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Anatomy 1 Topic 7

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hard dense connective tissue

(Hint: makes up the skeleton)

(a)  

2.

semi-rigid connective tissue for flexibility and smooth surfaces

(a)  

3.

Skeletal system function(s)

a)

Support the body (gives shape)

b)

Facilitate movement (attachment points for muscles)

c)

Protects organs and blood cells (ribs, skull, vertebral column)

d)

store and release minerals and fat (especially calcium and phosphate)

e)

production (blood cells are formed = hematopoiesis, in the red marrow)

4.

Divide and develop into osteoblasts (stem cells that will divide into effector cell = osteoblasts to build bone)

a)

Osteogenic cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Osteoclasts

5.

Forms new bone, does not divide, it secretes collagen, calcifies, it matures into an osteocyte

a)

Osteogenic Cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

6.

Common bone cell, maintain the mineral concentration by secreting enzymes, do not divide (just maintain health of bones)

a)

Osteogenic Cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

7.

Responsible for breakdown and resorption of bone; multinucleated and originate from white blood cells; use Hydrogen and chloride to lower pH and dissolve bonds

a)

Osteogenic Cells

b)

Osteblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

8.

A

a)

Osteogenic Cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

9.

B

a)

Osteogenic Cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

10.

C

a)

Osteogenic Cell

b)

Osteblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

11.

D

a)

Osteogenic Cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoclasts

12.

Extracellular components:

33% collagen (protein) fibers to resist stretching and twisting, ground substance formed from proteoglycans and glycoproteins

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

13.

Extracellular Components:

hard matrix of bone to resist compression, 85% is hydroxyapatite (crystalized calcium phosphate salt), and 15% is fluoride, sulfate, potassium and magnesium

a)

Organic

b)

Inorganic

14.

Spongy and Compact:

Microscopic ring centered around a central canal

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

15.

Spongy and Compact:

blood vessels, nerve, and lymph vessels follow and connect all canals of the bone

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

16.

Spongy and Compact:

waste removal and nutrient transport, in shaft of long bones and covers spongy bone

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

17.

Spongy and Compact:

makes up 80% of bones

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

18.

Spongy and Compact:

makes up 20% of bones

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

19.

Spongy and Compact:

shaped like a lattice work and not a canal system

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

20.

Spongy and Compact:

some of the spaces contain the red marrow

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

21.

Spongy and Compact:

in the epiphysis and bones of the skull

a)

Spongy

b)

Compact

22.

spider shaped cells found in lacunae at junctions of lamellae

a)

osteon

b)

osteocyte

c)

canaliculi

d)

lacunae

23.

structural unit of compact bone, elongated cylinder parallel with length of bone, has a central opening

a)

osteon

b)

haversian's canal

c)

lamellae

d)

volkmanns' canal

24.

through the center of the osteon, houses blood vessels and nerve fibers, lined with endosteum

a)

lamellae

b)

osteon

c)

central (haversian's) canal

d)

volkmann's canal

25.

perpendicular to central canal for blood vessels and nerve fibers

a)

Osteon

b)

Central (haversian's) canal

c)

volkmann's canal

d)

lamellae

26.

arrangement of matrix (concentric, interstitial, and circumferential)

a)

osteon

b)

central (haversian's) canal

c)

volkmann's canal

d)

lamellae

27.

spaces between osteon rings; houses osteocytes

a)

lamellae

b)

lacunae

c)

canaliculi

d)

endosteum

28.

hair-like canals; connect lacunae to each other and central canal; allows osteocytes to communicate through gap junctions

a)

volkmann's canal

b)

haversian's canal

c)

lacunae

d)

canaliculi

29.

outer membrane lining of bone

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

lamellae

d)

osteon

30.

delicate membranous lining of medullary cavity for bone growth, repair, and remodeling occurs.

a)

Periosteum

b)

Endosteum

c)

Lacunae

d)

Osteon

31.

supportive, on articular ends of bones, supports respiratory airways, embryonic skeleton, connects ribs to sternum, and makes up epiphyseal (growth plate)

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

fibrocartilage

c)

elastic cartilage

32.

absorbs shock and redistributes weight in pubic symphysis, intervertebral discs, and meniscus of knee

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

33.

flexible, found around external ear, epiglottis, and Eustachian (auditory) tube

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

34.

forms tendons (muscle to bone), ligaments (bone to bone), and reinforces joints

a)

Dense Regular Tissue

b)

Dense Irregular Tissue

35.

forms periosteum which protects osteogenic cells

a)

Dense Regular Tissue

b)

Dense Irregular Tissue

36.

bone shaft, surrounds medullary cavity which holds the yellow marrow, compact bone

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

37.

spongy bone as it starts to widen, red marrow is in spongy bone, has hyaline cartilage to allow growth

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

38.

area where the diaphysis and epiphysis meet, contains epiphyseal plate

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

39.

on the inside where bone growth, repair, and remodeling occur

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

40.

on the outside where tendons and ligaments attach, contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

41.

A

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

metaphysis

d)

periosteum

e)

endosteum

42.

B

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

43.

C

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

44.

D

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

45.

E

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Periosteum

e)

Endosteum

46.

central cavity of bone holding yellow bone marrow

a)

medullary cavity

b)

articular cartilage

c)

epiphysial plate

d)

epiphysial line

e)

perforating fibers

47.

hyaline cartilage covering epiphysis at moveable joints

a)

medullary cavity

b)

articular cartilage

c)

epiphysial plate

d)

epiphysial line

e)

perforating fibers

48.

layer of hyaline cartilage where bones grow in length

a)

medullary cavity

b)

articular cartilage

c)

epiphysial plate

d)

epiphysial line

e)

perforating fibers

49.

where the plate used to be after it is fused by osseous tissue; found in adults after growth is finished

a)

medullary cavity

b)

articular cartilage

c)

epiphysial plate

d)

epiphysial line

e)

perforating fibers

50.

They secure the periosteum to the bone (Sharpey’s Fibers)

a)

medullary cavity

b)

articular cartilage

c)

epiphysial plate

d)

epiphysial line

e)

perforating fibers

51.

Ossification (osteogenesis) is when:

a)

mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteogenic cells and then osteoblasts in ossification centers

b)

osteoblasts secrete osteoid

c)

after a few days, osteoblasts become osteocytes and calcium hardens the matrix

d)

osteocytes become sperm cells and give birth to the Kentucky Wildcats

52.

2 types of ossification:

bones are formed from a fibrous membrane, the final bones to ossify are facial bones at the end of adolescence. (occurs in skull and clavicles only)

a)

intramembranous ossification

b)

endochondral ossification

53.

2 types of ossification: bone replaces hyaline cartilage produced at the epiphyseal plate, slower process but similar result

a)

intramembranous ossification

b)

endochondral ossification

54.

Where do long bones grow?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

metaphysis

d)

epiphysial plate

e)

epiphysial line

55.

Cartilage is produced on the ____ side of the plate and it is ossified on the ____ end which lengthens the bone.

a)

diaphysis; epiphysis

b)

epiphysis; diaphysis

56.

Zones of bone growth:

anchors the epiphyseal plate to the osseous tissue

a)

reserve zone

b)

proliferative zone

c)

zone of maturation and hypertrophy

d)

zone of calcified matrix

57.

Zones of bone growth:

produces new chondrocytes

a)

reserve zone

b)

proliferative zone

c)

zone of maturation and hypertrophy

d)

zone of calcified matrix

58.

Zones of bone growth:

chondrocytes grow larger

a)

reserve zone

b)

proliferative zone

c)

zone of maturation and hypertrophy

d)

zone of calcified matrix

59.

Zones of bone growth:

osteoblasts secrete bone tissue on the calcified cartilage

a)

reserve zone

b)

proliferative zone

c)

zone of maturation and hypertrophy

d)

zone of calcified matrix

60.

Which hormones are active before puberty?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Growth

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

61.

Which hormones are active during and after puberty?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Growth

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

62.

This hormone results in chondrocyte proliferation (bone growth) and calcium retention (most is released during sleep); stimulates insulin-like growth factor.

a)

Thyroid

b)

Growth

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

63.

THIS hormone regulates skeletal growth.

a)

thyroid

b)

growth

c)

testosterone

d)

estrogen

64.

These hormones are responsible for growth spurts occurring during puberty.

a)

Thyroid

b)

Growth

c)

Testosterone

d)

Estrogen

65.

These hormones promote bone growth and promote the conversion from epiphyseal plate to epiphyseal line, which occurs when the body is done growing.

a)

thyroid

b)

growth

c)

testosterone

d)

estrogen

66.

Types of growth:

due to stress on bones, causes thicker bones

a)

Appositional growth

b)

Interstitial growth

67.

Types of bone growth:

happens at the epiphyseal plate, causes longer bones

a)

Appositional growth

b)

Interstitial growth

68.

In adults, ______ growth is also known as remodeling.

a)

Appositional

b)

Interstital

69.

True or False:

women have a higher peak bone mass than males.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Males have a faster decline in bone mass than females.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Both men and women experience decreased bone mass with age, but women lose bone mass faster due to menopause.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Vitamin D is important for calcium absorption, which is important for bone strength

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Vitamin __ supports bone mineralization.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

K

74.

__% of the body's magnesium is found in the skeleton.

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

75.

Fluoride is good for teeth enamel and bone strength

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Omega 3 fatty acids may _____ bone production.

a)

enhance

b)

hinder (opposite of enhance, Hayden)

77.

Parathyroid hormone _______ osteoclast (bone breakdown) activity and ______ osteoblast (bone buildup) activity.

a)

increases; decreases

b)

decreases; increases

78.

Calcitonin _______ osteoclast (bone breakdown) activity and _______ osteoblast (bone buildup) activity.

a)

increases; decreases

b)

decreases; increases

79.

______ stops being produced with age, while _____ is produced more with age, which leads to osteoporosis and other bone diseases.

a)

Parathyroid hormone; calcitonin

b)

Calcitonin; parathyroid hormone

80.

Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the human body.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Homeostasis:

low calcium; affects blood circulation (coagulation), muscles (contraction), nerves (function), and bones (brittles)

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

82.

What are the effects of hypocalcemia (low calcium)?

a)

blood circulation (coagulation)

b)

muscles (contraction)

c)

underactive nervous system (slow reflexes)

d)

overactive nervous system (muscle spasms and seizures)

e)

brittle bones

83.

Homeostasis:

high calcium; nervous system becomes underactive leading to sluggish reflexes, constipation, loss of appetite, confusion, and possible coma .

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

84.

What are the effects of hypercalcemia (high calcium)?

a)

loss of appetite

b)

constipation

c)

sluggish reflexes

d)

muscle spasms/seizures

e)

possible coma

85.

Endocrine system, digestive system, and kidneys must work together for calcium balance for homeostasis (to prevent hypo- and hypercalcemia).

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Bone classification:

cylindrical, longer than they are wide, function as levers

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

flat bones

d)

irregular bones

e)

sesamoid bones

87.

Bone classification:

cube-like in shape, carpals and tarsals

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

flat bones

d)

irregular bones

e)

sesamoid bones

88.

Bone classification:

thin and often curved, attachment points for muscles, often focus on protection (cranium, scapulae, and sternum)

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

flat bones

d)

irregular bones

e)

sesamoid bones

89.

bone classification:

not easily characterized (vertebrae and some facial bones)

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

flat bones

d)

irregular bones

e)

sesamoid bones

90.

bone classification:

small and round; form in tendons (patella; like a sesame seed)

a)

long bones

b)

short bones

c)

flat bones

d)

irregular bones

e)

sesamoid bones

91.

Arteries enter the bone through the nutrient _____ - small holes in the diaphysis

a)

hole

b)

vein

c)

artery

d)

foramen

92.

_____ leave the bone through the nutrient foramen.

a)

veins

b)

arteries

c)

nerves

93.

Nerves follow the blood supply into bone tissue

a)

True

b)

False

94.

A

a)

blood vessels containing nutrients

b)

nerves

c)

nutrient foramen

d)

epiphysial line

95.

B

a)

blood vessels containing nutrients

b)

hole in bone

c)

nutrient foramen

d)

spongy bone

96.

C

a)

diaphysis

b)

metaphysis

c)

articular cartilage

d)

compact bone

97.

D

a)

endosteum

b)

periosteum

c)

spongy bone

d)

compact bone

98.

E

a)

periosteum

b)

compact bone

c)

spongy bone

d)

medullary cavity

99.

F

a)

compact bone

b)

periosteum

c)

endosteum

d)

medullary cavity

100.

The head, neck, back, and chest (80 bones) are part of which division of the skeleton?

a)

axial skeleton

b)

protection region

c)

vertebral column

d)

appendicular skeleton

101.

The brain, spinal cord, heart, and lungs are part of which division of the skeleton?

a)

axial skeleton

b)

protection region

c)

vertebral column

d)

rib cage

e)

appendicular skeleton

102.

This division of the skeleton consists of only 22 bones, most of which being flat.

a)

Axial skeleton

b)

rib cage

c)

skull

d)

vertebral column

e)

appendicular skeleton

103.

This division of the skeleton consists of 24 irregular bones.

a)

axial skeleton

b)

skull

c)

rib cage

d)

vertebral column

e)

appendicular skeleton

104.

This division of the skeleton consists of 12 pairs of flat bones.

a)

axial skeleton

b)

appendicular skeleton

c)

vertebral column

d)

skull

e)

rib cage

105.

This division of the skeleton consists of bones of the limbs (126 bones).

a)

axial skeleton

b)

appendicular skeleton

c)

vertebral column

d)

protection region

e)

rib cage

106.

The skull, or cranium, contains 14 facial bones and the 8 brain case bones.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

The ______ is the only bone that is moveable, it is two bones at first and fuse together during the first year

a)

maxilla

b)

nasal

c)

ethmoid

d)

mandible

108.

This facial bone houses the paranasal sinuses and creates the nasal conchae.

(Hint: your sinuses are a complex maze behind your nose and eyes)

a)

sphenoid bone

b)

ethmoid bone

c)

hyoid bone

d)

nasal bone

109.

Dense fibrous connective tissue, interlocking pieces that connect two bones to each other and form joints.

a)

Sutures

b)

Cartilage

c)

Sinuses

d)

Fusions

110.

Battle's Sign: Discoloration behind the ear over the _______; means possible skull fracture

a)

xiphoid process

b)

mastoid process

c)

occipital bone

d)

sphenoid bone

111.

This region of the skull is part of the ethmoid bone and swirls air to moisten to warm it before it enters the lungs. Mucus can trap dust, pollen, bacteria, and viruses in this region.

a)

Nasal cavity

b)

Nasal conchae

c)

Sinuses

d)

Orbit region

112.

This region of the skull is behind the eyes and nose. Its primary purposes are to lighten the skull, add resonance to the voice, and fill with fluid causing pain during a sinus infection

a)

Nasal cavity

b)

Nasal conchae

c)

Orbit region

d)

Sinuses

113.

This group of bones is around the eyeballs/nose. It includes the zygomatic, sphenoid, maxillary, lacrimal, ethmoid, palatine, and frontal bones.

a)

Nasal bones

b)

Nasal conchae

c)

Sinuses

d)

Orbit

114.

This "facial" bone is independent of the skull, held in place by muscles

a)

sphenoid bone

b)

ethmoid bone

c)

hyoid bone

d)

mandible

115.

The vertebral column does NOT have alternating vertebrae and intervertebral discs orientation.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

"superior column with secondary/convex curve; C1 is the Atlas and C2 is the Axis" describes which region of the vertebral column?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

117.

"Attach to ribs with a primary/concave curve" describes which region of the vertebral column?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

118.

"Largest vertebral bones with secondary/convex curve" describes which region of the vertebral column?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

119.

Which condition results from excessive thoracic curve?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Scoliosis

120.

Which condition results from excessive lumbar curve?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Scoliosis

121.

Which condition results from lateral curvature (twisting of spine)?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Scoliosis

122.

Which aspect of the vertebral column allows padding and movement?

a)

body of vertebrae

b)

intervertebral discs

c)

vertebral processes

d)

vertebral cartilage

123.

Tough outer layer of vertebral discs; it anchors the disc.

a)

Annulus Fibrosus

b)

Nucleus Pulposus

124.

Watery center of the vertebral disc to resist compression, gets thinner with age due to water decline

a)

Annulus Fibrosus

b)

Nucleus Pulposus

125.

Herniated Disc:

(hint: annulus fibrosus surrounds the nucleus pulposus)

(unilateral means it affects 1 side, bilateral means both)

a)

the nucleus pulposus pushes through the annulus fibrosus, usually unilateral

b)

the annulus fibrosus pushes through the nucleus pulposis, usually unilateral

c)

the nucleus pulposus pushes through the annulus fibrosus, usually bilateral

d)

the annulus fibrosus pushes through the nucleus pulposis, usually bilateral

126.

The thoracic cage consists of 12 pairs of ribs connecting the sternum to the thoracic vertebrae.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Ribs 1-7 attach to the sternum.

a)

True ribs

b)

False ribs

c)

Floating ribs

128.

Ribs 8-12, 8-10 attach to the cartilage of the superior rib.

a)

True ribs

b)

False ribs

c)

Floating ribs

129.

Ribs 11+12, have no bond to the sternum.

a)

True ribs

b)

False ribs

c)

Floating ribs

130.

Pectoral Girdle includes limb bones and bones that attach upper limbs to the axial skeleton.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

The pectoral girdle is also known as the shoulder girdle and only includes the clavicle and scapula (collarbone and shoulder blade)

a)

True

b)

False

132.

This part of the shoulder girdle is the only horizontal long bone, it is the most commonly fractured bone.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

133.

This part of the shoulder girdle protects important blood vessels and nerves.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

134.

This part of the pectoral/shoulder girdle does not articulate with the ribs.

a)

Clavicle

b)

Scapula

135.

This shoulder injury involves a compromised glenohumeral joint.

a)

Dislocated shoulder

b)

Separated shoulder

136.

This shoulder injury involves a sprain of the acromioclavicular joint.

a)

Dislocated shoulder

b)

Separated shoulder

137.

Which is not one of the 3 sections of the arm

a)

Elbow

b)

Antebrachium

c)

Brachium

d)

Hand

138.

Carrying Angle: lateral elbow angle of 5-15 degrees (women's angle is greater due to wider hips)

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Carpal Tunnel: canal in the wrist; 9 muscle tendons and 1 major nerve; overuse causes swelling (carpal tunnel syndrome)

a)

True

b)

False

140.

Females have a smaller/heavier pelvic girdle.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

The pelvic girdle is made for stability, so movement is limited.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

Superior portion of os coxa

a)

Ilium

b)

Ischium

c)

Pubis

d)

Acetabulum

143.

inferior posterior portion of os coxa

a)

ilium

b)

ischium

c)

pubis

d)

acetabulum

144.

inferior anterior portion of os coxa

a)

Ilium

b)

Ischium

c)

Pubis

d)

Acetabulum

145.

Connects the os coxa to the thigh and is further apart in a female.

a)

Ilium

b)

Ischium

c)

Pubis

d)

Acetabulum

146.

2 os coxa meet at the pubis symphysis and posteriorly connect to the sacrum

a)

True

b)

False

147.

Which of the following is not one of the 3 regions of the lower leg?

a)

thigh

b)

(crus) leg

c)

knee

d)

foot

148.

longest and strongest bone in the body

a)

humerous

b)

sternum

c)

spine

d)

femur

149.

The _____ is the largest sesamoid bone and does not articulate with the tibia

a)

femur

b)

fibula

c)

patella

d)

tarsals of the ankle

150.

The Q angle should be 10-15 degrees and larger for women than men. What is the Q angle?

a)

The angle created by the shoulder, humorous, and elbow

b)

The angle created by the hip, femur, and knee

c)

The angle created by the knee, tibia, and ankle

d)

The angle created by the elbow, ulna, and wrist

151.

The foot has 3 arches. Which of these are the three arches?

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

transverse

d)

oblique

e)

lateral longitudinal

152.

Which of the following is the only bone of the appendicular skeleton that does not go through endochondral ossification?

a)

scapula

b)

carpals

c)

phalanges

d)

clavicle

153.

The ends of the appendicular skeleton flatten to form...

a)

hands and feet

b)

elbows

c)

hips

d)

shoulders

154.

The very ends of the appendicular skeleton go through _____ to form fingers and toes (the skeleton breaks apart into phalanges).

a)

apoptosis

b)

ossification

155.

Upper limbs start as limb buds and develop first at about 4 weeks old.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

How many pairs of ribs are known as floating ribs (on test)?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

7

d)

12

157.

What is found in the medullar cavity?

(on test)

a)

volkmann's canals

b)

haversian's canals

c)

red marrow

d)

yellow marrow

158.

What covers the outside of a bone? (on test)

a)

endosteum

b)

periosteum

c)

epiosteum

d)

paraosteum

159.

Which hormone regulates growth AFTER puberty? (on test)

a)

estrogen/testosterone

b)

thyroid

c)

growth

d)

all of the above

160.

What is another name for the growth plate of a bone? (on test)

a)

periosteal plate

b)

epiphyseal plate

c)

metaphyseal plate

d)

diaphyseal plate