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MCHP Final quest

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which symptom of ARDs appear within 24 to 48 hours?

a)

Chest x-ray clear of infiltrates

b)

ABGs vary from normal limits

c)

Rapid Breathing

d)

Fluid imbalance

e)

Shortness of breath.

2.

What type of medication is to help maintain open alveoli for a patient with ARDs?

a)

Corticosteroids

b)

NSAIDs

c)

Inhale Nitric Oxide

d)

Surfactant Therapy

3.

What is a part of the physical health of assessment for ARDs?

a)

Previous respiratory infection

b)

Peripheral perfusion

c)

Level of Consciousness

d)

Pervious Surgery and illness

e)

Respiratory rate and rhythm

4.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which findings with the nurse expect the note on assessment of this client?

a)

A low arterial PC02 level

b)

A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray

c)

Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise

d)

A widened diaphragm noted on chest x-ray

e)

Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity

5.

The nurse is caring for a client who is mechanically ventilated and is monitoring for complications of mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding, if noted by the nurse, indicates the need for follow-up?

a)

Muscle weakness in the arms and legs

b)

A temperature of 98.6 decreased from 99.0

c)

A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, decreased from 112/78 mm Hg

d)

A heart rate of 80 beats/ minute, decreased from 85 beats/ minutes

6.

The nurse has assisted the health care provider and the anesthesiologist with placement of an endotracheal (ET) tube for a client in respiratory distress. What is the initial nursing action to evaluate proper ET tube placement?

a)

Tape the ET tube in place, and note the centimeter marking at the lip line.

b)

Ask the radiology department to obtain a stat portable radiograph at the client's bedside.

c)

Use an Ambu (resuscitation) bag to ventilate the client and assess for bilateral breath sounds.

d)

Attach the ET tube to the ventilator and determine whether the client is able to tolerate the tidal volume prescribed.

7.

The low-pressure alarm sounds on a ventilator. The nurse assesses the client and then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm. If unsuccessful in determining the cause of the alarm, the nurse should take what initial action?

a)

Administer oxygen

b)

Check the patient's vital signs

c)

Ventilate the client manually

d)

Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation

8.

The nurse is caring for the client requiring positive pressure mechanical ventilation. The client has been resisting the ventilator-assisted breaths, and the client’s BP has been steadily decreasing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

a)

Place the client in the prone position to help aerate posterior alveoli

b)

Ask the respiratory therapist to adjust the machine’s respiratory rates

c)

Give the prescribed sedative-hypnotic medication if it is due now

d)

Prepare to administer an IV bronchodilator such as aminophylline

9.

The nurse is caring for the client whose condition has progressed from an acute lung injury from near-drowning to ARDS. Which intervention should the nurse question with the HCP?

a)

Place in prone position if tolerated

b)

Normal saline 1000mL bolus, then 250 mL/hr

c)

Ventilatory support with positive end-expiratory pressure

d)

Methylprednisolone 175 mg IV now and q4H

10.

What does the nurse do first when setting up a safe environment for the new client on oxygen?

a)

Ensures that staff members wear protective clothing

b)

Ensures that no combustion hazards are present in the

c)

Sets the oxygen delivery to maintain no fewer than 16 breaths/m

d)

Uses a pulse oximetry unit

11.

A client with asthma has pneumonia, is reporting increased shortness of breath, and has inspiratory and expiratory wheezes. All of these medications are prescribed. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

a)

Albuterol (Proventil) 2 inhalations

b)

Fluticasone (Flovent) 2 inhalations

c)

Ipratropium (Atrovent) 2 inhalations

d)

Salmeterol (Serevent) 2 inhalations

12.

A client is being admitted for pneumonia. The sputum culture is positive for streptococcus, and the client asks about the length of the treatment. On what does the nurse base the answer?

a)

The client will be treated for 5 to 7 days.

b)

The client will require IV antibiotics for 7 to 10 days.

c)

The client will complete 6 days of therapy.

d)

The client must be afebrile for 24 hours.

13.

The nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged after recovering from acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The family asks if the client is out of danger and if normal activities can be resumed. Which of the following will the nurse explain to the client and family?

a)

Maximal respiratory function should return in six months.

b)

The client will never recover fully.

c)

The client will be ready for normal routines in about a year.

d)

The client is out of danger and can resume normal activities.

14.

Which of these nursing actions included in the care of a mechanically ventilated patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to an experienced LPN/LVN working in the intensive care unit?

a)

Placing the patient in the prone position

b)

Assessment of patient breath sounds

c)

Administration of enteral tube feedings

d)

Obtaining the pulmonary artery pressures

15.

Which is part of the nursing management for ARDS?

a)

Aggressive use of intravenous (IV) fluids

b)

Use of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

c)

Administration of a B-blocker

d)

Use of the lateral recumbent position

16.

A client is diagnosed with acute renal failure. Which signs and symptoms indicate to the nurse the client is in the recovery period? Select all that apply

a)

Decreased urine specific gravity

b)

Increased alertness and no seizure activity

c)

Increased serum creatinine

d)

Increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit

e)

Denial of nausea and vomiting

17.

A client is diagnosed with acute renal failure is admitted to the ICU, placed on a therapeutic diet. Which is most appropriate?

a)

High potassium and low calcium

b)

High carbohydrate and restricted protein

c)

Low fat and low cholesterol

d)

Regular diet with six small meals per day

18.

The nurse in the dialysis center is initiating the morning dialysis run, which client should the nurse see first?

a)

A client with a hemoglobin of 9.8 and hematocrit of 30

b)

A client complaining of being exhausted and sleeping

c)

A client who does not have a palpable thrill or auscultated bruit

d)

A client who did not take their hypertension medication this morning

19.

You're developing a nursing care plan for a patient in the diuresis stage of AKI. What nursing diagnosis would you include in the care plan?

a)

Excess fluid volume

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Risk for electrolyte imbalance

d)

Acute pain

20.

A patient with acute renal injury has a GFR of 40 mL/min. Which signs and symptoms below may this patient present with? Select all that apply

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Increased BUN level

d)

Decreased Creatinine level

21.

A 45 year old male patient is admitted with a massive GI bleed. Which type of acute kidney injury is the patient at risk for?

a)

Post-renal

b)

Pre-renal

c)

Intra-renal

d)

Intrinsic renal

22.

During the assessment of a patient with an AKI you note that the creatinine is 3 times the normal level. What stage of renal injury is this patient in?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Pre-Renal

23.

8. During which phase of a AKI is the urine production less the 400 mL per day?

a)

Oliguria

b)

Nocturia

c)

Recovery

d)

Diuresis

24.

Which labs are used to assess the kidney function? (Select all that apply)

a)

GFR

b)

Cr

c)

WBC

d)

BUN

25.

What are some causes of Metabolic Acidosis? SATA

a)

Severe Diarrhea

b)

Renal insufficiency

c)

Hyperaldosteronism

d)

High- fat Diet

e)

Ingestion of excess sodium bicarbonate

26.

A nurse is working in ED and is assigned to care for the clients in examination rooms 1, 2 and 3. Which pt does the nurse see first after getting this in report?

a)

patient with a blood pressure of 95/45

b)

an elderly person who has fallen and is in CT to rule out a subdural hematoma. Room

c)

diagnosed with kidney stones, positive for hematuria and pain level of 8/10 Room

27.

While educating a group of nursing students about the stages of acute kidney injury, a student asks how long the oliguric stage lasts. You explain to the student this stage can last?

a)

12 months

b)

1-3 days

c)

A few hours or up to 2 weeks

d)

1-2 weeks

28.

A patient with a kidney stone explains that the pain he is experiencing is intense, sharp, and wavelike that radiates to the scrotum. In addition, he explains it feels like he has to void but a only a small amount of urine is passed. Based on the patient’s signs and symptoms, where may the kidney stone be located?

Renal Papilla

a)


Ureter

b)

Urethra

c)

Renal Calyx

d)

Renal Papilla

29.


Which patient is experiencing partially compensated respiratory acidosis?

a)


PaCO2 50, pH 7.30, HCO3 23

b)

PaCO2 53, pH 7.23, HCO3 28

c)

PaCO2 45, pH 7.49, HCO3 21

d)

PaCO2 30, pH 7.35, HCO3 26

30.


A 60-year old African American patient is newly diagnosed with mild chronic kidney disease (stage 2). She has a history of diabetes, and her current A1C is 8.0%. She asks the nurse whether any of the following factors could have caused this problem. Which factor should the nurse indicate may have influenced the development of CKD?

a)


She heavily salted her food as a child and teenager but added no extra salt as an adult.

b)

Her chronic hyperglycemia causes blood vessel changes in the kidney that can damage the tissue.

c)

Her paternal grandparents had type 2 diabetes and hypertension.

d)

She drinks 2 cups of coffee with cream daily.

31.


The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client best understands the information if the client states to record daily the:

a)

BUN and Cr

b)

I & O and weight

c)

Pulse and respiratory rate

d)

Amount of activity

32.


The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following would be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis?

a)


Change the catheter site dressing daily

b)

Add Heparin to the dialysate solution

c)

Monitor LOC

d)

Maintain strict aseptic technique

33.



A client newly diagnosed with renal failure has just been started on peritoneal dialysis. During the infusion of the dialysate, the client complains of abdominal pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

a)

Explain that the pain should decrease after the few exchanges

b)

Decreased amount infused

c)

Give PRN pain medication

d)

Stop the dialysis

34.


A client is undergoing diagnostic tests to rule out a diagnosis of renal disease. The lab results indicate a ratio of BUN to creatinine of 15:1. The nurse determines that this result indicates:

a)


A fluid volume deficit

b)

Kidney failure

c)

A fluid volume excess

d)

A normal ratio

35.


Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of CKD has been effective?

a)


"I need to take the erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection."

b)

"I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink."

c)

"I will try to increase my intake of fruits and vegetables."

d)

"I need to try to get more protein from dairy products."

36.


Which patient information will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

a)

Neurologic status

b)

Blood pressure

c)

Phosphate level

d)

Creatinine clearance

37.


A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse would use which of the following standard indicators to evaluate the client’s status after dialysis?

a)

Vital signs and weight

b)

Potassium level and weight

c)

Vital signs and BUN

d)

BUN and Cr levels

38.


The nurse is caring for a client with rule-out ARF. Which condition predisposes the client to developing prerenal failure?

a)


Benign prostatic hypertrophy

b)

Aminoglycosides

c)

Hypotension

d)

Diabetes mellitus

39.


)The client is diagnosed with ARF. Which signs/symptoms indicate to the nurse the client is in the recovery period? Select all that apply.

a)


Decreased urine specific gravity.

b)

Denial of nausea and vomiting.

c)

Increase in hemoglobin and hematocrit.

d)

Increased alertness and no seizure activity.

40.


______________ is solely filtered from the bloodstream via the glomerulus and is NOT reabsorbed back into the bloodstream but is excreted through the urine.

a)

Potassium

b)

Magnesium

c)

Creatinine

d)

Urea

41.


Which assessment finding is commonly found in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypovolemia

42.


Important nursing interventions for the patient with AKI are (select all that apply).

a)

meticulous aseptic technique.

b)

increase intake of vitamin A and D.

c)

frequent mouth care.

d)

daily patient weights.

e)

careful monitoring of intake and output.

43.


Patients with CKD have an increased incidence of cardiovascular disease related to (select all that apply).

a)


hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia.

b)

a genetic predisposition.

c)

increased high-density lipoproteins levels.

d)

vascular calcifications.

e)

hypertension.

44.


What are the main advantages of peritoneal dialysis compared to hemodialysis?

a)

No medications are required because of the enhanced efficiency of the peritoneal membrane in removing toxins.

b)

The diet is less restricted and dialysis can be performed at home.

c)

The dialysate is biocompatible and causes no long-term consequences.

d)

High glucose concentrations of the dialysate cause a reduction in appetite, promoting weight loss.

45.

A client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium of 6.6 mEq/L. The nurse should anticipate an orde~r for:

a)

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).

b)

aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel).

c)

propranolol (Inderal).

d)

furosemide (Lasix).

46.

The nurse discusses plans for future treatment options with a client with chronic kidney disease. Which treatment should be included in this discussion? Select all that apply.

a)

Intense immunosuppression therapy

b)

Bilateral nephrectomy

c)

Kidney transplant

d)

Peritoneal dialysis

e)

Hemodialysis

47.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

a)

Place the client in good body alignment.

b)

Check the level of the drainage bag.

c)

Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks.

d)

Reposition the client to his or her side.

e)

Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

48.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action?

a)

Monitor the client.

b)

Elevate the head of the bed.

c)

Assess the fistula site and dressing.

d)

Notify the health care provider (HCP).

49.

14)The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations?

a)

Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever

b)

Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia

c)

Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness

d)

Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching

50.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with chronic kidney disease and uremia. The nurse is developing interventions to assist in promoting an increased dietary intake while at the same time maintaining necessary dietary restrictions. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a)

Increase the amount of protein in the diet.

b)

Increase the amount of potassium in the daily diet.

c)

Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks.

d)

Encourage the client to eat a large breakfast and smaller meals later in the day.

51.

Patients experiencing chest pain with complaints of fatigue or weakness usually are medicated with which of the following types of medication?

a)

Morphine sulfate

b)

Statins

c)

Cardiac glycosides

d)

Sublingual nitroglycerin

52.

Which of the following diagnostic tests would help diagnose a myocardial infarction?

a)

Serum myoglobin level

b)

Creatinine kinase

c)

White blood cell count

d)

Troponin T levels

53.

Along with crushing chest pain, what other symptoms would a patient experience?



a)

Numbness and tingling in hands and feet

b)

Pyrosis

c)

JVD

d)

Diaphoresis and cold, clammy skin

54.

A patient is complaining of chest pain. You obtain a 12-lead EKG and see ST elevation in leads II, III, AVF. What area of the heart does this represent?

a)

Inferior

b)

Anterior

c)


Septal

d)

Lateral

55.

Which of the following EKG changes are abnormal findings that may indicate ischemia or injury to the cardiac muscle found on a 12-lead EKG? (SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY)

a)

T wave inversion

b)

ST-segment elevation

c)

Tall t-waves

d)

QT-interval narrowing

e)

ST-segment depression

56.

The nurse is calculating the cardiac output for a client with a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. What other measurements does the nurse need to complete this calculation?

a)

Cardiac index

b)

QT interval

c)

T-wave

d)

Stroke volume

57.

A patient's morning lab work shows a potassium level of 6.3. The patient’s potassium level yesterday was 4.0 The patient was recently started on new medications for treatment of myocardial infarction. What medication below can cause an increased potassium level?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Norvasc

c)

Cardizem

d)

Losartan

58.

. A patient recovering from a myocardial infarction is complaining of the taste of blood in their mouth. On assessment, you note there is bleeding on the anterior gums. Which medication can cause this?

a)

Lipitor

b)

Lovenox

c)

Cardizem

d)

Coreg

59.

On an EKG, the lateral view of the heart is represented with leads?

a)

V1, V2, V3

b)

II, II, AVF I

c)

AVL, V5, V6

d)

V1, V2, V6

60.

A patient is admitted with chest pain to the ER. The patient has been in the ER for 5 hours and is being admitted to your unit for overnight observation. From the options below, what is the most IMPORTANT information to know about this patient at this time?

a)

Diet status

b)

Oxygen saturation

c)

CK result and when the next CK level is due to be collected

d)

Troponin result and when the next troponin level is due to be collected

61.

Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing heart failure? Select-all-that-apply:

a)

A 69 year old male with a history of alcohol abuse and is recovering from a myocardial infarction.

b)

A 55 year old female with a health history of asthma and hypoparathyroidism.

c)

A 30 year old male with a history of endocarditis and has severe mitral stenosis.

d)

A 45 year old female with lung cancer stage 2.

e)

A 58 year old female with uncontrolled hypertension and is being treated for influenza.

62.

Which of the following are NOT typical signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure? Select-all-that-apply:*

a)

Jugular venous distention

b)

Persistent cough

c)

Weight gain

d)

Crackles

e)

Orthopnea

63.

The patient diagnosed with rule-out myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain while walking to the bathroom. What action should the nurse implement first?


a)

Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

b)

Obtain a stat 12-Lead EKG

c)

Have the patient sit down immediately

d)

Assess the client’s vitals

64.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction is six hours post-right femoral percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), also known as balloon surgery. Which assessment data would require immediate intervention by the nurse?

a)

The client is keeping the affected extremity straight

b)

The pressure dressing to the right femoral area is intact

c)

The client is complaining of numbness in the right foot

d)

The client's right pedal pulse is +3 and bounding

65.

The intensive care department nurse is assessing the client who is 12 hours post-myocardial infarction. The nurse assesses an S3 heart sound. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

a)

Notify the health-care provider immediately

b)

Elevate the head of the client's bed

c)

Document this as a normal an expected finding

d)

Administer morphine intravenously

66.

The nurse is administering a calcium channel blocker to the client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. Which assessment data would cause the nurse to question administering this medication?

a)

The client's apical pulse is 64

b)

The client's calcium level is elevated

c)

The client's telemetry shows occasional PVCs

d)

The client's blood pressure is 90/62

67.

The client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction asks the nurse, "why do I have to rest and take it easy? My chest doesn't hurt anymore." Which statement would be the nurse's best response?

a)

"Your heart is damaged and needs about 4 to 6 weeks to heal"

b)

"There is necrotic myocardial tissue that puts you at risk for dysrhythmias"

c)

"Your doctor has ordered bedrest. Therefore, you must stay in bed."

d)

"Just because your chest doesn't hurt anymore doesn't mean you are out of danger"

68.

Your patient’s blood pressure is 72/56, heart rate 126, and respiration 24. The patient has a fungal infection in the lungs. The patient also has a fever, warm/flushed skin, and is restless. You notify the physician who suspects septic shock. You anticipate that the physician will order what treatment FIRST?

a)

Low-dose corticosteroids

b)

Crystalloids IV fluid bolus

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

2 units of Packed Red Blood Cells

69.

A patient is at risk for septic shock when a microorganism invades the body. Which microorganism is the MOST common cause of sepsis?

a)

Fungus

b)

Virus

c)

Parasite

d)

Bacteria

70.

A patient in septic shock is experiencing hyperglycemia. The patient is started on an insulin drip. A blood glucose goal for this patient would be:

a)

<110 mg/dL

b)

<80 mg/dL

c)

>200 mg/dL

d)

<180 mg/dL

71.

Your patient, who is post-op from a gastrointestinal surgery, is presenting with a temperature of 103.6 'F, heart rate 120, blood pressure 72/42, increased white blood cell count, and respirations of 21. An IV fluid bolus is ordered STAT. Which findings below indicate that the patient is progressing to septic shock? Select all that apply:*

a)

Blood pressure of 70/34 after the fluid bolus

b)

Serum lactate less than 2 mmol/L

c)

Patient needs Norepinephrine to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mmHg despite fluid replacement

d)

Central venous pressure (CVP) of 18

72.

A patient with a fever is lethargic and has a blood pressure of 89/56. The patient’s white blood cell count is elevated. The physician suspects the patient is developing septic shock. What other findings indicate this patient is in the “early” or “compensated” stage of septic shock? Select all that apply:

a)

Urinary output of 60 mL over 4 hours

b)

Warm and flushed skin

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradypnea

73.

The physician orders a patient in septic shock to receive a large IV fluid bolus. How would the nurse know if this treatment was successful for this patient?

a)

The patient’s blood pressure changes from 75/48 to 110/82.

b)

Patient’s CVP 2 mmHg

c)

Patient’s skin is warm and flushed.

d)

Patient’s urinary output is 20 mL/hr.

74.

A patient is on IV Norepinephrine for treatment of septic shock. Which statement is FALSE about this medication?

a)

“The nurse should titrate this medication to maintain a MAP of 65 mmHg or greater.”

b)

“This medication causes vasodilation and decreases systemic vascular resistance.”

c)

“It is used when fluid replacement is not unsuccessful.”

d)

“It is considered a vasopressor.”

75.

Your patient, who is post-op from a kidney transplant, has developed septic shock. Which statement below best reflects the interventions you will perform for this patient?

a)

Administer Norepinephrine before attempting a fluid resuscitation.

b)

Collect cultures and then administer IV antibiotics.

c)

Check blood glucose levels before starting any other treatments.

d)

Administer Drotrecogin Alpha within 48-72 hours.

76.

The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which of these should the healthcare provider administer to the patient first?

a)

Antibiotics to treat the underlying infection.

b)

Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.

c)

IV fluids to increase intravascular volume.

d)

Vasopressors to increase blood pressure.

77.

A client has been diagnosed with sepsis. The nurse will most likely find which of the following when assessing this client: Select all that apply:

a)

Rapid shallow respirations.

b)

Severe hypotension.

c)

Mental status changes.

d)

Elevated temperature.

78.

An intensive care nurse, is assessing a patient with suspected sepsis. Which predisposing factors would expect to be found in the patient with septic shock?

a)

A 45 year old client with a history of renal insufficiency.

b)

A client age 65, with a history of cancer who is recovering from an abdominal peritoneal resection.

c)

A 27 year old with pyelonephritis responding to treatment with an antibiotic.

d)

A 50 year old with community acquired tuberculosis.

79.

A patient in septic shock has not responded to fluid resuscitation, as evidenced by a decreasing BP and cardiac output. The nurse anticipates the administration of:

a)

nitroglycerine (Tridil).

b)

dobutamine (Dobutrex).

c)

norepinephrine (Levophed).

d)

sodium nitroprusside (Nipride).

80.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a urinary tract infection and sepsis. Which information obtained in the assessment indicates a need for a change in therapy?

a)

The patient is restless and anxious.

b)

The patient has a heart rate of 134.

c)

The patient has hypotonic bowel sounds.

d)

The patient has a temperature of 94.1° F.

81.

When caring for a patient who has just been admitted with septic shock, which of these assessment data will be of greatest concern to the nurse?

a)

BP 88/56 mm Hg

b)

Arterial oxygen saturation 90%

c)

Urine output 15 ml for 2 hours

d)

Apical pulse 110 beats/min

82.

Which medication below can be used within the first 24-48 hours of septic shock and provides anti-inflammatory and antithrombotic effects?

a)

Drotrecogin alpha

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Colloids

d)

Corticosteroids

83.

Which nurse should be assigned to care for an intubated client who has septic shock as the result of a methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection?

a)

The LPN/LVN with 20 years of experience

b)

The new RN who recently finished orienting and is working independently with moderately complex clients

c)

The RN who will also be caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 12 hours ago

d)

The RN with 2 years of experience of intensive care.

84.

A client recovering from an open reduction of the femur suddenly feels light-headed, with increased anxiety and agitation. Which key vital sign differentiates a pulmonary embolism from early sepsis?

a)

Temperature

b)

Pulse

c)

Respirations

d)

Blood Pressure

85.

A postoperative client is admitted to the intensive care unit with hypovolemic shock. Which nursing action does the nurse delegate to an experienced nursing assistant?

a)

Obtain vital signs every 15 minutes.

b)

Measure hourly urine output.

c)

Check oxygen saturation.

d)

Assess level of alertness.

86.

A patient with a fever is lethargic and has a blood pressure of 89/56. The patient’s white blood cell count is elevated. The physician suspects the patient is developing septic shock. What other findings indicate this patient is in the "early" or "compensated" stage of septic shock?

Select all that apply:

a)

Urinary output of 60 mL over 4 hours

b)

Warm flushed skin

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradypnea

87.

The nurse plans to administer an antibiotic to a client newly admitted with septic shock. What action does the nurse take first?

a)

Administer antibiotics immediately

b)

Ensure that blood cultures would be drawn

c)

Obtain signature for informed consent

d)

Take the client's vital signs

88.

A patient in septic shock receives large amounts of IV fluids. However, this was unsuccessful in maintaining tissue perfusion. As the nurse, you would anticipate the physician to order what NEXT?

a)

IV corticosteroids

b)

Colloids

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Norepinephrine

89.

A patient who is in shock will be intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation. How should the nurse explain the benefits of these actions to his family?

Select all that apply:

a)

“Putting him on the ventilator will reduce the work he is doing to breathe."

b)

“He won't have such a risk for developing pneumonia if he is on mechanical ventilator.”

c)

“These interventions will help us be certain he is maintaining an open airway."

d)

"The mechanical ventilator will help us to give him the proper amounts of oxygen."

e)

"These measures will prevent him from developing ARDS."

90.

A patient with a severe infection has developed septic shock. The patient’s blood pressure is 72/44, heart rate 130, respiration 22, oxygen saturation 96% on high-flow oxygen, and temperature 103.6 °F. The patient’s mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 53 mmHg. Based on these findings, you know this patient is experiencing diminished tissue perfusion and needs treatment to improve tissue perfusion to prevent organ dysfunction. In regards to the pathophysiology of septic shock, what is occurring in the body that is leading to this decrease in tissue perfusion?

a)

Absolute hypovolemia

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Increased capillary permeability

d)

Increased systemic vascular resistance

e)

Clot formation in microcirculation

91.

9)Your patient, who is post-op from a gastrointestinal surgery, is presenting with a temperature of 103.6 °F, heart rate 120, blood pressure 72/42, increased white blood cell count, and respirations of 21. An IV fluid bolus is ordered STAT. Which findings below indicate that the patient is progressing to septic shock?

a)

Blood pressure of 70/34 after the fluid bolus

b)

Serum lactate less than 2 mmol/L

c)

Patient needs Norepinephrine to maintain a mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mmHg despite fluid replacement

d)

Central venous pressure (CVP) of 18

92.

Your patient's blood pressure is 72/56, heart rate 126, and respiration 24. The patient has a fungal infection in the lungs. The patient also has a fever, warm/flushed skin, and is restless. You notify the physician who suspects septic shock. You anticipate that the physician will order what treatment FIRST?*

a)

Low-dose corticosteroids

b)

Crystalloids IV fluid bolus

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

2 units of Packed Red Blood Cells

93.

Your patient, who is post-op from a kidney transplant, has developed septic shock. Which statement below best reflects the interventions you will perform for this patient?

a)

Administer Norepinephrine before attempting a fluid resuscitation.

b)

Collect cultures and then administer IV antibiotics.

c)

Check blood glucose levels before starting any other treatments.

d)

Administer Drotrecogin Alpha within 48-72 hours.

94.

Which patients are at risk for shock related to fluid shifts?

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:

a)

Severely malnourished patient

b)

Patient with paralytic ileus

c)

Patient with kidney disease

d)

Patient with minor burns

e)

Patient with large wounds

95.

The nurse is caring for a patient with sepsis. What is a late clinical manifestation of shock?

a)

Drop in blood pressure

b)

MAP is decreased by less than 10 mm Hg

c)

Tachycardia with a bounding pulse

d)

Increased urine output

96.

The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for septic shock from a wound infection. In order to prevent systemic inflammatory response syndrome, the nurse’s priority is to monitor which factor?

a)

Patient’s pulse rate and quality

b)

Patient’s electrolyte imbalance

c)

Localized infected area

d)

Patient’s intake and output

97.

The nurse is caring for a patient in septic shock. The nurse notes that the rate and depth of respirations is markedly increased. The nurse interprets this as a possible manifestation of the respiratory system compensating for which condition?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

98.

A patient comes into the emergency department with a chemical burn from contact with lye. Assessment and treatment of this patient will be based on what knowledge regarding this type of burn? Select all that apply

a)

This is an alkali burn.

b)

This type of burn tends to be deeper.

c)

This is an acid burn.

d)

This type of burn will be easier to neutralize.

e)

This type of burn tends to be more superficial.

99.

A patient, experiencing a burn that is pale and waxy with large flat blisters, asks the nurse about the severity of the burn and how long it will take to heal. With which of the following should the nurse respond to this patient?

a)

The wound is a deep partial-thickness burn and will take more than 3 weeks to heal.

b)

The wound is a partial-thickness burn and could take up to two weeks to heal.

c)

The wound is a full-thickness burn and will take one to two weeks to heal.

d)

Wound healing is individualized.

100.

A 25-year-old patient is admitted with partial-thickness injuries over 20% of the total body surface area involving both lower legs. The nurse would classify this injury as being what type of burn?

a)

a moderate burn

b)

a minor burn

c)

a major burn

d)

a severe burn

101.

A patient is being evaluated after experiencing severe burns to his torso and upper extremities. The nurse notes edema at the burned areas. Which of the following best describes the underlying cause for this assessment finding?

a)

The IV fluid being administered too quickly

b)

Reduced vascular permeability at the site of the burned area

c)

Decreased osmotic pressure in the burned tissue

d)

Increased fluids in the extracellular compartment

e)

Inability of the damaged capillaries to maintain fluids in the cell walls

102.

A patient with a burn injury is prescribed silver nitrate. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included for the patient? Select all that apply

a)


Monitor the serum sodium levels.

b)

Prepare to change the dressings every two hours.

c)

Report black skin discolorations.

d)

Push fluid intake.

e)

Monitor daily weight.

103.

An adult client was burned in an explosion. The burn initially affected the entire face/anterior half of the forehead, upper half of the anterior torso, and circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. Burned clothing caused subsequent burns to the posterior head and upper half of posterior torso. Using the rule of nines, what would be the extent of the burn injury?

a)

18%

b)

24%

c)

36%

d)

48%

104.

The nurse is preparing to care for a burn client scheduled for an escharotomy procedure for a third-degree circumferential arm burn. The nurse understands that which finding is the anticipated therapeutic outcome of this procedure?

a)

Return of distal pulses

b)

Brisk bleeding from the area

c)

Decreased edema

d)

Granulation tissue formation

105.

A client is undergoing fluid replacement after a 20% BSA burn obtained 12 hours prior. On assessment, the patient’s vital signs are a BP 90/50, pulse 110, and urine output 20 mL in the last hour. The nurse informs the primary provider and anticipates which prescription?

a)

Transfusion of 1-unit packed RBCs

b)

Administering a diuretic

c)

Increasing LR infusion rate

d)

Replacing LR with 5% dextrose in water

106.

A patient is brought to the ER with partial-thickness burns to his face, neck, arms, and chest after trying to put out a campfire. Which of the following nursing actions should be instituted? Select all that apply

a)

Restrict fluid intake

b)

Assess airway

c)

Administer oxygen

d)

Apply a cooling blanket to burns

e)

Elevate extremities

107.

A nurse is caring for a patient who sustained superficial partial-thickness burns to the anterior portion of her right lower leg and anterior thorax. Which finding does the nurse expect to find during the resuscitation/emergent phase of the burn injury?

a)

Decreased HR

b)

Increased urine output

c)

Increased BP

d)

Elevated hematocrit level

108.

The nurse should expect to apply which type of ordered antiseptic to a client with a burn wound, once the area has been cleansed with sterile saline?

a)

copper containing

b)

silver containing

c)

biguanide

d)

acetic acid

109.

Multiple patients arrive in the emergency department from a house fire. Which patient is a priority?

a)

Patient with erythema dry burns over the arms and a history of taking prednisone

b)

Patient with moist blisters over the chest and who reports pain as 10

c)

Patient with dry, black skin on one hand and a history of diabetes mellitus

d)

Patient with multiple reddened skin areas on the chest and with high-pitched respiratory sounds

110.

When assessing a patient with a partial-thickness burn, the nurse would expect to find? Select all that apply

a)


Blisters

b)

Exposed fascia

c)

Full Thickness

d)

intact nerve endings

e)

red, shiny, wet appearance

111.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with first- and second-degree burns after being involved in a house fire. Which of the following assessment findings would alert you to the presence of an inhalation injury (select all that apply)?

a)

Singed nasal hair

b)

Generalized pallor

c)

Painful swallowing

d)

Burns on the upper extremities

e)

History of being involved in a large fire

112.

A patient who has been severely burned in an accident is brought to the emergency department. The physician orders a regimen to begin fluid resuscitation. Which type of fluid would the nurse most likely use as part of fluid resuscitation following a burn injury?

a)

0.9% Normal saline

b)

D10W

c)

Lactated Ringer’s solution

d)

D5 ½ with KCl

113.

The newly admitted patient has a large burn area on her trunk. The burned area appears red, has blisters, and is very painful. How should this injury be categorized?

a)


Superficial

b)

Partial thickness superficial

c)

Full Thickness

d)

Partial thickness deep

114.

Which information obtained by the assessment ensures that the patient's respiratory efforts are currently adequate?

a)


The patients chest movements are inhibited

b)

The patient is able to talk

c)

The patient's oxygen saturation is 97%

d)

The patient is alert and oriented

115.

The burned patients family asked at what point will the patient no longer be at increased risk for infection. What is the nurse's best response?

a)


When body weight is normal

b)

When IV fluids are discontinued

c)

When the burn wounds are closed

d)

When fluid remobilization has started

116.

A patient is brought into the emergency department after suffering from third degree burns in an explosion. The patient has burns on approximately 40 percent of his body. The nurse weighs the patient and notes that he weighs 166 lbs. Calculate the volume of IV fluid this patient must receive in the first 24 hours using the Parkland formula.

a)

4 L

b)

8 L

c)

12 L

d)

16 L

117.

How do you manage burn blisters? (Select all that apply)

a)

Leave intact

b)

Instruct patient to pop

c)

Consider sterile aspiration if large, tense or over joints

d)

If already ruptured, debride and dress

118.

In order for the nurse to correctly classify a burn injury, which of the following does the nurse need to assess? (Select all that apply)

a)

The depth of the burn

b)

Extent of burns on the body

c)

The causative agent and the duration of exposure

d)

Location of the burns

e)

The time that the burn occurred

119.

A patient has experienced a burn injury. Which of the following interventions by the nurse is the highest priority at this time?

a)

Determination of the type of burn injury

b)

Determination of the types of home remedies attempted prior to the patient coming to the hospital

c)

Assessment of past medical history

d)

Determination of body weight

120.

Which laboratory result obtained on a client 24 hours post-burn injury would the nurse report to the physician immediately?

a)

Serum sodium 131 mmol/L

b)

Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L

c)

Arterial pH 7.32

d)

Hematocrit 52%

121.

The nurse is assessing a patient with a burn wound to the back and chest area. Which assessment findings are consistent with a superficial-thickness burn wound (Select all that apply)

a)

Redness

b)

Pain

c)

Mild edema

d)

Moisture

e)

Eschar

122.

The nurse is reviewing arterial blood gas (ABG) results for a patient with 35% TBSA the burn in the resuscitation phase: pH is 7.26; Pco2 is 36 mm Hg; and HCO3 is 19 meq/L. What condition does the nurse suspect the patient has?

a)

Metabolic alkalosis

b)

Metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

123.

A patient was burned on the forearm after tripping and falling against a wood-burning stove. There are currently several small blisters over the burn area. What does the nurse advise the patient to do about the blisters?

a)


Leave the blisters intact because they protect the wound from infection.

b)

Use a sterile needle to open a tiny hole in each blister to drain the fluid.

c)

Allow blisters to increase in size; then open them to prevent immunosuppression.

d)

Leave the blisters intact unless the pain and pressure increase.

124.

On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25 % total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 56%, Hb 17.2 mg/dlm serum K+ 4.8 mEq/L and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L. Which action with the nurse anticipate taking

a)


Document and Continue monitoring

b)

Increase rate of ordered IV fluids

c)

Complete a transfusion

d)

Contact PCP

125.

Which of the following patients will be evaluated for transfer to a burn center? (Select all that apply)

a)


Burns involving the hands, feet, face, eyes, ears

b)

Electrical, including lightening; chemical; and inhalation injuries

c)

Partial thickness or full thickness burns greater than 10%TBSA and patient older than 50 years

d)

Partial thickness or full thickness burns greater than 20% TBSA in adults younger than 50 years.

126.

A patient has been brought in to the emergency department with 2nd and 3rd degree burns over 40 percent of his body. Which medications does the nurse anticipate to use for the GI response to the burn injury? (Select all that apply)

a)


dopamine

b)

pantoprazole

c)

famotidine

d)

Rhabdomyoglobinate

127.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been admitted to the ED after receiving burns to the face and chest. The nurse notes a hoarse cough and black flecks in the sputum. The client suddenly becomes restless and pale. The nurse should suspect?

a)


Relative hyperkalemia

b)

Rhabdomyolysis

c)

Curling’s ulcer

d)

Laryngeal edema

128.

The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

a)


Call a code immediately.

b)

Assess the client for a pulse.

c)

Begin chest compressions.

d)

Continue to monitor the client.

129.

The client comes to the emergency department saying, "I am having a heart attack." Which question is most pertinent when assessing the client?

a)


"Can you describe your chest pain?"

b)

"What were you doing when the pain started?"

c)

"Did you have a high-fat meal today?"

d)

"Does the pain get worse when you lie down?"

130.

The client is 3 hours post-myocardial infarction. Which data would warrant immediate intervention by the nurse?

a)


Bilateral peripheral pulses 2+

b)

The pulse oximeter reading is 96%.

c)

The urine output is 240 ml in the last 4 hours.

d)

Cool, clammy, diaphoretic skin

131.

What is the first intervention for a client experiencing MI?

a)

Administer morphine

b)

Administer oxygen

c)

Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

d)

Obtain an ECG

132.

What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with an MI?

a)

To sedate the client

b)

To decrease the client's pain

c)

To decrease the client's anxiety

d)

To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart

133.

A doctor has ordered cardiac enzymes on a patient being admitted with chest pain. You know that _____________ levels elevate 2-4 hours after injury to the heart and is the most regarded marker by providers.

a)

Myoglobin

b)

CK-MB

c)

CK

d)

Troponin

134.

You’re educating a patient about the causes of a myocardial infarction. Which statement by the patient indicates they misunderstood your teaching and requires you to re-educate them?

a)

Coronary artery dissection can happen spontaneously and occurs more in women.

b)

The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is a coronary spasm from illicit drug use or hypertension.

c)

Patients who have coronary artery disease are at high risk for developing a myocardial infarction.

d)

Both A and B are incorrect.

135.

You note in the patient’s chart that the patient recently had a myocardial infarction due to a blockage in the left coronary artery. You know that which of the following is true about this type of blockage?

a)

A blockage in the left coronary artery causes the least amount of damage to the heart muscle.

b)

Left coronary artery blockages can cause anterior wall death which affects the left ventricle.

c)

Left coronary artery blockage can cause posterior wall death which affects the right ventricle.

d)

The left anterior descending artery is least likely to be affected by coronary artery disease.

136.

A patient is complaining of chest pain. You obtain a 12-lead EKG and see ST elevation in leads II, III, AVF. What area of the heart does this represent?

a)

Lateral

b)

Septal

c)

Anterior

d)

Inferior

137.

Which of the following EKG changes are abnormal findings that may indicate ischemia or injury to the cardiac muscle found on a 12-lead EKG? SELECT-ALL-THAT-APPLY:*

a)

ST-segment elevation

b)

T-wave inversion

c)

Tall t-waves

d)

QT interval narrowing

e)

ST-segment depression

138.

A patient is being discharged home after receiving treatment for a myocardial infarction. The patient will be taking Coreg. What statement by the patient demonstrates they understood your education material about this drug?*

a)

"I will take this medication in the morning with grapefruit juice."

b)

"I will take this medication at night."

c)

"I will take this medication as needed."

d)

"I will monitor my heart rate and blood pressure while taking this medication."

139.

A patient is 36 hours status post a myocardial infarction. The patient is starting to complain of chest pain when they lay flat or cough. You note on auscultation of the heart a grating, harsh sound. What complication is this patient mostly likely suffering from?*

a)

Cardiac dissection

b)

Ventricular septum rupture

c)

Mitral valve prolapse

d)

Pericarditis

140.

A patient is admitted with chest pain to the ER. The patient has been in the ER for 5 hours and is being admitted to your unit for overnight observation. From the options below, what is the most IMPORTANT information to know about this patient at this time?

a)

Troponin result and when the next troponin level is due to be collected

b)

Diet status

c)

Oxygen saturation

d)

CK result and when the next CK level is due to be collected

141.

A patient taking Lovenox is having a severe reaction. What is the antidote for this medication?

a)

Activated Charcoal

b)

Acetylcysteine

c)

Narcan

d)

Protamine sulfate

142.

A patient is complaining of a nagging cough that is continuous. Which medication below can cause this side effect?

a)

Lostartan

b)

Lisinopril

c)

Cardizem

d)

Lipitor

143.

A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, what condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Ventricular dysrhythmias

c)

Rising diastolic blood pressure

d)

Falling central venous pressure

144.

A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardia, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client’s breath sounds?

a)

Stridor

b)

Crackles

c)

Scattered rhonchi

d)

Diminished breath sounds

145.

A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia?

a)

It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time.

b)

It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm.

c)

It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom.

d)

It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia.

146.

Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing pneumonia? Select all that apply:

a)

A 53 yo female recovering from abdominal surgery

b)

A 69 yo patient who recently received the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

c)

A 42 yo male with COPD and is on continuous oxygen via nasal cannula

d)

A 8 month old with RSV infection

147.

You’re caring for a patient with pneumonia. The patient has just started treatment for pneumonia and is still experiencing hypoxemia. You know that respiratory acidosis is very common in patients with pneumonia. Which arterial blood gas reading below represent respiratory acidosis that is NOT compensated?

a)

pH 7.29, PaCO2 55, HCO3 23, PO2 85

b)

pH 7.48, PaCO2 35, HCO3 22, PO2 85

c)

pH 7.20, PaCO2 20, HCO3 28, PO2 85

d)

pH 7.55, PaCO2 63, HCO3 19, PO2 85

148.

Which of the following are typical signs and symptoms of pneumonia? Select all that apply:

a)

Coarse crackles

b)

Oxygen saturation less than 90%

c)

Non-productive, nagging cough

d)

Elevated white blood cells

e)

Tachypnea

149.

A 72-year-old male patient who is diagnosed with bilateral lower lobe pneumonia is admitted to your unit. The patient has a history of systolic heart failure and arthritis. On assessment, you note the patient has a respiratory rate of 21, oxygen saturation 93% on 2 L nasal cannula, is alert & oriented, and has a productive cough with green/yellowish sputum. Which of the following nursing interventions will you provide to this patient based on your assessment findings and the patient’s diagnosis? Select all that apply:

a)

Keep head-of-the-bed less than 30 degrees at all times

b)

Collect sputum cultures

c)

Encourage 3L of fluids a day to keep secretions thin

d)

Provide education about receiving the Pneumovax vaccine every 5 years

150.

You’re providing discharge teaching to a patient who was admitted for pneumonia. You are discussing measures that patient can take to prevent pneumonia. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates they did NOT understand your education material?

a)

“I’ll use hand sanitizer regularly while I’m out in public.”

b)

“It is important I don’t receive the Pneumovax vaccine since I’m already immune to pneumonia.”

c)

“I will try to avoid large crowds of people during the peak of flu season.”

d)

“It is important I try to quit smoking.”

151.

Select all the medications used to treat pneumonia that are narrow-spectrum?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Tamiflu

c)

Fluroquinolones

d)

Penicillins

152.

You are about to hang a bag of intravenous Vancomycin for a patient who has severe pneumonia. Which statement by the patient causes you to hold the bag of Vancomycin and notify the doctor immediately?

a)

“I’m seeing yellow halos around the light.”

b)

“My mouth tastes like metal.”

c)

“My head hurts.”

d)

“I have this constant ringing in my ears.”

153.

You’re providing care to a patient who is being treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a 100% non-rebreather mask. Which finding bwlow is a HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

a)

The patient is experiencing bradypnea.

b)

The patient is tired and confused

c)

The patient’s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg

d)

The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96

154.

During the exudative phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the patient’s lung cells that produce surfactant have become damaged. As the nurse you know this will lead to?

a)

Bronchoconstriction

b)

Atelectasis

c)

Upper airway blockage

d)

Pulmonary edema

155.

You’re providing care to a patient who was just transferred to your unit for the treatment of ARDS. The patient is in the exudative phase. The patient is ordered arterial blood gases. The results are back. Which results are expected during this early phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome that correlates with this diagnosis?

a)

PaO2 40, pH 7.59, PaCO2 30, HCO3 23

b)

PaO2 85, pH 7.42, PaCO2 37, HCO3 26

c)

PaO2 50, pH 7.20, PaCO2 48, HCO3 29

d)

PaO2 55, pH 7.56, PaCO2 58, HCO3 19

156.

A patient is on mechanical ventilation with PEEP (positive end-expiratory pressure). Which finding below indicates the patient is developing a complication related to their therapy and requires immediate treatment?

a)

HCO3 26 mmHg

b)

Blood pressure 70/45

c)

PaO2 80 mmHg

d)

PaCO2 38 mmHg

157.

You are caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. As the nurse you know that prone positioning can be beneficial for some patients with this condition. With findings below indicate this type of positioning was beneficial for your patient with ARDS?

a)

Improvement in lung sounds

b)

Development of a V/Q mismatch

c)

PaO2 increased from 59 mmHg to 82 mmHg

d)

PEEP needs to be titrated to 15 mmHg of water

158.

You’re precepting a nursing student who is assisting you care for a patient on mechanical ventilation with PEEP for treatment of ARDS. The student asks you why the PEEP setting is at 10 mmHg. Your response is:

a)

“This pressure setting assists the patient with breathing in and out and helps improve air flow.”

b)

“This pressure setting will help prevent a decrease in cardiac output and hyperinflation of the lungs.”

c)

“This pressure setting helps prevent fluid from filling the alveoli sacs.”

d)

"This pressure setting helps open the alveoli sacs that are collapsed during exhalation.”

159.

A patient has been intubated and placed on a volume-cycled mechanical ventilator. The nurse carefully assesses the patient for findings associated with a risk associated with this type of ventilator. What is that risk?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Barotrauma

d)

Hypoventilation

160.

A patient’s ventilator settings were changed as follows: tidal volume increased from 450 mL to 500 mL and rate increased from 14 breaths to 16 breaths per minute. What ABG change would the nurse anticipate?

a)

Increasing PaCO2

b)

Decreasing SaO2

c)

Decreasing pH

d)

Increasing pH