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Chapter 1 of general medicine

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The anatomical structure that separates the right and left halves of the body longitudinally is the:

a)

Transverse plane

b)

Coronal(frontal) plane

c)

Median plane

d)

Oblique plane

2.

Which of the following is identified as a primary role of the skeletal system?

a)

To circulate blood and nutrients throughout the body.

b)

To serve as the bony framework of the body and provide structure

c)

To produce hormones that regulate growth and metabolism.

d)

To break down food for energy.

3.

Which of the following is a protective role of the skeletal system?

a)

Absorbing sunlight for Vitamin D synthesis.

b)

Forming the cavities and fossae ( depression or hollows) that protect vital structures

c)

Storing excess fat for insulation.

d)

Generating electrical impulses for nerve transmission.

4.

The skeletal system facilitates movement by :

a)

Filtering waste from the blood

b)

Providing flexibility to organs

c)

Creating joints and providing attachment points for muscles

d)

Regulating body temperatures

5.

The two main divisions of the human skeleton are the:

a)

Upper and Lower

b)

Anterior and Posterior

c)

Axial and Appendicular

d)

Internal and External

6.

Which of the following components are part of the axial skeleton ?

a)

Arms, legs, and shoulder girdles

b)

Skull, spine, and rib cage

c)

Hands, feet, and pelvis

d)

Lungs, heart and brain

7.

The appendicular skeleton consists of the:

a)

Skull, rib cage, and spine

b)

Pelvis and vertebral column

c)

Limbs and gridles( shoulder and pelvic)

d)

Sternum and clavicles only

8.

The skull is divided into which two main parts ?

a)

Upper and Lower Mandible

b)

The cranium and the face

c)

The spine and the neck

d)

The cheekbones and the jaw

9.

The part of the skull that contains the brain is specifically called the:

a)

Face

b)

Orbit

c)

Cranium

d)

Maxilla

10.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a function of the skull?

a)

Protecting the eyes.

b)

Protecting the brain.

c)

Protecting the inner ears.

d)

Regulating body temperature

11.

How many movable bones ( vertebrae) are in the vertebral column ?

a)

5

b)

17

c)

20

d)

24

12.

The vertebral column is made up of 24 movable vertebrae plus which two fused bone structures ?

a)

The cranium and the mandible

b)

The sternum and clavicle

c)

The sacrum and the coccyx

d)

The pelvis and the ribs

13.

What is the primary function of the vertebral column ?

a)

To support the weight of the limbs

b)

To create attachment points for all facial muscles

c)

To circulate blood to the brain

d)

To form a central channel along the column, providing strong protection for the spinal cord.

14.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five divisions of the vertebral column ?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumber

d)

Cranial

15.

Which of the following vital organs is specifically listed as being protected by the thoracic cage ?

a)

The liver and kidneys

b)

The brain and inner ears

c)

The heart, lungs, and major blood vessels

d)

The stomach and intestines

16.

In the function of respiration, the thoracic cage provides attachment for which two key groups of the muscles ?

a)

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

b)

Skeletal and cardiac muscles

c)

Abdominal and pectoral muscles

d)

Trapezius and latissimus dorsi

17.

Which bones from the vertebral column contribute directly to the formation of the thoracic cage?

a)

Thoracic Vertebrae

b)

Lumber vertebrae

c)

Sacrum and coccyx

d)

Cervical and vertebrae

18.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three components that form the thoracic cage?

a)

1 sternum or breast bone

b)

7 cervical vertebrae

c)

12 pairs of ribs

d)

12 thoracic vertebrae

19.

The term 'breast bone' is an informal name for the sternum. Which structural feature allows it to form the anterior boundary of the thoracic cage?

a)

it is a complex bone structures located in the shoulder girdle

b)

It is a long, narrow bone running vertically down the center of the chest

c)

It is a pair of crescent - shaped bones that curve around the sides

d)

It is a fused section of the spine in the upper back

20.

Which of the following bones is found in the upper limb?

a)

Ulna

b)

Patella

c)

Femur

d)

Tibia

21.

Which set of bones is uniquely part of the lower limbs?

a)

Carpals and metacarpals

b)

Tibia and fibula

c)

Phalanges and humerus

d)

Radius and ulna

22.

The lower limb has 1 patella. The primary function of this bone is to :

a)

Serve as a protective shield for the knee joint

b)

Connect the radius and ulna

c)

Anchor the major muscles of the hip

d)

Form the ankle joint

23.

The bones of the upper and lower limbs are long bones that perform the function of protecting soft tissues, specifically:

a)

Cartilage and meninges

b)

Adipose tissue and skin

c)

Blood vessels and nerves

d)

Ligaments and tendons

24.

Which bones are immediately proximal (closer to the body) to the 14 phalanges in the lower limbs?

a)

Metatarsals

b)

Tibia and Fibula

c)

Tarsals

d)

Femur

25.

Which two bones make up the distal (further away from the body) portion of the upper limb's arm/forearm structure?

a)

Radius and ulna

b)

Carpals and metacarpals

c)

Femur and tibia

d)

Humerus and ulna

26.

The functions of the appendicular skeleton include enabling body movement and producing blood cells. Which other function that they have ?

a)

Supporting the weight of the head and trunk

b)

Protecting soft tissues, especially blood vessels and nerves

c)

Storing calcium for metabolic use

d)

Producing hormones for metabolism

27.

Which one of the four body cavities contained the brain?

a)

Pelvic cavity

b)

Cranial cavity

c)

Thoracic cavity

d)

Abdominal cavity

28.

The body organs are contained and protected within 4 cavities TRUE or FALSE

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

29.

The heart, lungs, and major blood vessels are protected within which body cavity?

a)

Pelvic cavity

b)

Abdominal cavity

c)

Cranial cavity

d)

Thoracic cavity

30.

Which cavity is situated inferior (below) the thoracic cavity and superior (above) the pelvic cavity?

a)

Pelvic

b)

Spinal

c)

Abdominal

d)

Cranial

31.

If an injury occurs to the L5 vertebra, which body cavity would immediately be affected?

a)

Cranial

b)

Pelvic

c)

Thoracic

d)

Abdominal

32.

Which skull bone forms the posterior boundary of the cranial cavity?

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Frontal bone

c)

Temporal bone

d)

Parietal bone

33.

Which skull bone forms the anterior boundary of the cranial cavity?

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Parietal bone

c)

Frontal bone

d)

Sphenoid bone

34.

Which skull bone forms the superior boundary of the cranial cavity?

a)

Frontal bone

b)

Parietal bone

c)

Temporal bone

d)

Ethmoid bone

35.

The lateral boundaries of the cranial cavity are formed by which skull bones?

a)

Occipital bone

b)

Temporal bones

c)

Parietal bone

d)

Sphenoid and Ethmoid bones

36.

Besides the Sphenoid and Ethmoid bones, the inferior boundary is also formed by parts of which three other listed skull bones?

a)

Temporal, Occipital, and Ethmoid

b)

Frontal, Temporal, and Occipital

c)

Frontal, Parietal, and Sphenoid

d)

Parietal, Temporal, and Occipital

37.

Which two adjacent tissues form the anterior boundary of the thoracic cavity?

a)

Root of the neck and trachea

b)

Diaphragm and intercostal muscles

c)

Sternum and costal cartilages

d)

Thoracic vertebrae and ribs

38.

The lateral boundary of the thoracic cavity is formed by 12 ribs, supplemented by which type of muscular tissue?

a)

pectoral muscles

b)

Intercostal muscles

c)

Abdominal muscles

d)

Diaphragm tissue

39.

The superior boundary of the thoracic cavity is formed by the:

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Clavicles

c)

Root of the neck

d)

Cervical vertebrae

40.

The inferior boundary of the thoracic cavity is formed by which muscular structure?

a)

The clavicle

b)

The pectoralis major

c)

The diaphragm

d)

The intercostal muscles

41.

Which large, muscular structure forms the superior boundary of the abdominal cavity?

a)

The pelvic floor

b)

The sternum

c)

The lumber vertebrae

d)

Diaphragm

42.

Which is the largest body cavity in human ?

a)

The thoracic cavity

b)

The abdominal cavity

c)

The pelvic cavity

d)

The cranial cavity

43.

The abdominal cavity is divided into 9 regions. TRUE or FALSE ?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

The abdominal cavity is described as being continuous with which other cavity inferiorly?

a)

Pelvic cavity

b)

Thoracic cavity

c)

Pericardial cavity

d)

Cranial cavity

45.

Which specific organs listed are part of the digestive system and are contained within the abdominal cavity?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Spleen and kidneys

c)

Stomach, intestines, liver, gall bladder, bile ducts, pancreas.

d)

Adrenal glands and lymphatics

46.

The posterior boundary of the abdominal cavity is formed by which two types of structures?

a)

Lumber vertebrae and posterior abdominal wall muscles

b)

Costal cartilages and sternum

c)

Muscles of the anterior abdominal wall

d)

Diaphragm and lower ribs

47.

The boundaries of the abdominal cavity on the sides (laterally) are formed by:

a)

Costal cartilages only

b)

Only the liver and spleen

c)

Lumber vertebrae only

d)

Lower ribs and part of the abdominal wall muscles

48.

Which boundary structure provides the least bony protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity?

a)

Superiorly : Diaphragm

b)

Posterior : Lumber vertebrae

c)

Laterally : Lower ribs

d)

Anteriorly: Muscles of the anterior abdominal wall

49.

Which set of bones forms the lateral boundaries of the pelvic cavity ?

a)

Innominate (hip) bones

b)

Sacrum and coccyx

c)

Pubic bones

d)

Lumber vertebrae

50.

The female reproductive organs listed (uterus, tubes, ovaries, vagina) are all contained within which part of the trunk?

a)

Cranial cavity

b)

Thoracic cavity

c)

Abdominal cavity

d)

Pelvic cavity

51.

Which structures form the bony component of the posterior boundary of the pelvic cavity?

a)

Lumber vertebrae

b)

pubic bone

c)

sacrum and coccyx

d)

Innominate bones

52.

The inferior boundary of the pelvic cavity is formed by what structures?

a)

Muscles of the pelvic floor

b)

Innominate bones

c)

pubic bones

d)

sacrum and coccyx

53.

The male reproductive organs listed (prostate, seminal vesicles, ducts, urethra) are contained within the pelvic cavity, located adjacent to which organ of the urinary system?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Lower ureters

c)

Venae cavae

d)

Bladder

54.

The anterior boundary of the pelvic cavity is formed by which bones?

a)

Muscles of the pelvic floor

b)

Pubic bones

c)

Lower ribs

d)

Sacrum and coccyx

55.

Besides the sigmoid colon and rectum, which other digestive structure is listed as having portions within the pelvic cavity?

a)

Stomach

b)

Pancreas

c)

Anus

d)

Small intestine loops

56.

Which organ, contained within the pelvic cavity, serves the primary function of storing urine?

a)

Kidneys

b)

Urethra

c)

Bladder

d)

Lower ureters

57.

Which term describes the " cause " of a particular disease or condition ?

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Prognosis

c)

Aetiology

d)

Complications

58.

The development and progression of a disease, including its effect on normal physiological functions, is defined as:

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Prognosis

c)

Complications

d)

Aetiology

59.

A doctor informs a patient that their minor condition is likely to resolve completely with no lasting effects. This statement is describing the disease's:

a)

Prognosis

b)

Complications

c)

Aetiology

d)

Pathogenesis

60.

If a patient with a respiratory infection develops pneumonia, the pneumonia is an example of a potential:

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Prognosis

c)

Complication

d)

Aetiology

61.

Determining that an infection is caused by a specific bacterium is an example of identifying the disease's:

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Prognosis

c)

Complication

d)

Aetiology

62.

Which concept best informs a clinician's decision on which medication to prescribe, as it details how the disease affects the body?

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Prognosis

c)

Complication

d)

Aetiology

63.

A patient with a chronic disease is told they have a 90% chance of recovery with long-term medication. This statistical prediction is a statement of the:

a)

Pathogenesis

b)

Complication

c)

Prognosis

d)

Aetiology

64.

A disorder that develops at any point after birth is correctly termed:

a)

Congenital

b)

Acute

c)

latrogenic

d)

Acquired

65.

A severe headache, as described by the patient, is classified as a(n):

a)

Sign

b)

Complication

c)

Syndrome

d)

Symptom

66.

Which term describes a long-standing disorder that often cannot be cured but must be managed over time?

a)

Acute

b)

latrogenic

c)

Chronic

d)

Commumicable

67.

A collection of signs and symptoms that tend to occur together.

a)

Syndrome

b)

latrogenic complication

c)

acute aetiology

d)

Chronic sign

68.

A disease that can be transmitted (spread) from one individual to another is classified as :

a)

latrogenic

b)

Congenital

c)

Communicable

d)

Chronic

69.

An infant diagnosed with a heart defect immediately after birth is an example of a disorder that is:

a)

Acute

b)

Acquired

c)

Congenital

d)

latrogenic

70.

A rapid increase in heart rate (tachycardia) detected by an ECG machine is best categorized as a(n):

a)

Aetiology

b)

Symptom

c)

Syndrome

d)

Sign

71.

A disorder that appears suddenly and is likely to require immediate intervention due to its severe and rapid nature is classified as:

a)

Chronic

b)

Communicable

c)

Acute

d)

Acquired

72.

A severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) resulting from the administration of a prescribed drug is an example of a condition classified as:

a)

Communicable

b)

Congenital

c)

Chronic

d)

Iatrogenic

73.

Which term is used to describe a disease for which the cause is unknown?

a)

Idiopathic

b)

Acquired

c)

Iatrogenic

d)

Communicable

74.

When a condition is referred to as spontaneous, what information is being communicated about its aetiology?

a)

It is caused by an external chemical agent

b)

It is caused by a microbe

c)

It is caused by old age or overuse

d)

The cause is unknown, though risk factors may exist

75.

Aetiology: Diseases are usually caused by one or more broad mechanisms, including:

o Genetic abnormalities: inherited or acquired

o Infections: bacteria, viruses, microbes or parasites

o Chemicals oIonising radiation

o Physical trauma

o Degeneration: ageing or overuse

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

76.

Which pathogenesis mechanism describes a tissue's response to damage, such as from a physical injury or microbial invasion?

a)

Metabolic abnormalities

b)

Tumours

c)

Inflammation

d)

Degeneration

77.

The blockage of a blood vessel by a traveling mass, such as a piece of fat or a clot, is specifically termed a(n):

a)

Infarction

b)

Degeneration

c)

Embolism

d)

Thrombosis

78.

Uncontrolled proliferation of cells that have escaped normal growth controls leads to the pathogenesis of :

a)

Tumours

b)

Abnormal immune mechanisms

c)

Metabolic abnormalities

d)

Inflammation

79.

The term used to describe the tissue death that is a consequence of a blocked blood supply (due to thrombosis or embolism) is:

a)

Degeneration

b)

Embolism

c)

Ischemia

d)

Infarction

80.

An autoimmune disorder, where the body's own defense cells attack healthy tissues, is an example of which pathogenesis mechanism?

a)

Degeneration

b)

Abnormal immune mechanisms

c)

Thrombosis

d)

Metabolic abnormalities

81.

The steady, predictable loss of kidney function over many years in an elderly patient is an example of which pathogenesis mechanism?

a)

Tumours

b)

Degeneration

c)

Abnormal immune mechanisms

d)

Inflammation

82.

Disease processes resulting from errors in inherited DNA or environmental exposure to mutagens (like ionising radiation) are classified as:

a)

Metabolic abnormalities

b)

Degeneration

c)

Genetic abnormalities

d)

Thrombosis

83.

Which pathogenesis mechanism describes the disruption of fundamental biochemical processes, such as uncontrolled blood sugar levels in diabetes?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Abnormal immune mechanisms

c)

Tumours

d)

Metabolic abnormalities

84.

A key difference between Thrombosis and Embolism is that thrombosis is the clotting inside a vessel, while embolism is the:U

a)

Uncontrolled growth of cells in the vessel lining

b)

Deterioration of the vessel wall due to age

c)

Tissue death caused by the lack of oxygen

d)

Blockage of a vessel by a mass that is traveling

85.

Which type of transport mechanism moves substances from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration ?

a)

Active transport

b)

Equilibrium movement

c)

Passive transport

d)

Simple diffusion

86.

Movement that occurs down a concentration gradient, from high concentration to low concentration until equilibrium is reached (even distribution), requiring no energy, is characteristic of:

a)

Facilitated movement

b)

Chemiosmosis

c)

Passive transport

d)

Active transport

87.

Which two specific mechanisms are listed as the main ways that Passive movement occurs ?

a)

Exocytosis and endocytosis

b)

Diffusion and osmosis

c)

Pinocytosis and phagocytosis

d)

Sodium-potassium pump and carrier proteins

88.

Diffusion is the primary mechanism for substance movement in which three states of matter ?

a)

Solids, gases, and liquids

b)

Plasma, solids, and solutions

c)

Gases, liquids, and solutions

d)

Gases, solutions, and gels

89.

Which characteristic of a molecule permits it to cross a membrane via simple diffusion?

a)

It must be an ion (charged)

b)

It must be small or soluble (e.g., lipid-soluble).

c)

It must be actively transported by ATP

d)

It must be large and protein-based

90.

In the diffusion, where does oxygen concentration need to be high for it to diffuse into the capillaries( Low concentration)?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Blood plasma

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Capillaries

91.

Which type of molecule is specifically noted as being unable to diffuse across the capillary walls and therefore remains in the blood?

a)

Glucose and electrolytes

b)

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

c)

Blood cells and plasma proteins

d)

Water

92.

Osmosis is fundamentally defined as the diffusion of which specific substance?

a)

Water

b)

Protein

c)

solute (e.g ., sugar)

d)

Salt (electrolyte)

93.

For osmosis to occur, the diffusion of water must happen across a membrane with which specific property?

a)

Active transport channel

b)

Fully permeable membrane

c)

Semipermeable membrane

d)

Non-permeable membrane

94.

The term used to describe two solutions that have reached equal solute concentration after osmosis has stopped is:

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Hypotonic

95.

If a red blood cell is placed into a solution with a much higher solute concentration than its cytoplasm, water will move:

a)

Out of the cell, causing it to shrink

b)

Equally in both directions, maintaining the cell volume

c)

Into the cell, causing it to swell

d)

Only the solute will move across the membrane

96.

What is the approximate total volume of fluid in the body ( Total Body Water ) for an average adult ?

a)

~28 liters

b)

~12 liters

c)

~40 liters

d)

~60 liters

97.

Total Body Water (TBW) is roughly what percentage of an adult's body weight?

a)

70%

b)

30%

c)

40%

d)

60%

98.

Which of the two main fluid compartments is the largest in the terms of percentage of Total Body Water ?

a)

Blood plasma

b)

Interstitial Fluid

c)

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

d)

Extracellular fluid (ECF)

99.

The fluid that is found outside body cells, including blood plasma and interstitial fluid, is collectively called:

a)

Transcellular fluid

b)

Extracellular fluid (ECF)

c)

Cytosol

d)

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

100.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four main tissue types ?

a)

Nervous tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Endocrine tissue

d)

Muscle tissue

e)

Epithelial tissue (epithelium)

101.

(a)   are groups of similar cells classified by size, shape, and function

102.

Which of the following locations is NOT typically covered or lined by epithelial tissue?

a)

The inside of a blood vessel.

b)

The outer surface of the skin.

c)

The internal lining of the stomach.

d)

The hollow center of bone.

103.

Which characteristic of epithelial tissue allows it to effectively serve as a barrier and lining?

a)

Cells tightly packed with minimal intercellular matrix.

b)

Possession of an extensive, thick basement membrane

c)

Abundant blood supply (highly vascular)

d)

The ability to produce movement through contraction

104.

Which statement correctly describes the relationship between epithelial tissue and its basement membrane?

a)

The basement membrane is layer of tightly packed connective tissue cells

b)

The membrane separates simple from stratified epithelial types

c)

The basement membrane is a cellular layer that provides that the tissue's blood supply

d)

The epithelial tissue rests on the membrane, which anchors it to the underlaying connective tissue

105.

• Functions of epithelial tissue:

o Protection (from dehydration, chemical, mechanical damage)

o Secretion

o Absorption

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.

Which type of simple epithelium is specialized for easy diffusion and filtration due to its flat, thin structure ?

a)

(Squamous) Pavement epithelium

b)

Cuboidal epithelium

c)

Stratified epithelium

d)

Columnar epithlium

107.

Simple epithelium found in the alveoli of the lungs and the lining of blood vessels is classified as:

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Stratified squamous

c)

Simple cubodial

d)

Simple columnar

108.

Which simple epithelium type would you expect to find in structures where secretion, absorption, and excretion are all major functions, such as kidney tubules?

a)

Ciliated epithelium

b)

Simple cuboidal

c)

Simple columnar

d)

Simple squamous

109.

The small intestine is lined with simple columnar epithelium that has an adaptation called microvilli. What is the specific functional purpose of this adaptation?

a)

To secrete digestive enzymes.

b)

To strengthen the tissue against abrasion.

c)

To increase surface area for absorption.

d)

To rapidly propel food along the tube.

110.

Simple epithelium is generally found on surfaces that are not stress-bearing. Why is this a necessary constraint?

a)

They lack the basement membrane necessary for anchoring.

b)

Simple cells are metabolically too active to handle mechanical stress.

c)

hey must be avascular, which limits their regenerative capacity.

d)

A single layer cannot provide the necessary mechanical protection.

111.

The lining of the Uterine Tubes contains simple columnar epithelium with cilia. What specific function does the ciliation serve in this location?

a)

To actively propel the ovum towards the uterus.

b)

To prevent foreign material from entering the tubes.

c)

To increase the surface area for fluid absorption.

d)

To secrete lubrication for the tube lining.

112.

The endocardium (lining of the heart) is composed of simple squamous epithelium. Why is this thin structure appropriate for the heart's lining?

a)

It facilitates the heart's contraction and relaxation cycle.

b)

It actively transports ions necessary for the heartbeat.

c)

It provides strong mechanical reinforcement for the heart wall.

d)

It forms a smooth, friction-reducing surface for blood flow.

113.

Which of the following describes the key relationship between cell shape and function in simple epithelium?

a)

Cell shape is purely arbitrary and does not relate to function.

b)

The thinner the cell, the more it is involved in structural support.

c)

More active processes (secretion/absorption) require taller cells with more cytoplasm.

d)

The wider the cell, the higher the rate of passive diffusion.

114.

If you observe a simple epithelium in the stomach lining that is simple columnar but lacks microvilli or cilia, what is its primary function likely to be?

a)

Providing multi-layered protection against the acidic environment.

b)

Propelling the contents for movement.

c)

Maximizing surface area for rapid nutrient absorption.

d)

Secretion of protective mucus and gastric juices.

115.

The primary function of Stratified Epithelium is to provide:

a)

Maximum surface area for absorption and secretion.

b)

A minimal barrier for easy diffusion.

c)

Protection against mechanical wear and tear.

d)

Active transport of ions and water.

116.

In the process of cell renewal for stratified epithelium, where do epithelial cells divide and originate?

a)

In the intermediate layers, before reaching the surface.

b)

Throughout all layers, as needed.

c)

In the basal layers, close to the nutrient supply.

d)

Only from existing cells in the superficial (top) layers.

117.

In stratified squamous epithelium, the deepest (basal) cells are typically cuboidal or columnar. Why do these cells change to become flat (squamous) as they reach the surface?

a)

They lose cytoplasm and flatten as they die and prepare for shedding.

b)

To increase their surface area for final absorption before being shed.

c)

They actively switch their protein synthesis to create keratin.

d)

They flatten to better withstand stretching forces.

118.

Which specific cell shape dominates the deepest (basal) layer of stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Pear-shaped cells.

b)

Columnar cells.

c)

Squamous (flat) cells.

d)

Star-shaped cells.

119.

The primary purpose of keratin in keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is to make the surface layer:

a)

More effective at absorbing H2​O and nutrients.

b)

Flexible and able to stretch easily.

c)

A site for active hormone secretion.

d)

Tough, waterproof, and protective.

120.

Which of the following locations is lined by non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

The alveoli of the lungs.

b)

The small intestine.

c)

The vagina.

d)

The outer surface of the hand (skin).

121.

The distinguishing feature of Transitional Epithelium that allows it to stretch is the presence of several layers of:

a)

Keratinised squamous cells.

b)

Pear-shaped or dome-shaped cells on the surface.

c)

Cuboidal cells with microvilli.

d)

Ciliated columnar cells.

122.

Transitional epithelium is found throughout the urinary tract (bladder and ureters). The stretching function is vital because it:

a)

Creates a waterproof barrier that prevents desiccation.

b)

Allows the tissue to act as an effective filter for blood.

c)

Prevents the bladder from rupturing as it fills with urine.

d)

Facilitates the active secretion of urine components.

123.

Which epithelial subtype protects moist surfaces against friction but, due to the lack of keratin, still requires occasional lubrication to prevent drying?

a)

Simple cuboidal epithelium.

b)

Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium.

c)

Transitional epithelium.

d)

Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium.

124.

Which characteristic is NOT distinguishes of Connective Tissue ?

a)

It is entirely avascular (lacks blood vessels).

b)

Cells are widely separated (unlike epithelial tissue)

c)

Large amount of intercellular substance (matrix) present.

d)

Matrix often contains fibres forming a supportive network.

125.

Main functions of Connective tissue :

o Binding and structural support

o Protection

o Transport

o Insulation

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

126.

(a)   tissue: Most abundant and diverse tissue (e.g., bone, blood, fat).

127.

Which specific connective tissue type is described as the most generalised and functions to binds tissues loosely around organs and blood vessels?

a)

Loose (areolar) connective tissue.

b)

Dense fibrous connective tissue.

c)

Adipose tissue.

d)

Lymphoid tissue.

128.

Lymphoid tissue is primarily responsible for which function of connective tissue?

a)

Defense against invaders.

b)

Transport of oxygen.

c)

Rigid structural support.

d)

Insulation and cushioning.

129.

The presence of a rich supply of mitochondria and capillaries in Brown Adipose Tissue enables its unique primary function, which is:

a)

Physical cushioning for the eyeballs and kidneys.

b)

Secreting hormones to signal fullness.

c)

Generating heat (thermogenesis).

d)

Rapidly storing fat for long-term survival.

130.

A tissue sample taken from the capsule surrounding the eyeball (periorbital fat) would primarily be classified as White Adipose Tissue due to its role in:

a)

Immune defense via stored white blood cells.

b)

Facilitating gas exchange.

c)

Physical cushioning and shock absorption.

d)

Generating heat for the eye muscle.

131.

A major homeostatic function of White Adipose Tissue is the secretion of leptin. This hormone functions to:

a)

Bind the skin loosely to underlying muscle.

b)

Actively transport fatty acids out of the cell.

c)

Signal fullness to the brain, reducing hunger.

d)

Increase the body's core temperature.

132.

A tissue sample containing closely packed, parallel bundles of collagen fibers with a few interspersed fibroblasts is most likely:

a)

Elastic tissue.

b)

Fibrous dense connective tissue.

c)

Loose (areolar) tissue.

d)

Hyaline cartilage.

133.

he primary difference in the matrix structure between Compact Bone and Spongy (Cancellous) Bone is that Compact Bone is:

a)

Lined with simple squamous epithelium.

b)

Softer and highly flexible.

c)

Composed of protein only, lacking mineral salts.

d)

Dense and solid.

134.

The three types of cartilage (Hyaline, Fibrocartilage, Elastic Cartilage) are differentiated primarily by the type and amount of fibers within their matrix. Which type is best suited for shock absorption (e.g., intervertebral discs)?

a)

Hyaline cartilage.

b)

Fibrocartilage.

c)

Elastic cartilage.

d)

Dense fibrous tissue.

135.

In Elastic Connective Tissue, the presence of many elastic fibers allows the tissue to be found in locations that require:

a)

Rigid attachment and tension resistance.

b)

Cushioning and smooth gliding surfaces.

c)

Fluid circulation and filtering.

d)

Extension and recoil.

136.

Hyaline Cartilage is found at the ends of long bones in joints. Its primary function in this location is to provide a surface that is:

a)

Smooth and compressible for easy, friction-free movement.

b)

Tough and resistant to tearing.

c)

A primary site of blood cell production.

d)

Highly flexible for bending.

137.

Which location is specifically mentioned as being composed of Elastic Cartilage?

a)

The trachea (windpipe) rings.

b)

The ends of long bones.

c)

The pinna (external ear).

d)

The intervertebral discs.

138.

Which type of muscle tissue is characterized by striated (stripes), multinucleated cells, and voluntary control?

a)

Smooth muscle.

b)

Cardiac muscle.

c)

Simple columnar epithelium.

d)

Skeletal muscle.

139.

The functional mechanism that allows Cardiac Muscle to contract as a coordinated sheet, rather than as individual fibers, is the presence of:

a)

Long, cylindrical fibers.

b)

Intercalated discs.

c)

Pacemaker system cells.

d)

A rich blood supply.

140.

Which of the following describes the control mechanism for Smooth Muscle?

a)

Involuntary (autonomic nervous system, hormones, metabolites).

b)

Primarily voluntary with some subconscious actions.

c)

Intrinsic pacemaker only.

d)

Voluntary (conscious) control only.

141.

The primary function of Smooth Muscle in the walls of the Gastrointestinal Tract (GIT) is to:

a)

Generate heat through rapid shivering.

b)

Maintain conscious posture and balance.

c)

Propel contents (peristalsis) through the GIT.

d)

Pump blood efficiently throughout the body.

142.

Which muscle type is found only in the heart wall and is responsible for pumping blood?

a)

Smooth muscle.

b)

Cardiac muscle.

c)

Fibrous connective tissue.

d)

Skeletal muscle.

143.

If a tissue is described as having non-striated spindle-shaped cells with one central nucleus per cell, it is characteristic of:

a)

Simple columnar epithelium.

b)

Smooth muscle.

c)

Cardiac muscle.

d)

Skeletal muscle.

144.

Which muscle tissue type is unique in that its actions can be both voluntary (conscious) and subconscious (e.g., posture, breathing)?

a)

Transitional epithelium.

b)

Cardiac muscle.

c)

Smooth muscle.

d)

Skeletal muscle.

145.

The primary specialized function of Neurones (Nerve cells) is to:

a)

Generate heat for thermoregulation.

b)

Provide rigid structural support for the brain and spinal cord.

c)

Absorb nutrients and secrete hormones.

d)

Initiate, receive, conduct, and transmit information.

146.

The structural and functional support provided by Glial cells for neurones includes which key role?

a)

Generating conscious, voluntary movement.

b)

Carrying oxygen to the central nervous system.

c)

Filtering blood in the brain to create cerebrospinal fluid.

d)

Maintaining the internal environment and forming myelin sheaths.

147.

Compared to neurons, Glial cells are generally much more numerous in the central nervous system. This high number is necessary because:

a)

They must physically surround and provide support for every neuron.

b)

They constantly shed and are replaced by new neurons.

c)

Glial cells are the primary site of electrical signal generation.

d)

They are the main cells that store energy reserves (glycogen and lipids).

148.

Which connective tissue stores energy and provides insulation?

a)

Areolar tissue

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Cartilage

d)

Bone

149.

The anatomical position is important because it:

a)

Helps blood circulation

b)

Provides a standard reference for describing body structures

c)

Looks natural for patients

d)

Prevents injuries

150.

The pelvic cavity contains organs from which system?

a)

Nervous system

b)

Respiratory system

c)

Urinary and reproductive systems   

d)

Immune system

151.

Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs because it:

a)

Produces blood

b)

Stores energy

c)

Acts as a shock absorber

d)

Helps nerve signals