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Lab Exam 2 Review

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a recessive allele?
a)
A trait that is always shown (capital letter)
b)
A trait that can be hidden (lower case letter)
c)
Alleles that are the same
d)
Alleles that are different
2.
What is a dominant allele?
a)
A trait that is always shown (capital letter)
b)
A trait that can be hidden (lower case letter)
c)
Alleles that are the same
d)
Alleles that are different
3.
Genes always appear in pairs. Your parents donate ________ allele for every trait.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
23
d)
46
4.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
5.

parent 1: GgBB

parent 2: ggBb

Find the gametes for parent 2.

a)

GB, GB, gB, gB

b)

gB, gb, gB, gb

c)

Gg, BB, GB, GB

d)

gg, Bb, gB, gb

6.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
7.
DNA Sequencing
a)
Determining the order of nucleotides
b)
DNA Synthesis
c)
Chromosome mapping
d)
All of the above
8.

The science of managing and analyzing biological data using advanced technology is

a)

Bioinformatics

b)

Genomics

c)

Forensics

d)

Heredity

9.

Which output from a BLAST search shows the probability of getting a match with that score by random chance?

a)

E value

b)

bit score

c)

percent identity

d)

percent positives

10.

BLASTN is used to search a

a)

Nucleotide query against a nucleotide sequence database

b)

Protein query against a translated nucleotide sequence database

c)

Translated nucleotide query against a protein database

d)

Protein query against a protein database

e)

Translated nucleotide query against a translated nucleotide database

11.

BLAST stands for

a)

Basic Linear Assignment Search Tool

b)

Basic Local Alignment Search Tool

c)

Broad Local Alignment Search Tool

d)

Basic Linear Alignment Search Tool

12.

The initiation of FASTA format has ____ symbol.

a)

a) >

b)

b) <

c)

c) /

d)

d) *

13.

Which is the longest phase of the cell cycle?

a)

All the phases are the same length

b)

M Phase

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

14.

At a point in the cell cycle, chromosomes have aligned near the equator of the cell. Which sequence of events will the cell need to complete to produce two identical daughter cells?

a)

ANAPHASE, TELOPHASE, CYTOKINESIS

b)

ANAOHASE 2, TELOPHASE2, CYTOKINESIS

c)

TELOPHASE, CYTOKINESIS, INTERPHASE

d)

PROPHASE, ANAPHASE, TELOPHASE

15.
a)

Anaphase

b)

Cytonkinesis

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

16.

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

17.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

18.

DURING WHICH PHASE DOES THE DNA REPLICATION OCCUR?

a)

S

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

G1

19.

CELLS CAN BE DIVIDED INTO TWO TYPES...

a)

SOMATIC CELLS

b)

VEGETATIVE CELLS

c)

GAMETE CELLS

d)

UNICELLULAR CELLS

20.

Cytokinesis usually but not always follows mitosis. if a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis the result would be a cell with....

a)

two nuclei

b)

a single large nucleus

c)

high concentration of actin and myosin

d)

two abnormally small nuclei

21.

Which component of blast results tells you how many bases match exactly between the two sequences?

a)

E Value

b)

% identity

c)

Score

d)

This outcome is not possible

22.
After meiosis II the daughter cells will contain ____ chromosomes if the original cell contained 78.
a)
78
b)
39
c)
23
d)
46
23.

The pair of chromosomes that contain the same genes (but may be coded differently) and are inherited from a male and female parent are called ___.

a)

gametes

b)

alleles

c)

zygote

d)

homologous chromosomes

24.

In sexual reproduction, chromosome reduction (to haploid) is necessary to ___.

a)

ensure that all offspring have the correct diploid number of chromosomes

b)

ensure that all offspring have the correct haploid number of chromosomes

c)

ensure that all daughter cells are identical

25.

Mitosis makes sure that all daughter cells are _____.

a)

genetically identical, diploid

b)

genetically identical, haploid

c)

genetically diverse, diploid

d)

genetically diverse, haploid

26.

When creating a DNA profile, the purpose of PCR is to

a)

cutting DNA

b)

fixing mutations

c)

amplifying DNA

d)

reversing the charge of DNA

27.

Which enzyme is used during PCR to pair (add) complementary bases to the template strand?

a)

Thermonuclease

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

RNA Polymerase

28.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
29.
Biologists need additional copies of a DNA fragment. What tool should they use?
a)
Gel Electrophoresis
b)
PCR
c)
Restriction enzymes
d)
This isn't possible
30.

STR (short tandem repeat)...

a)

repeats of short DNA sequences (two - five base pairs) with varying numbers of repeats found among individuals

b)

a cell structure that contains genetic information along strands of DNA

c)

segment of DNA in a chromosome that contains information used to produce a protein or an RNA molecule

d)

a molecule labeled with a radioactive isotope, dye, or enzyme that is used to locate a particular sequence of gene on a DNA molecule

31.

The results of which laboratory technique are represented in the diagram?

a)

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

b)

manipulation of genes

c)

genetic engineering

d)

gel electrophoresis

32.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

33.

Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?

a)

DNA is negatively charged and is attracted to the positive electrode

b)

DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative electrode

c)

the agarose gel in negatively charged

d)

the agarose gel is positively charged

34.

A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase

a)

regulator

b)

repressor

c)

activator

d)

corepressor

35.

In the lac operon the inducer which turns on/ induces the expression of LacZ is

a)

allolactose (isomer of lactose)

b)

glucose

c)

galactose

d)

all of the above

36.

The genes within the Lac operon will be expressed if:

a)

lactose and glucose are absent in the cell

b)

glucose is present in the cell, lactose is absent

c)

lactose is present in the cell, glucose is absent

37.

The lac Z gene codes for:

a)

permease

b)

β-galactosidase

c)

repressor of lac operon

d)

cAMP

38.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
39.

What is the role of the lac operon in E. coli gene expression?

a)

It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on

b)

regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells

c)

To make DNA for the gene

d)

To make the gene turn of and off

40.
For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must be true?
a)
A corepressor must be present.
b)
RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
c)
RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
d)
RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive.
41.
What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 12-3?
a)
substitution
b)
frameshift
c)
lethal
d)
insertion
42.

The "central dogma" states that genetic information flows from

a)

Protein-->mRNA-->DNA

b)

Protein-->DNA-->mRNA

c)

mRNA-->DNA-->Protein

d)

DNA-->mRNA-->Protein

43.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
44.

_________________ is an evolutionary tree is a branching diagram or "tree" showing the inferred evolutionary relationships among various biological species or other entities.

a)

Line graph

b)

Cladistics

c)

Phylogenetic tree

d)

Family Tree

45.

Who is most closely related to Taxidea taxus?

a)

Lutra lutra

b)

Panthera pardus

c)

Canis latrans

d)

Canis lupus

46.

According to this phylogenetic tree, which creature is the least related out of all pictured?

a)

Fish

b)

Frog

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

47.

According to this tree, which of these animal phyla are most closely related?

a)

Arthropoda & Mollusca

b)

Arthropoda & Chordata

c)

Chordata & Mollusca

48.

The scientific name for an organism comes from its _____.

a)

class and phylum

b)

family and species

c)

kingdom and phylum

d)

genus and species

49.

The scientific name of a cactus is Pachycereus pringle, what is its genus?

a)

Pachycereus

b)

pringlei

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