autonomic nervous system innervation stimulates which of the following?
cardiac muscle
smooth muscle
glands
all of the above
Which of the following describes Ohm's law?
V=I/R
I=R/V
V=IR
V=R/I
Which cells in the PNS are responsible for producing myelin sheaths?
dendrites
satellite cells
schwann cells
ependymal cells
Which of the following statements is true?
dendrites are myelinated
clusters of cells bodies in the PNS are called nuclei
bundles of neuron process in the PNS are called tracts
myelin sheaths increase the transmission of nerve impulses
which of the following is the correct order of elements involved in serial processing as seen with the reflex arc?
receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector, CNS integration center
receptor, sensory neuron, CNS integration center, motor neuron, effector
receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, CNS integration center, effector
sensory neuron, CNS integration center, motor neuron, effector, receptor
Which type of neuron process conveys messages towards the cell body?
nerves
tracts
dendrites
axon
There are __ pairs of spinal nerves.
12
31
15
22
What disease is the result of a degeneration pf the dopamine-releasing neurons of the substantia nigra?
alzheimer's
huntington's
parkinson's
none of the above
which of the following best describes Brocas area
helps plan movements
cortical region controlling voluntary movement of the eye
motor speech area directing muscles in speech production
controls voluntary movements of skeletal muscles
Which of the following is not apart of the brainstem?
midbrain
medulla oblongata
thalamus
pons
Which of the following influence the transfer of info from short term to long term memory
association
rehearsal
emotional state
all of the above
Neuron cell bodies form...
gray matter
sulci
fissures
white matter
The sites of origin for sympathetic division are?
brain and sacral
brain and thoracic
thoracic and lumbar
lumbar and sacral
Fibers that connect gray areas of two hemispheres and run horizontally are described as...
projection
commissural
association
all of the above
Eeg waves in awake adults, that are indicative of brain damage, are described as...
alpha
beta
theta
delta
Which of the following statements is/are false?
spinal nerves are a fusion of dorsal and ventral roots
temporary numbness may be associated with a transient ischemic attack
motor neuron damage is not associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
all of the above
what is the name of the conscious interpretation of stimuli called?
sensation
isolation
perception
supination
smell is associated with cranial nerve #...
1
2
3
4
How may pair of cranial nerves are associated with the brain?
31
7
12
4
which of the following is a way to classify sensory receptors?
type of stimulus they detect
body location
structural complexity
all of the above
which of the following receptors respond to damaging stimuli
chemoreceptors
thermoreceptors
photoreceptors
nociceptors
Oxygen levels are detected by which of the following
thermoreceptor
osmoreceptors
chemoreceptors
baroreceptors
what is cranial nerve #10?
olfactory
vagus
glossopharyngeal
spinal accessory
a patient if suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. this patient may have damage to which of the following?
hypoglossal nerve
vagus nerve
facial nerev
olfactory nerve
which of the following nerve does NOT arise from brachial plexus
median
sciatic
radial
ulnar
nerves that carry impulses towards thCNS only are
afferent neurons
efferent neurons
motor neurons
mixed neurons
what is another name for the tympanic membrane?
ossicles
eardrum
auricle
vestibule
what is generally considered the dominant sense
hearing
tasting
smelling
vison
which is the correct pathway of light stimulation in the eye?
light, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, photoreceptors, action potentials, exit via optic chiasm
light, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, action potentials, exit via optic chiasm
light, photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, action potentials, exit via optic chiasm
receptors for hearing are located in the ....
cochlea
semicircular canals
tympanic membrane
vestibule
the ability to clearly see objects at a distance but not close up is properly called?
myopia
short-sightedness
hyperopia
none of the above
which of the following taste sensations in incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it?
sweet= organic substances such as sugar
sour= acids
umami= triglycerides and fatty acids
bitter= alkaloids
conscious perception of vison probably reflects activity in the....
thalamus
occipital lobe of the cortex
chiasma
frontal lobe of the cortex
there are three major areas of the ear. what is the function of the internal ear?
hearing and equilibrium
hearing only
equilibrium only
none of the above
in a person who is color-bind, which of the following would you most expect?
loss of function in the rods of their retina
a loss of their peripheral vison
absence of green or red cones in their foveae
all of the above
which of the following is not an auditory ossicle?
incus
malleus
stapes
otoliths
under the CNS, what is the function of the vagus nerves?
vision
serves organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities
tongue muscle movement
all of the above
which of the following is NOT true about nicotinic receptors?
they are activated by the compound muscarine
they may be found on the sarcolemma of muscle cells
they are a type of cholinergic receptors
they are found on the hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla
which of the following is NOT true about hypertension
it is also known as high blood pressure
it may result from an overactive sympathetic vasconstrictor response
it is serious because it forces the heart to work harder and increase wear and tear on artery walls
there is no treatment
alpha receptors are a division of:
cholinergic receptors
beta receptors
nicotinic receptors
adrenergic receptors
a sympathetic nervous system is not associated with which of the following?
defecation
exercise
embarrassment
excitement
the "fight or flight" division of the autonomic nervous system is the...
parasympathetic system
sympathetic division
somatic division
peripheral division
what are the relative lengths of parasympathetic fibers?
long preganglionic; long postganglionic
long preganglionic; short postganglionic
short preganglionic; long postganglionic
short preganglionic; short postganglionic
which of the following does NOT describe ANS?
a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscles and glands
a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
involuntary nervous system
general visceral motor system
Raynaud's disease
is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
is induced by heat stress
occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cords
is frequently life threatening
sympathetic division stimulation causes...
decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart and blood pressure
increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
